Objective Indian and World Geography General Studies Paper - 1 For Civil Services State Services Examinations (Majid Husain)

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Objective Indian and World Geography, 4e
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DEDICATED
To
MY TEACHER AND INSPIRATION
SHRI (LATE) MAJID HUSAIN SIR
&
My Parents
Shri. Mohd. Ibadullah
Smt. Nusrat Sultana
About the Contributor
Mohd. Rizwan Ahmed, Director of IAS mentors Academy,

Hyderabad. He has been teaching civil services aspirants for last 14
years and has successfully guided thousands of aspirants in
achieving their dreams. He is well know name among the students
for expertise in Geography and mentoring students.
Mohd. Rizwan Ahmed, M.Tech. in Remote Sensing and GIS, and
continuously involved in research in Geography and Ecology. He is
teaching Geography optional, General Studies–Geography, Ecology
and Disaster management.
He is associated as a faculty with some the most reputed
institutes for civil services coaching, like RCReddy IAS study circle,
21st century IAS academy, Hyderabad and Universal coaching,
Bangalore.
Apart from offline training, he is one of the top educators on
India’s largest online Platform UNACADEMY.
He has a credit of training some of the top rankers in recent
years.
Acknowledgements
The merit of the candidates appearing in the Preliminary
examinations is decided on the first paper that has a substantial
number of questions from Geography. Late Prof Majid Husain, a
renowned name in the world of Geography and especially popular
amongst the candidates making Geography their optional shall be
remembered for a long time for his commitment and valuable
contribution. He wrote the books in a very simplified language and
covered the latest of latest topics in Geography.
After his demise, the revision and updation of his writings would
have come to a stop without the efforts of the team of McGraw-Hill.
The family of the author extend their thanks to Mohd. Rizwan
Ahmed for agreeing to edit the book with the topics and revision of
the objective questions as per the latest trends. Thanks are also due
to all the friends and family members who encouraged in the revision
of the book.
It is hoped that the revised edition shall be of immense help to all
the aspirants of civil services and other competitive examinations as
well. The book shall also be useful to those teaching and learning
Geography.
May the almighty grant highest standards in heaven to the
demised soul of the author.
Hoor Bano Naiyer
(w/o Late Prof. Majid Husain)
This book is the culmination of my experience of teaching

Geography for civil services aspirants for last14 years accompanied
with encouragement from my well wishers. I found myself at top
experiencing the feeling of fulfillment, when I realised my name
appears on the cover of this book along with name of my teacher
and guruLate shri Majid Husain sir.
At this moment of accomplishment I am greatly indebted to my
teacher, Late shri Majid Husain sir.
My earnest thanks to Shri RCReddy sir, Shri Raja Reddy sir, of
RCReddy IAS study circle for their support. I am thankful Shri
Krishna Pradeep, director, 21st century IAS Academy for his
continous encouragement. I extent my thanks to Shri Upendra
shetty, director, UCCBangalore, Shri Gopalakrishna, director, Brain
tree, Hyderabad for their support.
I greatly appreciate and acknowledge the support received from
UNACADEMY. I am equally thankful toMr. Gaurav Munjal, Mr.
Roman Saini and Mr. Abhishek Srivastava of Unacademy for their
support.
I would like to thank the McGraw-Hill team, Ms Shukti Mukherjee,
Ms Jyoti Nagpal, Ms Shreya Soni andMr Dharmender Sharma for
their constant support.
It’s my fortune to gratefully acknowledge the support of my
friends and collegues, Mr. MA Kareem, Mr. MD Pasha, Mr.
Balakrishna, Mr. Teja Deepak, Mr Sanjay, Mr. Ranaganathan, Mr.
Vishnu Varthan, Mr. P Satish, Mr. Fazal and all others.
Finally, I acknowledge the people who mean a lot to me, my
parents, for showing faith in me and giving me liberty to choose what
I desired. I salute you all for the selfless love, care, pain and sacrifice
you did to shape my life. Also, I express my thanks to my sisters for
their support and valuable prayers.
I owe thanks to a very special person, my wife, for her continued
and unfailing love, support and understanding during my pursuit of
this work that made the completion of book possible. I greatly value
her contribution and deeply appreciate her belief in me. I appreciate,
my little daughters Asmara and Ayeza for abiding my ignorance and
the patience during my book writing. Words would never say how
grateful I am to both of you.
My heart felt regard goes to my father in law, mother in law for
their love and moral support.
I thank the Almighty for giving me the strength and patience to
work through all these years.
Mohd. Rizwan Ahmed
Preface to the Fourth Edition
The Civil Services Examination conducted by UPSC(Union public
Service Commission) has become more dynamic and challenging in
recent years. This proactive and evolving nature of exam is intended
to select the best minds who can quickly adapt to unpredictability
and solve questions to arrive at right and most relevant solutions
without losing their nerves. This book is therefore a modest attempt
to present a unique collection of high-quality objective questions on
basic concepts of Geography and Applied Geography. It is based on
the corresponding title, ‘Indian and World Geography’ and has an
exhaustive list of questions incorporating the current happening in
the domain of Geography.
New to 4th edition:
1. Complete restructuring based on the latest examination pattern
2. Book is divided into four parts: World Geography, Indian
Geography, Practise Test Papers and Previous Years’ Question
Papers
3. Topic wise and subtopic wise classification of questions for
easy revision
4. Questions have been classified as per the level of difficulty
5. Previous year questions with detailed explanations with
relevant value addition for the examination for the last 10 years
6. Revised Practice set Question papers with current trend
I am extremely overwhelmed to be associated with Prof. Majid
Husain. He has been my guiding light, inspiration and a motivation to
keep going with the positive spirit in life.
I would like to thank the McGraw-Hill team, Ms Shukti Mukherjee,
Ms Jyoti Nagpal, Ms Shreya Soni and Mr Dharmender Sharma for
their constant support.
I hope this revised edition will be of immense help to the
aspirants.
I wish Best of luck to each one of them !!!
Mohd. Rizwan Ahmed
Preface to the First Edition
I am delighted to place before you a new book—Objective Indian
and World Geography, meant for candidates of the civil services
preliminary examination.
As you are aware, a radical change has been made by the
UPSCin the course structure and pattern of the preliminary
examination. The nomenclature of the preliminary test has been
replaced by the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT), which
comprises of two papers (200 marks each), named General Studies
Paper I and General Studies Paper II.
The feedback received from the successful candidates in the
CSAT examination shows that General Studies Paper I continues to
lay emphasis on subjects like Geography, Ecology, Environment,
Indian Economy, Indian Polity, General Science and Current Affairs.
It has also been observed that the weightage of the disciplines like
Geography, Ecology, Biodiversity and Environment is substantial in
Paper I.
This book is therefore a modest attempt to present a unique
collection of high-quality objective-type questions on basic
concepts of Geography and Applied Geography which includes
emerging disciplines like Ecology, Biodiversity, Environment, etc.
These questions would, hopefully, prove to be of immense
assistance to aspirants preparing for the preliminary examination
conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
The book has been divided into four parts:
Covers questions on Astronomy, Geomorphology,

Part
Oceanography, Economic Geography, World Geography and
A:
Human Geography
Part Covers basic questions on Geography of India
B:
Deals with the last 20 years’ (1995-2014) objective-type
Part
questions on Geography asked in the UPSCpreliminary
C:
examination
Gives map-based questions, of which a special feature is to
Part
clearly identify and point out the geographical distribution of
D:
‘Biodiversity Hotspots’
Each set of questions is based on one topic and has 60

objective-type questions with answer key.
I express my gratitude to the authors and scientists whose works
have been consulted in the formulation of questions. I sincerely
thank my well wishers, students, IAS aspirants and my family
members.
My special thanks to the management and staff at McGraw-Hill
Education whose dedication to the craft of modern book publishing is
greatly appreciated.
I wish all readers the best in all their endeavours.
MAJID HUSAIN
Contents
About the Contributor
Acknowledgements
Preface to the Fourth Edition
Preface to the First Edition
Part-I: World Geography
Chapter–1 World Physical Geography: Geomorphology (landforms)

Chapter–2 Climatology
Chapter–3 Oceanography
Chapter–4 Ecology, Environment, climate change and Disaster Management
Chapter–5 Geography of Asia
Chapter–6 Geography of Africa
Chapter–7 Geography of Europe
Chapter–8 Geography of North America
Chapter–9 Geography of South America
Chapter–10 Geography of Australia
Part-II: Indian Geography
Chapter–11 Indian Geography – Physical Setting of India

Chapter–12 Demography of India
Chapter–13 Agriculture including Resource of India
Chapter–14 Industries in India Including Resource of India
Chapter–15 Transport and Services of India
Part-III: Practice Test Papers
Set–1 Practice Test Paper

Part-IV: Previous years’ Papers
Previous year Paper 2010

PART-I:
WORLD GEOGRAPHY
1
World Physical Geography:

Geomorphology (Landforms)
DIFFICULTY LEVEL: EASY
1. Consider the following statements:

1. Earth’s gravitational force (g) is same at dif¬ferent points on
Earth’s surface irrespective of longitude and latitude if the
altitude is same.
2. Geo-dynamo Theory explains the origin of Earth’s magnetic
field.
Which of the statements above is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following refers to Diastrophism?
(a) The processes involving mountain building through severe
folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust.
(b) The processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the
earth’s crust.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
3. “..... occurs when the surplus accumulated stress in rocks in the
earth’s interior is relieved through the weak zones over the earth’s
sur¬face in form of kinetic energy of wave motion causing
vibrations (at times devastating) on the earth’s surface.”
The aforementioned paragraph refers to a geomorphic process is
widely known as
(a) Volcanism
(b) Tsunami
(c) Earthquake
(d) Orogenic Forces
4. Which of the following can be caused by Earthquakes?
1. Change in river courses
2. Change in contours
3. Tsunamis
4. Glacial surges
5. Land slides
Choose the correct combination using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. Which of the following factors have bearing on denudation
processes?
1. Inclination of beds of rocks
2. Chemical susceptibility of mineral Constituents
3. Permeability of rocks
4. Hardness or softness of constituent minerals
Choose the right combination from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
6. Physical or mechanical weathering processes depends on which
of the following forces?
1. Gravitational forces
2. Earth’s magnetic field
3. Expansion forces due to temperature changes
Choose the right combination from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
7. Granular foliation is common in which of the following type of
denudation?
(a) Mass Wasting
(b) Solution
(c) Salt Weathering
(d) Oxidation and reduction
8. Which of the following is not a use of weathering?
1. Enrichments of mineral deposits
2. Soil enrichment
Choose the right combination using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following is an evidence in sup¬port of Continental
Drift?
1. Tillite Deposits
2. Distribution of fossils
3. Polar Wandering
4. Pedological evidences
Choose the right combination using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
10. Which of the following is a minor tectonic plate?
(a) Arabian Plate
(b) Caribbean Plate
(c) Aegean Plate
(d) All of the above
11. Convergence of which of the following plates led to formation of
Andes Mountains?
(a) South American plate and Nazca Plate
(b) North American plate and Nazca Plate
(c) South American plate and Pacific Plate
(d) Pacific Plate and Nazca Plate
12. Which of the following can be a cause of a tsunami?
(a) Sudden displacement in a seabed due to submarine
earthquakes
(b) Huge submarine landslide
(c) Large volcanic eruptions along shorelines
(d) Any one of or combination of A, B and C
13. Which of the following rock types and the pro¬cesses preceding to
its formation are correctly matched?
1. Igneous Rocks—solidified from magma and lava.
2. Sedimentary Rocks—formed out of exist¬ing rocks
undergoing recrystallisation.
3. Metamorphic Rocks—the result of deposi¬tion of fragments of
rocks.
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
14. Which of the following rock types and corre¬sponding example are
correctly matched?
1. Igneous Rock—Coal
2. Sedimentary Rock—Limestone
3. Metamorphic Rock—Marble
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. A deep and narrow ‘V’ shaped valley is called as gorge.
2. Gorges are extended forms of canyons. Which of the
statements above is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Which of the following is a glacial deposit landform?
(a) Glacial Trough
(b) D-Fjord
(c) Outwash Plain
(d) Horn
17. Which of the following is not a fluvial depositional landform?
(a) Delta
(b) Natural Levees
(c) Cirque
(d) Alluvial Fans
18. Which of the following is not an aspect of flu¬vial erosion action of
rivers?
(a) Downcutting
(b) Attrition
(c) Hydration
(d) Shoaling
19. Which of the following is not a landform cre¬ated by rivers?
(a) Terraces
(b) Sills
(c) Gulleys
(d) Meanders
(a) Terraces
(b) Sills
(c) Gulleys
(d) Meanders
(a) Terraces
(b) Sills
(c) Gulleys
(d) Meanders
22. Which of the following is not a marine depositional landform?
(a) Barrier
(b) Bar
(c) Tombolo
(d) Sea Cliff
1. Stalagmite grows downwards from the roof.
2. Karst is a landform created by interac¬tion of underground
drainage system with limestone.
Which of the statements above is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which of the following lake is a tectonic lake?
(a) Lake Titicaca
(b) Lake Krakatao
(c) Lake Chilka
(d) Aral Sea
25. Marble is a metamorphised form of which of the following rock:
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Clay
(d) Quartzite
26. Volcanic mountain Mt. Vesuvius can be found in
(a) Indonesia
(b) West Indies
(c) Australia
(d) Italy
27. In which one of the following oceans Tonga Trench is situated?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Southern Ocean
28. Which of the following mountain range was formed due to
divergent boundary interaction?
(a) Rocky Mountains
(b) Great Dividing Range
(c) Ural Mountain Range
(d) Atlas Mountains
29. “It is one of the youngest mountain ranges on the planet and
consist mostly of uplifted sedi¬mentary and metamorphic rock. Its
formation is a result of a continental collision or orogeny along the
convergent boundary. Much of this mountain system’s highest
peak’s summit is made of marine limestone”.
The above paragraph best describes:
(a) Alpine Mountains
(b) Ural Mountains
(c) Atlas Mountains
(d) The Himalayas
30. Which of the following is correct order of events which precedes of
Island Arcs due to convergence?
(a) Compression, Folding, Trenching, Volcanism
(b) Folding, Compression, Thrusting, Volcanism
(c) Compression, Thrusting, Folding, Trenching
(d) Compression, Folding, Volcanism, Trenching
31. Lake Tanganyika is located in:
(a) East Africa
(b) South America
(c) West Europe
(d) North America
32. Which among the following can be classified as Dissected
Plateau?
(a) Tibetan Plateau
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Katanga Plateau
(d) Laurentian Plateau
DIFFICULTY LEVEL: MEDIUM

1. Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is
continental building process.
2. Epeirogenic movements act along radius of the Earth but
orogenic forces act along the surface or tangentially.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are incorrect?
Choose the right combination from below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements.
1. The point at which the energy is released is called the focus of
an earthquake.
2. The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called
epicentre.
3. Epicentre is directly above focus.
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
35. Assertion(A): P-waves forms greater shadow zone than S-waves.
Reason(R): This is because P-waves can travel through all three
mediums whereas S-waves can not travel through liquids and
gases.
Mark the correct answer based on the instruc¬tions given below.
(a) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
(b) If A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) If only A is correct but B is wrong
(d) If both A and R are incorrect
36. Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s interior.
1. Lithosphere includes both the Crust and a part of mantle.
2. Asthenosphere is completely part of the Mantle.
Choose the right combination from below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s interior.
1. Mantle is largest layer of Earth by volume.
2. It has heaviest mineral materials of highest density of all the
layers
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct? Answer using
codes mentioned below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s interior:
1. Oxygen is the most abundant element of Earth’s Crust.
2. Iron is the most abundant metallic element of Earth’s Crust.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Which of the following can cause deformation of Earth?
1. The heat generated by the radioactive ele¬ments in earth’s
interior.
2. Movement of the crustal plates due to tectogenesis.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which of the following comes under denudation in geomorphic
processes?
1. Weathering
2. Erosion
3. Volcanism
4. Transportation
Choose the correct combination using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
41. Consider the following statements regarding weathering:
1. Dilution of solids of rocks on encountering water is called
hydration.
2. Hydration is reversible and long, continued repetition of this
process causes fatigue in the rocks and may lead to their
disintegration.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Assertion(A): In weathering, oxidation means a combination of a
mineral with oxygen to form oxides (rusting in case of iron) or
hydroxides. Reason(R): Red soils appear red due to the
pres¬ence of iron oxides.
Mark the correct answer based on the instruc¬tions given below.
(a) If both A and R are correct and R is the cor¬rect explanation
of A
(b) If A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
43. Which of the following can help weathering processes?
1. Burrowing and wedging by organisms like earthworms, rodents
2. Human beings by disturbing vegetation, ploughing and
cultivating soils
3. Ground water reaching surface through cap¬illary action
Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
44. Assertion(A): Hills with smooth rounded sur¬faces are more
common in Deccan Plateau rather than the Western Ghats of
India.
Reason(R): Exfoliation of rock surfaces is most effective in dry
climates and high elevations where diurnal temperature changes
are drastic. Mark the correct answer based on the instructions
given below.
(a) If both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of
A
(b) If A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
45. Consider the following statements regard¬ing Continental Drift
Theory (CDT) of Alfred Wegner.
1. India was a part of Laurasia along with Australia and
Madagascar.
2. Gravity, pole-fleeing and tidal currents played a key role in drift
of land masses.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The polar-fleeing forces are independent of the rotation of the
earth.
2. “Lemuria” was a contiguous landmass of India, Madagascar,
and Africa and is a habitat of Lemures.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Theory Scientist
1. Nebular Hypothesis - Immanuel Kant
2. Convectionai Current Theory- Harry Hess
3. Sea Floor Spreading- Arthur Holmes
Choose correct combination using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
48. Which of the following are evidences of sea floor spreading?
1. Similarities between rocks equidistant on either side of the crest
of mid-oceanic ridges
2. Increasing age of the rocks moving away from the oceanic crest
at mid-oceanic ridges
3. Rocks of same age across different continents
Choose correct combination using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
49. Juan de Fuca plate is located between which of the following two
plates mentioned below?
(a) Central American plate and Pacific plate
(b) South American plate and Pacific plate
(c) Philippine plate and Indian plate
(d) Pacific plate and North American plate
1. Rocks formed by cooling of magma within the crust are called
‘Igneous rocks’.
2. Rocks formed by cooling of lava above the surface are called
‘Plutonic rocks’.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Consider the following statements regarding volcanism:
1. Caldera is a lake created by volcanos at the crater after
frequent eruptions.
2. Lonar in Maharashtra is an example of volca¬nic caldera.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. “Located at an Oceanic - oceanic plate conver¬gence boundary, if
Mount Everest were placed into the trench at this point, its peak
would still be over two kilometres under water.” Which one of the
following combinations refers to the boundary and trench
respectively in this para¬graph?
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) Pacific Plate and Mariana Plate at Challenger Trench
(b) Philippine Plate and Mariana Plate at Challenger Deep
(c) Pacific Plate and Mariana Plate at Mariana Trench
(d) Pacific Plate and Philippine Plate at Philippine Trench
53. Which of the following statements is/are true about Tsunami?
1. Tsunamis behave as shallow-water waves.
2. Tsunami which was imperceptible in deep water may grow to
many metres high.
Answer using codes mentioned below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Ria coastline is a coastal region which is heavily eroded by
glacial action and the val¬ley glacier troughs which has been
excavated below sea level.
2. Fjord is a region of highly submerged irregu¬lar shoreline which
is dissected by streams into a system of valleys and divides.
Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
55. Which of the following geomorphic processes Bridge shaped
landforms can be formed?
1. Intrusive Volcanism
2. Aeolian Erosion
3. Marine Deposition
4. Glacial Deposition
(a) 1, 3 only
(b) 2, 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 only
(d) 1, 2 only
56. Consider the following statements regarding landforms:
1. Window is a bridge shaped landform created by Aeolian
Erosion.
2. Badland topography is more common in arid areas.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which of the following is/are original or tec¬tonic mountain range?
1. Black Forest
2. Rockies
3. Aravalli
4. Vindhya and Satpura
5. Urals
Answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
58. Quartzite is a metamorphised form of the fol¬lowing rock under
influence of following agent respectively:
(a) Sandstone under influence of pressure
(b) Clay under influence of heat
(c) Sandstone under influence of heat
(d) Clay under influence of pressure
59. Volcanic eruptions do not occur in:
(a) Sea of Japan
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) Philippine Sea
60. “These rocks are characterised by marks left behind by water
currents and waves. These rocks have fossils of plants and
animals. These rocks are generally porous and allow water to
percolate through them.”
Which of the following rock type can be best described using the
aforementioned paragraph?
(a) Metamorphic Rocks
(b) Sedimentary Rocks
(c) Igneous Rocks
61. “It played a key role in forming new seas and oceans. It also
creates new continents. It is also responsible for creating longest
mountain range on Earth. This is responsible for the Great African
Rift”.
This process is:
(a) Divergent Plate Boundary interaction
(b) Conservative Plate Boundary interaction
(c) Hotspot volcanism interaction
(d) Destructive Plate Boundary interaction
DIFFICULTY LEVEL: TOUGH
62. Which of the following acts as direct sources of information about

Earth’s interior?
1. Volcanic Eruptions
2. Study of Seismic Waves
3. Spatial variations in Earth’s Gravity
4. Meteors
5. Deep Earth Mining
Choose the correct combination from below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 3,4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 5 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
1. The gravitation force (g) is same at different latitudes on the
surface for the same altitude.
2. Understanding Earth’s interior helps us in understanding
internal structure of various solar system objects.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The high temperatures of Earth’s core is attrib¬uted to
automatic disintegration of the radio¬active substances apart
from primordial.
2. It is the same process which is responsible for energy
generation on sun’s surface.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The point at which the energy is released is called the focus of
an earthquake.
2. The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called
epicentre.
3. Epicentre is directly above focus.
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
66. Consider the following statements about natural earthquakes:
1. All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere
2. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the
focus and move in all direc¬tions travelling through the body of
the earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Consider the following statements about natural earthquakes:
1. Surface waves are called ‘S’ waves are in lon¬gitudinal in
nature.
2. Usually surface waves record higher on seis¬mographs than
that of primary waves or body waves.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Match the following seismic waves and their characteristics:
1.P-waves a. Recorded first on seismograph
2.S-waves b. Can travel in all mediums
c. Most Destructive
d. Transverse in nature
3.L-waves
e. High frequency waves
f. Dies out at smaller depth
Select the right combinations from below:
(a) 1- a and d, 2- e and d, 3- c, d and f
(b) 1- a and b, 2- d and e, 3- c, d and f
(c) 1- a and d, 2- e and d, 3- c, b and f
(d) 1- a and c, 2- e and c, 3- b, d and f
69. Assertion(A): P-waves forms greater shadow zone than S-waves.
Reason(R): This is because P-waves can travel through all three
mediums whereas S-waves can’t travel through liquids and gases.
Mark the correct answer based on the instructions below:
1. Oceanic crust is thicker as compared to the continental crust.
2. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain
systems.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Lithosphere includes both the Crust and a part of mantle.
2. Asthenosphere is completely part of the Mantle.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The outer covering of the crust is of metamorphic material and
below lies sedimentary and igneous rocks.
2. The continents are composed of lighter silicates while the
oceans have the heavier silicates.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Mantle is largest layer of Earth by volume.
2. It has heaviest mineral materials of highest density of the all
layers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Mohorovicic Discontinuity (Moho) - separates the crust from the
mantle.
2. Gutenberg Discontinuity - lies between the mantle and the outer
core.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are incorrect? Answer using
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Which of the following is correct order of the process of soil-
erosion?
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
1. While orogenic movements create uplift, earthquakes do not
create uplifts of surface lands.
2. Epeirogenic or continent forming movements are radial
movements.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Which of the following phenomenon can be better understood by
using ‘Continental Drift Theory’ and ‘Sea Floor Spreading Theory’?
1. Plate Tectonics
2. Formation of mid-oceanic ridges
3. Origins of Earthquake
4. Formation of fold mountains
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. Consider the following statements regarding plate tectonics:
1. San Andreas Fault is a continental transform fault which forms
the tectonic boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North
American Plate.
2. Nazca Plate has no transform boundary with any other
neighbouring plate.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. Consider the following statements regarding plate tectonics:
1. Two main sources of heat within Earth are nuclear fusion and
residual heat.
2. Fold and block mountains, mid-oceanic ridges, trenches,
volcanism, earthquakes etc. are a direct consequence of
interaction between various lithospheric plates.
codes mentioned below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Assertion(A): Himalayas are fold mountains located on the
boundary of Indo-Australian plate interaction with Eurasian Plate.
Reason(R): Fold mountains are formed when the plates colloid
with each other, which is a characteristic of convergent boundary
interaction.
Mark the correct answer based on the instructions given below:
81. Which of the following boundary/boundaries is/ are mostly
divergent?
1. The boundary between African plate and North American plate
2. The boundary between Arabian plate and African plate
3. The boundary between Philippine plate and Pacific plate
4. The boundary between Scotia plate and Antarctic plate
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
82. Consider the following statements regarding volcanos:
1. Composite volcanos are found at constructive plate margins.
2. Shield volcanos create wide base and gentle sloping sides.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Which of the following volcanic landforms correctly matched with
their shapes?
1. Batholith-Dome Shaped
2. Laccolith-Mushroom shaped
3. Sill-Vertical sheet shaped
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
84. Consider the following statements regarding volconos:
1. Earth’s major earthquakes occur mainly in belts coinciding with
the margins of tectonic plates mid-world mountain belt being the
only exception.
2. Deep focus earthquakes at trenches are usually most severe
unlike shallow focus earthquakes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. Consider the following statements regarding rock systems:
1. Granite is an intrusive volcanic rock formed by rapid cooling of
crystals of lava.
2. Basalt is a plutonic rock formed by slow cooling of crystal of
lava.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A ravine is a landform narrower than a canyon and is often the
product of stream cutting erosion.
2. Ravines are typically classified as larger in scale than gullies,
although smaller than valleys.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Deflation is a type of erosion caused by running water.
2. Deflation creates a landform called deflation basins over a time
period.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Deflation is a type of erosion caused by running water.
2. Deflation creates a landform called deflation basins over a time
period.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. In which of the following geomorphic processes, mushroom
shaped landforms/rocks are more likely to be formed?
1. Intrusive Volcanism
2. Aeolian Erosion
3. Marine Deposition
4. Glacial Deposition
(a) 1, 3 only
(b) 2, 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 only
(d) 1, 2 only
90. Consider the following statements regarding lakes:
1. Black Sea is a lake.
2. Caspian Sea and Dead Sea are not lakes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Geographical Feature Region
1.Katanga Plateau : South America
2.Iberian Plateau : South-West Europe
3.Lake Vostok : Siberia
4.Altai Mountains : Central and East Asia
Choose the correct combination using the codes.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
92. Assertion(A): Despite extensive volcanism, there is no island
formation along the divergent boundaries along mid oceanic
ridges.
Reason(R): Acidic lavas have more viscosity because of which do
not move quickly and solidifies quickly.
Mark the correct answer based on the instructions below:
93. Which of the following is a landform created by Hotspot
Volcanism?
1. Reunion Islands
2. Hawaii
3. Galapagos
4. Iceland
5. Yellowstone
Answer using codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
94. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Geographical Feature Region
1.Kuril Trench : South West Pacific Ocean
2.Chagos Island : South Atlantic Ocean
3.Drakensberg : Southern Africa
4.Lake Baikal : Siberia
Choose the correct combination using the codes.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
95. Which of the following statements about Compound Coastlines is
true?
1. Compound coastlines show the forms of fault and neutral
coastlines combined.
2. Coromandel coast, Malabar Coast are examples of compound
coastlines.
Choose the correct combination using the codes mentioned below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. “These coastlines are formed as a result of new materials being
built out into the water along the coast. These coast lines include
alluvial fan shaped coastline, delta coastline, volcano coastline and
the coral reef coastline”.
Which one of the following coastlines is being best described by
the paragraph above?
(a) Fault Coastline
(b) Compound Coastline
(c) Emergence Coastline
(d) Neutral Coastline
97. Which of the following landform(s) is/are can be seen at boundary
of river/streams and sea?
1. Hanging Valleys
2. Estuaries
3. Cuspate
4. Alluvial Fans
Answer using codes mentioned below.
(a) 1, 2 only
(b) 2, 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. A rift lake is a lake formed as a result of subsidence related to
movement on faults within a rift zone, an area of extensional
tectonics in the oceanic crust.
2. Dead sea was formed by the same rift which led to formation of
Great African Lakes.
Choose the correct combination using the codes mentioned below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. Identify the correct order of stages in formation rift
lakes/seas/oceans at divergent boundary.
(a) Unwarping > Fault Zone > Rift Vally > Rift Lake/Linear Sea >
Ocean
(b) Unwarping > Fault Zone > Rift Lake/Linear Sea > Rift Vally >
Ocean
(c) Fault Zone > Unwarping > Rift Vally > Rift Lake/Linear Sea >
Ocean
(d) Rift Lake/Linear Sea > Unwarping > Fault Zone > Rift Vally >
Ocean
100. Which of the following is/are characteristic feature(s) of Fold
Mountains?
1. Relatively Young
2. Recurrent Seismicity
3. Granite Intrusions
4. Convex slopes on both sides
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (d)
56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d)
66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (c)
86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (b)
Explanations
Difficulty Level: Easy
1. The gravitational force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on
the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator.
This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator
being greater than that at the poles. So, statement 1 is wrong.
Dynamo theory describes the process through which a rotating,
convecting, and electrically conducting fluid acts to maintain a
magnetic field. This theory is used to explain the presence of
anomalously long-lived magnetic fields in astrophysical bodies
including Earth. So, statement 2 is correct.
2. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s
crust come under diastrophism. They include:
1. orogenic processes involving mountain building through
severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s
crust;
2. epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large
parts of the earth’s crust;
3. earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements;
4. plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal
plates.
3. The paragraph explains earthquake. Earthquake and Volcanism
are diastrophic movements of Earth. Tsunami is a result of
Earthquake under oceanic crust. Orogenic processes are
mountain building processes.
4. Earthquakes may cause change in contours, change in river
courses, ‘tsunamis’ (seismic waves created in sea by an
earthquake, as they are called in Japan) which may cause
shoreline changes, spectacular glacial surges (as in Alaska),
landslides, soil creeps, mass wasting etc.
5. Denudation mainly depends on rock type and its structure that
includes folds, faults, orientation and inclination of beds, presence
or absence of joints, bedding planes, hardness or softness of
constituent minerals, chemical susceptibility of mineral
constituents; the permeability or impermeability etc.
6. Physical or mechanical weathering processes depend on some
applied forces like (i) gravitational forces (ii) expansion forces due
to temperature changes, crystal growth or animal activity; (iii) water
pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles.
7. Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and
crystallisation. Many salts like calcium, sodium, magnesium,
potassium and barium tends to expand. High temperature ranges
in deserts favour such salt expansion. Salt crystals in near-surface
pores cause splitting of individual grains within rocks, which
eventually fall off. This process of falling off individual grains may
result in granular disintegration or granular foliation.
8. Significance of weathering
• Weathering is the first step in formation of soils.
• Weathering of rocks and deposits helps in the enrichment and
concentrations of certain valuable ores of iron, manganese,
aluminium, copper etc. Without weathering, the concentration of
the same valuable material may not be economically viable to
exploit, process and refine. This is what is called enrichment.
• Weathering helps in soil enrichment.
9.
10. There are many minor tectonic plates. Some minor plates of
importance are
1. Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
2. Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate
3. Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
4. Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
5. Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North
of New Guinea)
6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.
7. Turkish plate
8. Aegean plate (Mediterranean region)
9. Caribbean plate
10. Juan de Fuca plate (between Pacific and North American
plates)
11. Iranian plate
11. The Andes are formed due to convergence between Nazca plate
(oceanic plate) and the South American plate (continental plate).
Peru - Chile trench is formed due to subduction of Nazca plate.
12. A tsunami can be caused by any disturbance that displaces a
large water mass from its equilibrium position. The usual
immediate cause of a tsunami is sudden displacement in a seabed
due to submarine earthquakes enough to cause the sudden raising
or lowering of a large body of water. The tsunami on 26, December
2004 was caused after an earthquake displaced the seabed off the
coast of Sumatra, Indonesia. Large volcanic eruptions along
shorelines, such as Krakatoa (1883 CE), have also produced
notable tsunamis. A marine volcanic eruption can generate an
impulsive force that displaces the water column and gives birth to a
tsunami. During a submarine landslide, the equilibrium sea-level is
altered by sediment moving along the floor of the sea. Gravitational
forces then propagate a tsunami. Landslides along the coast, high
intensity explosions can also cause tsunami.
13. The correct combination is:
• Igneous Rocks—solidified from magma and lava.
• Sedimentary Rocks—the result of deposition of fragments of
rocks.
• Metamorphic Rocks—formed out of existing rocks undergoing
recrystallisation.
Igneous Rocks—Granite, Basalt; Coal is organically formed
sedimentary rock which can be transformed into Anthracite on
applying heat.
Sedimentary Rocks—
• Mechanically formed—sandstone, conglomerate, limestone,
shale, loes, etc.
• Organically formed—geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal, etc.
• Chemically formed—chert, limestone, halite, potash, etc.
Metamorphic Rocks—Marble
Some Examples of Metamorphism
15. The extended depression on ground through which a stream flows

throughout its course is called a river valley. A deep and narrow ‘V’
shaped valley is also referred to as gorge and may result due to
downcutting erosion and because of recession of a waterfall. An
extended form of gorge is called a Canyon.
16. Glacial Erosional Landforms
• Cirque/Come
• Glacial Trough
• Hanging Valley
• Arete
• Horn
• D-Fjord
Glacial Depositional Landforms
• Outwash Plain
• Esker
• Kame Terraces
• Drumlin
• Kettle Holes
• Moraine
17. All except Cirque are fluvial depositional landforms. Cirque is a
glacial deposit landform.
18. A tsunami which was imperceptible in deep water may grow to
many metres high and this is called the ‘shoaling’ effect. Rest of
the options are various aspects of fluvial erosion.
• Corrasion or abrasion is solid river load striking against rocks
and wearing them down.
• Hydration occurs due to force of running water wearing down
rocks.
• Attrition is river load particles striking, colliding against each
other and breaking down in the process.
• Downcutting is erosion in vertical direction (downcutting leads to
valley deepening) or
• Lateral erosion is erosion in horizontal direction, especially the
walls of the stream.
• Corrosion is the chemical action that leads to weathering.
19. Terraces are stepped benches along the river course in a flood
plain.
Gulley is an incised water-worn channel, which is particularly
common in semi-arid areas.
A meander is defined as a pronounced curve or loop in the
course of a river channel.
Sill is a volcanic landform in form of tabular sheet intrusion
caused by volcanic lava.
20. Terraces are Stepped benches along the river course in a flood
plain.
21. Terraces are Stepped benches along the river course in a flood
plain.
22. Sea cliff is the only marine erosion landform among options. Sea
cliff is a Shoreline marked by a steep bank.
Bar: Rock debris and sand deposited along the coast at a
distance from shoreline by tidal currents.
Barrier is an overwater counterpart of a bar.
Tombolo is a bar connecting the islands formed by tidal
currents and waves.
23. Karst is a landscape which is underlain by limestone which has
been eroded by dissolution, producing towers, fissures, sinkholes,
etc. The water containing limestone in solution, seeps through the
roof in the form of a continuous chain of drops. The water
containing limestone in solution, seeps through the roof in the form
of a continuous chain of drops. A portion of the roof hangs on the
roof and on evaporation of water, a small deposit of limestone is
left behind contributing to the formation of a stalactite, growing
downwards from the roof. The remaining portion of the drop falls to
the floor. This also evaporates, leaving behind a small deposit of
limestone aiding the formation of a stalagmite, thicker and flatter,
rising upwards from the floor. Sometimes, stalactite and stalagmite
join together to form a complete pillar known as the column.
24. Lake Chilka is a lagoon, Lake Krakatao is volcanic, Aral Sea is an
inland slat water lake. Lake Titicaca and Caspian Sea are Tectonic
Lake.
25. Some Examples of Metamorphism
26. Vesuvius is a Stratovolcano (composite volcano) at Bay of Naples

in Italy.
27. The Tonga Trench (also called as Kermadec-Tonga Trench) is an
oceanic trench located in the south-west Pacific Ocean. It is the
deepest trench of the Southern Hemisphere and the second
deepest on Earth. The fastest plate tectonic velocity on Earth
occurs as the Pacific Plate is being subducted west ward in the
trench.
28. The Great Dividing Range, or the Eastern Highlands, is Australia’s
most substantial mountain range and the third longest land-based
range in the world. It is also known as the Australian Alps. It was
formed due to rifting (divergent boundary).
29. The Himalaya are among the youngest mountain ranges on the
planet and consist mostly of uplifted sedimentary and metamorphic
rock. According to the modern theory of plate tectonics, their
formation is a result of a continental collision or orogeny along the
convergent boundary between the Indo-Australian Plate and the
Eurasian Plate. An often-cited fact used to illustrate this process is
that the summit of Mount Everest is made of marine limestone
from this ancient ocean. Today, the Indo-Australian plate continues
to be driven horizontally below the Tibetan plateau, which forces
the plateau to continue to move upwards.
30. In Ocean-Ocean Convergence, a denser oceanic plate subducts
below a less dense oceanic plate forming a trench along the
boundary. A continuous upward movement of magma creates
constant volcanic eruptions at the ocean floor. Constant volcanism
above the subduction zone creates layers of rocks. As this process
continues for millions of years, a volcanic landform is created
which in some cases rises above the ocean waters. Such volcanic
landforms all along the boundary form a chain of volcanic islands
which are collectively called as Island Arcs.
31. Lake Tanganyika is an African Great Lake. It is the second-oldest
freshwater lake in the world, the second largest by volume, and the
second deepest, in all cases after Lake Baikal in Siberia. It is the
world’s longest freshwater lake. The lake is shared between four
countries - Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(DRC), Burundi, and Zambia.
32. A dissected plateau forms as a result of upward movement in the
Earth’s crust.
The uplift is caused by the slow collision of tectonic plates. In
case of Tibetan Plateau, the uplift it caused by collision of Indian
Plate with Eurasian Plate.
Difficulty Level: Medium

33.
• Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is
continental building process.
• Epeirogenic or continent forming movements act along the radius
of the earth; therefore, they are also called radial movements.
Their direction may be towards (subsidence) or away (uplift) from
the center. The results of such movements may be clearly
defined in the relief. Orogenic or the mountain-forming
movements act tangentially to the earth surface, as in plate
tectonics.
34. Abrupt release of energy along a fault causes earthquake waves.
The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an
earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The point on
the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first
one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus.
35. Since S-waves cannot travel through liquid, they do not pass
through the liquid outer core thus form greater shadow zone than
that of P-waves which can travel through all three mediums.
36. Crust is the outer thin layer with a total thickness between 30 to 50
km. The crust, along with the upper most solid part of mantle is
called as Lithosphere whereas Asthenosphere is completely a part
of mantle lies just below the Asthenosphere.
37. The three main layers of Earth include the crust (One percent of
Earth’s volume), the mantle (84%), and the core (inner and outer
combined, 15%). The outer layer of the mantle is partly simatic
while the inner layer is composed of wholly simatic ultra-basic
rocks. The density of the centre of the Earth yields densities of
about 14 times that of water, which could be obtainable by
compressing iron and nickel, but not surface type rocks. Core has
the heaviest mineral materials of highest density, composed of
nickel and iron [nife].
38. Oxygen is the most abundant element of Earth’s Crust.
Aluminium is second most abundant metallic element of Earth’s
Table 1 The Major Elements of the Earth’s Crust
S.No. Elments By Weight(%)

1. Oxygen 46.60
2. Silicon 27.72
3. Aluminium 8.13
4. Iron 5.00
5. Calcium 3.63
6. Sodium 2.83
7. Potassium 2.59
8. Magnesium 2.09
9. Others 1.41
39. Earth is undergoing deformations imperceptibly [so slight, gradual,

or subtle as to be perceived] but continuously. These deformations
are caused by the movements generated by various factors like
• The heat generated by the radioactive elements in earth’s
interior.
• Movement of the crustal plates due to tectogenesis.
• Forces generated by rotation of the earth.
• Climatic factors like winds, precipitation, pressure belts, etc.
40. All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under a
general term, denudation. The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or
to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion and
transportation are included in denudation. Though volcanism is a
geomorphic process, it is endogenic, not exogenic. Hence, does
not come under denudation.
41. When something is dissolved in water or acids, the water or acid
with dissolved contents is called solution. On coming in contact
with water many solids disintegrate. Soluble rock forming minerals
like nitrates, sulphates, and potassium, etc., are affected by this
process. Hydration is the chemical addition of water. Minerals take
up water and expand; this expansion causes an increase in the
volume of the material itself or rock. This process is reversible and
long, continued repetition of this process causes fatigue in the
rocks and may lead to their disintegration. The volume changes in
minerals due to hydration will also help in physical weathering
through exfoliation and granular disintegration.
42. In weathering, oxidation means a combination of a mineral with
oxygen to form oxides (rusting in case of iron) or hydroxides. Red
soils appear red due to the presence of iron oxides. Oxidation
occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere and water.
The minerals most involved in this process are iron, manganese,
sulphur, etc. When oxidised minerals are placed in an environment
where oxygen is absent, reduction takes place.
43. Burrowing and wedging by organisms like earthworms, rodents,
etc., help in exposing the new surfaces to chemical attack and
assists in the penetration of moisture and air. Human beings by
disturbing vegetation, ploughing and cultivating soils, also help in
mixing and creating new contacts between air, water and minerals
in the earth materials.
44. With rise in temperature, every mineral expands and pushes
against its neighbour and as temperature falls, a corresponding
contraction takes place. As a result of diurnal changes in the
temperatures, this internal movement among the mineral grains
takes place regularly. This process is most effective in dry climates
and high elevations where diurnal temperature changes are
drastic.
45. According to CDT of Wegner, India, along with Madagascar, South
America and Africa were part of Gondwanaland, which the only
other mega continent apart from Laurasia. Wegner believed that
equator wards drift was due to the interaction of forces of gravity,
pole-fleeing force and buoyancy (ship floats in water due to
buoyant force offered by water), and westwards due to tidal
currents because of the earth’s motion (earth rotates form west to
east, so tidal currents act from east to west). This interpretation
was not accepted by modern scholars and proposed Conventional
Current Theory to explain the same.
46. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. The
earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This
bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. [Greater Centrifugal force
at the equator. Centrifugal force increases as we move from poles
towards equator. This increase in centrifugal force has led to pole
fleeing]. Wegner believed that this force, among others, is a force
acted upon landmasses to drift. But has been proved that these
forces have limited impact on movement of land masses.
Distribution of fossils of same species across different land
masses is an evidence of drift. The observations that Lemurs
occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a
contiguous landmass “Lemuria” linking these three landmasses.
47. The correct combination is
1. Nebular Hypothesis - Immanuel Kant
2. Convectional Current Theory - Arthur Holmes
3. Sea Floor Spreading - Harry Hess
48. The first two are evidences of Sea Floor Spreading while the third
is an evidence of continental drift.
49. There are many minor tectonic plates. Some minor plates of
importance are
1. Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
2. Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate
3. Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
4. Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
5. Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North
of New Guinea)
6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
7. Turkish plate
8. Aegean plate (Mediterranean region)
9. Caribbean plate
10. Juan de Fuca plate (between Pacific and North American
plates)
11. Iranian plate
50. Volcanic landforms are divided into extrusive and intrusive
landforms based on weather magma cools within the crust or
above the crust. Rocks formed by cooling of magma within the
crust are called Plutonic rocks. Rocks formed by cooling of lava
above the surface are called Igneous rocks. In general, the term
‘Igneous rocks’ is used to refer all rocks of volcanic origin.
51. After the eruption of magma has ceased, the crater frequently
turns into a lake later. This lake is called a ‘caldera’. Lake Toba,
Indonesia, the largest volcanic crater lake in the world, Crater lake
in Oregon, USA. Lonar in Maharashtra are examples of meteor
crater lake and not volcanic caldera.
52. The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is in the western Pacific
Ocean about 200 kilometres (124 mi) east of the Mariana Islands;
it is the deepest trench in the world. The maximum known depth is
10,984 metres (36,037 ft) (± 25 metres [82 ft]) at the southern end
of a small slot-shaped valley in its floor known as the Challenger
Deep. By comparison: if Mount Everest were placed into the trench
at this point, its peak would still be over two kilometres (1.2 mi)
under water. The Mariana Trench is part of the Izu-Bonin-Mariana
subduction system that forms the boundary between two tectonic
plates. In this system, the western edge of one plate, the Pacific
Plate, is subducted (i.e., thrust) beneath the smaller Mariana Plate
that lies to the west.
53. The long gravity tsunami waves are caused by two interacting
processes.
There is the slope of the sea surface which creates a horizontal
pressure force. Then there is the piling up or lowering of sea
surface as water moves in varying speeds in the direction that the
wave form is moving. These processes together create
propagating waves. As a tsunami leaves deep waters and
propagates into the shallow waters, it transforms. This is because
as the depth of the water decreases, the speed of the tsunami
reduces. But the change of total energy of the tsunami remains
constant. Tsunamis behave as shallow-water waves because of
their long wavelengths. They have a period in the range of ten
minutes to two hours and a wavelength exceeding 500 km.
54.
• When a region is dissected by streams into a system of valleys
and divides, submergence produces a highly irregular shoreline
called ria coastline. The coast of south-west Ireland is a typical
example of ria coastline.
• Some coastal regions have been heavily eroded by glacial action
and the valley glacier troughs have been excavated below sea
level. After the glaciers have disappeared, a fjord coastline
emerges. These coasts have long and narrow inlets with very
steep sides. The fjord coasts of Norway are a typical example.
55. Laccolith formed by intrusive volcanism and Mushroom Rocks
formed due to Aeolian Erosion are most common mushroom
shaped rocks formed by geomorphic processes. Though
mushroom rocks can be formed by glacial erosion, such rocks
formed by glacial deposition are not common. Marine deposition
usually does not lead to formation of mushroom rocks.
56. In arid regions occasional rainstorms produce numerous rills and
channels which extensively erode weak sedimentary formations.
Ravines and gullies are developed by linear fluvial erosion leading
to the formation of badland topography. Example: Chambal
Ravines. Powerful wind continuously abrades stone lattices,
creating holes. Sometimes the holes are gradually widened to
reach the other end of the rocks to create the effect of a window—
thus forming a wind window. Window bridges are formed when the
holes are further widened to form an arch-like feature.
57. Original or Tectonic mountains are the product of tectonic forces.
The tectonic mountains may be categorised into fold mountains
(Himalayas, Rockies, Andes, etc.), block mountains (Vosges
mountains in France, Black Forest in Germany, Vindhya and
Satpuras in India etc.) and volcanic mountains (Cascade Range in
USA, Mount Kenya, Mount Kilimanjaro, Mount Fujiyama, etc.).
Circum-erosional or Relict or Residual mountains (Aravalis in India,
Urals in Russia, etc.) are the remnants of old fold mountains
derived as a result of denudation [strip of covering or possessions;
make bare].
58. Some Examples of Metamorphism
59. Though basaltic rocks can be found in all the abovementioned

seas, Baltic sea has no evidence of volcanos and the basaltic
rocks found in Baltic sea are transported by glacier.
60. Sedimentary rocks consist of a number of layers or strata and are
characterised by marks left behind by water currents, waves, etc.
These rocks have fossils of plants and animals and are generally
porous and allow water to percolate through them.
61. Divergent boundary played a key role in forming new seas and
oceans in continental drift alongside creating new continents.
Ninety percent of Earth’s longest mountain ranges are under
ocean and most of them were created by Divergent Boundary
interaction, which is also called as constructive edge.
Difficulty Level: Tough

62. Deep earth mining and drilling reveals the nature of rocks deep
down the surface. Volcanic eruption forms another source of
obtaining direct information. For example, volcanic eruptions and
existence of hot springs, geysers etc. point to an interior which is
very hot. Spatial variations in gravity, seismic waves, magnetic
field, and meteors are indirect sources of information about Earth’s
interior.
63. The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on
the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator.
This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator
being greater than that at the poles. Understanding Earth’s interior
helps us in understanding internal structure of various solar system
objects as solar system is believed to be evolved from single
source.
64. The high temperatures of Earth’s core is attributed to automatic
disintegration of the radioactive substances, i.e., decay of
radioactive substances, whereas energy source for sun is nuclear
fusion.
65. Abrupt release of energy along a fault causes earthquake waves.
The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an
earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The point on
the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first
one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus.
66. All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere (depth up to
200 km from the surface of the earth). Earthquake waves are
basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body
waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and
move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.
Hence, the name body waves.
67. Surface waves are long period waves and called as ‘L’ waves.
They are low frequency, long wavelength and transverse vibration.
Usually surface waves records higher on seismographs than that
of primary waves or body waves and are responsible for most the
destructive force of earthquake.
68. P-waves are first to be recorded on seismograph and L-waves are
most destructive because of high amplitude and transverse
vibrational nature. Both S-waves and L-waves are transversal and
P-waves are longitudinal or compressional waves. Both P-waves
and S-waves are of high frequency whereas L-waves are low
frequency waves.
69. Since S-waves cannot travel through liquid, they do not pass
through the liquid outer core thus form greater shadow zone than
that of P-waves which can travel through all three mediums.
70. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and
continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner (5 to 30 km thick) as
compared to the continental crust (50 to 70 km thick). The
continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems.
It is as much as 70 to 100 km thick in the Himalayan region.
71. Crust is the outer thin layer with a total thickness between 30 and
50 km. The crust, along with the upper most solid part of mantle is
called as Lithosphere whereas Asthenosphere is completely a part
of mantle lies just below the Asthenosphere.
72. The outer covering of the crust is of sedimentary material
(granitic rocks) and below that lie crystalline, igneous and
metamorphic rocks which are acidic in nature. The lower layer of
the crust consists of basaltic and ultra-basic rocks. The
continents are composed of lighter silicates—silica + aluminium
(also called ‘sial’) while the oceans have the heavier silicates—
silica + magnesium (also called ‘sima’).
73. The three main layers of Earth include the crust (1 percent of
Earth’s volume), the mantle (84 percent), and the core (inner and
outer combined, 15 percent). The outer layer of the mantle is partly
simatic while the inner layer is composed of wholly simatic
ultrabasic rocks. The density of the centre of the Earth yields
densities of about 14 times that of water, which could be obtainable
by compressing iron and nickel, but not surface type rocks. Core
has the heaviest mineral materials of highest density, composed of
nickel and iron [nife].
74. Mohorovicic discontinuity (Moho) - separates the crust from the
mantle, its average depth being about 35 km. A soft
asthenosphere (highly viscous, mechanically weak and ductile). It
is a part of mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity - lies between the
mantle and the outer core below 2900 km from earth’s surface.
75. The correct order of soil erosion process is splash erosion, sheet
erosion, rill erosion and gully erosion. Splash occurs when the
raindrop hits the surface; explosive impact soil into individual
particles. Sheet erosion is the detachment of soil particles by rain
drop and their removal down slope by water flowing overland as a
sheet in definite channels. Rill erosion refers to the development of
small ephemeral concentrated flow paths which function as both
sedimentary source and sediment delivery systems for erosion on
hill slopes. Sheet erosion removes this top layer by raindrop kill or
erosion occurs in lines which are less than 30 cm deep when these
rills are deeper than 30 cm forming channels are called as gully
erosion. Gully erosion occurs when water flows in narrow channels
after heavy rain and melting snow.
76. Both orogenic movements and earthquakes create uplifts of
surface lands. Epeirogenic or continent forming movements act
along the radius of the earth; therefore, they are also called radial
movements. Their direction may be towards (subsidence) or away
(uplift) from the center.
77. Plate Tectonics, formation of mid-oceanic ridges, origins of
earthquake, formation of fold mountains all can be better
understood when studied along with the knowledge of Continental
Drift Theory of Wegner and Sea floor spreading theory.
78. The San Andreas Fault is a continental transform fault that
extends through California. It forms the tectonic boundary between
the Pacific Plate and the North American plate, and its motion is
right-lateral strike-slip (horizontal). Nazca plate has convergent
boundary with South American Plate while it has divergent
boundary with Cocos plate and Pacific plate.
79. Heat within the earth comes from two main sources: radioactive
decay and residual heat. Arthur Holmes first considered this idea
in the 1930s, which later influenced Harry Hess’ thinking about
seafloor spreading. Major geomorphological features such as fold
and block mountains, mid-oceanic ridges, trenches, volcanism,
earthquakes, etc., are a direct consequence of interaction between
various lithospheric plates.
80. Indian Plate collided Asia around 40 to 50 million years ago. Then,
part of the Indian landmass began to go beneath the Asian plate,
moving the Asian landmass up, which resulted in the rise of the
Himalayas. The mountain range grew very rapidly in comparison to
most mountain ranges, and still growing today. The continued
growth in the Himalayas is likely due to the Indian tectonic plate
still moving slowly but surely northward.
81.
1. Major part of the boundary between African plate and North
American plate is divergent boundary.
2. Major part of the boundary between Arabian plate and African
plate is transform boundary.
3. Major part of the boundary between Philippine plate and Pacific
plate is convergent boundary.
4. Major part of the boundary between Scotia plate and Antarctic
plate is convergent boundary.
84. Earth’s major earthquakes occur mainly in belts coinciding with the
margins of tectonic plates.
The most important earthquake belt is the Circum- Pacific Belt.
The mid-world mountain belt (Alpine Belt) extends parallel to the
equator from Mexico across the Atlantic Ocean, the Mediterranean
Sea from Alpine-Caucasus ranges to the Caspian, Himalayan
mountains and the adjoining lands also experiences many major
earthquakes. Hence is not an exception. Wadati Benioff zone is a
zone of subduction along which earthquakes are common. A
Wadati-Benioff zone is a zone of seismicity corresponding with the
down-going slab in a subduction zone (Convergent Boundary).
Differential motion along the zone produces numerous
earthquakes. Shallow focus earthquakes (most common at
submarine ridges. Hardly felt). Intermediate focus earthquakes
(somewhat severe). Deep focus earthquakes (Occurs at trenches -
convergent boundary and are very powerful. Japan lies along
trench line. Hence it faces devastating earthquakes).
85. Granite is an intrusive volcanic rock formed by slow cooling of
crystals of lava which allows formation larger grains. Basalt is a
plutonic rock formed by rapid cooling of crystal of lava results in
fine grained rocks.
86. A gully is a landform created by running water. Gullies resemble
large ditches or small valleys but are metres to tens of metres in
depth and width. A ravine is a landform narrower than a canyon
and is often the product of stream cutting erosion. Ravines are
typically classified as larger in scale than gullies, although smaller
than valleys.
87. The wind or Aeolian erosion takes place in the following ways, viz.
deflation, abrasion, and attrition. Deflation is removing, lifting and
carrying away dry, unsorted dust particles by winds. It causes
depressions known as blow outs or deflation blowouts.
88. The wind or Aeolian erosion takes place in the following ways, viz.
deflation, abrasion, and attrition. Deflation is removing, lifting and
carrying away dry, unsorted dust particles by winds. It causes
depressions known as blow outs or deflation blowouts.
89. Laccolith formed by intrusive volcanism and Mushroom Rocks
formed due to Aeolian Erosion are most common mushroom
shaped rocks formed by geomorphic processes. Though
mushroom rocks can be formed by glacial erosion, such rocks
formed by glacial deposition are not common. Marine deposition
usually does not lead to formation of mushroom rocks.
90. Black Sea is not a lake since Bosporus and Dardanelles Straits
connect it to the Mediterranean Sea. Many big rivers fall into the
Black Sea, making the salinity of its surface water half that of the
ocean: 17%. Caspian Sea and Dead Sea are lakes. The surface
and shores of the Dead Sea are 423 metres below sea level,
making it Earth’s lowest elevation on land.
91. The correct combination is
1. Katanga Plateau : South America (Congo)
2. Iberian Plateau : South-West Europe (Spain)
3. Lake Vostok : Antarctica
4. Altai Mountains : Central and East Asia (Russia, China,
Mongolia, Kazakhstan)
92. Acidic lavas have more viscosity because of which the lavas do
not not move quickly and solidifies quickly. This helps in building
layer over layer in a narrow region i.e huge volcanic mountain and
volcanic islands. On the other hand, basaltic lavas have less
viscosity because of which it moves quickly and causes sea floor
spreading and oceanic ridges but not volcanic islands.
93. See Fig. on next page
94. Lake Baikal in Siberia lies in an active rift valley. Lake Baikal is
the largest (by volume) freshwater lake in the world, containing
roughly 20% of the world’s unfrozen surface fresh water. Chagos
group of islands is the southernmost archipelago of the Chagos-
Laccadive Ridge, a long submarine mountain range in the Indian
Ocean. Kuril Trench is an oceanic trench in the northwest Pacific
Ocean. It lies off the southeast coast of Kamchatka and parallels
the Kuril Island chain to meet the Japan Trench east of Hokkaido.
95. Compound coastlines show the forms of emergence and
submergence coastlines combined. For example, submergence
followed by emergence or vice versa. The coastlines of Norway
and Sweden are examples of compound coastlines. West Coast of
India is an example of compound coastline as the northern part is
submerged and the southern part (Malbar Coast) is emergent.
Coromandel Coast is a coast of emergence.
96. Neutral shorelines are those which come into existence neither
due to emergence or submergence. These are formed by the
building of the land into the sea. The word ‘neutral’ implies that
there need be no relative change between the level of sea and the
coastal region of the continent. Neutral coastlines include the
alluvial fan shaped coastline, delta coastline, volcano coastline and
the coral reef coastline.
97. Estuaries (delta at submerged mouth of river) and Cuspate

(pointed delta) are different types of deltas formed by river.
If fluvial erosion of a stream at the shore does not match the
retreat of the sea, the rivers appear to be hanging over the sea.
These valleys are called hanging valleys.
Deposited material carried by streams entering plains from
mountains deposit in conical shape, which is called Alluvial Fan or
Cone.
98. A rift lake is a lake formed as a result of subsidence related to
movement on faults within a rift zone, an area of extensional
tectonics in the continental crust. Dead Sea basin is a
consequence of a “step-over” discontinuity along the Dead Sea
Transform, creating an extension of the crust with consequent
subsidence.
99. Stage 1: Rising limbs of the convectional currents create a mantle
plume that tries to escape to the surface by up-warping the
lithosphere. During up-warping, a series of faults are created. Both
normal and thrust faults (reverse fault) occur during up-warping.
Divergence of plates begin.
Stage 2: Faulting due to divergence creates extensive rift system
(fault zones, rift valleys). Rifting is followed by flood basalt
volcanism in some places that spread around the rift creating
plateaus, highlands etc. East African Rift Valley is at this stage of
evolution.
Stage 3: Rift valley deepens due to further divergence and makes
way for ocean waters. If the rift valleys are formed deeper within
the continents, rains waters accumulate forming rift lakes.
Stage 4: Intense outpouring of basaltic magma accentuates see
floor spreading and oceanic crust formation. Oceanic crust
replaces the continental crust and a mighty ocean is formed.
100. Characteristics of Fold Mountains:
• Fold mountains belong to the group of youngest mountains of the
earth.
• The presence of fossils suggest that the sedimentary rocks of
these folded mountains were formed after accumulation and
consolidation of silts and sediments in a marine environment.
• Fold mountains extend for great lengths whereas their width is
considerably small.
• Generally, fold mountains have a concave slope on one side and
a convex slope on the other.
• Fold mountains are found along continental margins facing
oceans.
• Fold mountains are characterised by granite intrusions on a
massive scale.
• Recurrent seismicity is a common feature in folded mountain
belts.
2
Climatology
1. Which of the following are correct regarding Latitudes ?

1. The linear distance of a degree of latitude at the pole is a little
longer than that at the equator.
2. Torrid zone receives the maximum heat. Select the correct
option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Temperature falls with increasing latitude. Which of the following
are correct reasons regarding this?
1. Equator receives direct sunlight while Poles receive slant or
oblique rays of the Sun.
2. Spherical (Geoid) shape of the earth and the position of the
Sun.
3. Energy received per unit area decreases from equator to poles.
Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
3. Diurnal and annual range of temperatures are least in
(a) Interiors of continents
(b) Poles
(c) Oceans
4. What is the reason for earth experiencing high temperatures in the
subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator?
(a) Subtropical areas tend to have less cloud cover than
equatorial areas.
(b) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than
the equatorial.
(c) Subtropical areas have an enhanced “greenhouse effect”
compared to equatorial areas.
(d) Subtropical areas are nearer to the oceanic areas than the
equatorial locations.
5. First step in the formation of Thunderstorms, Tornadoes and
Cyclones is associated with
(a) Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate
(b) Negative Adiabatic Lapse Rate
(c) Neutral or Zero Adiabatic Lapse Rate
6. Which of the following is/are a false statement/s?
(a) Atmospheric pressure also determines when the air will rise or
sink.
(b) Air in horizontal motion is a wind.
(c) In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with
height.
7. Coriolis force is due to
(a) Rotation of the Earth
(b) Revolution of the Earth
(c) Both A and B
8. Walker cell is closely associated with
(a) Indian ocean Dipole
(b) ENSO
(c) Both A and B
9. Which of the following is a Cold wind?
(a) Chinook
(b) Loo
(c) Zonda
(d) Bora
10. Which place is the best source region for the formation of air
masses among below mentioned places?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Siberian Plain
(d) Equatorial Forests
11. Why do winds not flow from tropical high pressure (in upper
troposphere) to polar low (in upper troposphere) directly because
(a) Winds are geostrophic.
(b) Greater coriolis force.
(c) Low frictional force
12. Which of the following is/are permanent jet stream/s?
(a) Subtropical Jet Stream (STJ)
(b) The Tropical Easterly Jet
(c) The Somali Jet
13. What is Dew point?
(a) If the air has half the amount of moisture that it can carry, then
it is unsaturated and it is called as Dew point.
(b) It is the weight of water vapour per unit weight of air.
(c) It means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of
holding any additional amount of moisture at that stage.
14. Which one of the following is a long duration rainfall cloud?
(a) Cumulus
(b) Cumulonimbus
(c) Nimbostratus
(d) Cirrostratus
15. Sun’s halo is produced by the refraction of light in
(a) Water vapour in Stratus clouds
(b) Ice crystals in Cirrocumulus clouds
(c) Ice crystals in Cirrus clouds
(d) Dust particles in Stratus clouds
16. Which one of the following process is responsible for transforming
solid into gas?
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Transpiration
17. Single-cell storms in Kerala are called as
(a) Blossom Showers
(b) Mango Showers
(c) Loo
18. The world’s most electric place, the most lightning activity on Earth
is seen on the shore of Lake Maracaibo is in
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Venezuela
(d) Canada
19. Tropical cyclones in western Australia are called as
(a) Hurricanes
(b) Cyclones
(c) Typhoons
20. An abnormal rise of sea level as the cyclone crosses the coast is
called as
(a) Upwelling
(b) Tsunami
(c) Storm surge
21. In certain instances, two cyclones move toward each other and
revolve around one another, with the smaller and less intense one
moving more quickly. This phenomenon is called the
(a) Austrowhara effect
(b) American cyclonic syndrome
(c) Fujiwara effect
(d) Indian oceanic syndrome
22. The occasional development of warm ocean surface waters along
the coast of Ecuador and Peru.
(a) La Nina
(b) Southern Oscillation
(c) El Nino
23. A coherent inter-annual fluctuation of atmospheric pressure over
the tropical Indo-Pacific region.
(a) El-Nino
(b) La-Nina
(c) Southern Oscillation
(d) Walker cell
24. Oscillation of warm water and atmospheric pressure between Bay
of Bengal and Arabian Sea.
(a) ENSO
(b) Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation
(c) Southern Oscillation
(d) None of the Above
25. What are the Effects of La Nina?
(a) Abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia.
(b) Cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United
States.
(c) Cool and wet winter weather in south-eastern Africa.
(d) All the above
26. Epiphytes are Characteristic feature of
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Monsoon climate
(c) Savanna climate
(d) Mediterranean climate
27. Which of the following are the features of Tropical monsoon
forests?
(a) Broad-leaved hardwood trees.
(b) The forests are more open and less luxuriant.
(c) The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the
rate of heating and cooling of land and sea.
28. The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of
1. Off-shore trade winds
2. Rain shadow effect Select the correct option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
29. Which of the following are correct regarding China type of climate?
1. Characterised by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter.
2. Areas which experience this climate are very densely
populated.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
30. Which of the following is/are correct regarding British type of

climate?
(a) Rainfall occurs throughout the year with winter maxima.
(b) Moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters.
(c) The climate is experienced in southern Chile, Southern
Australia, Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand.
(d) All the above
31. Which of the following are correct regarding International Date
Line (IDL)?
1. IDL is drawn through where the sea lies and not land.
2. Polynesia, Melanesia, Micronesia fall on right side of the
dateline.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
32. Which of the following are Incorrect ?
1. Position of the earth on 21st June or 22nd December is called as
Equinox.
2. Position of the earth on 21st March or 23rd September is called
as Solstice.
3. Days and Nights on the earth is due to rotation of the earth.
4. Seasons are result of revolution of Earth. Select the correct
option
(a) 1,2
(b) 3,4
(c) 1,2,3,4
33. Which of the following are correct regarding Atmosphere?
1. The atmosphere regulates the entry of solar radiation.
2. Atmosphere stops harmful UV radiation.
3. Atmosphere also takes care of extra-terrestrial objects like
meteors.
Select the correct option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
34. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Ozone layer in the
atmosphere?
1. Ozone is evenly distributed in the stratosphere.
2. It is formed at higher altitudes and transported downwards.
3. Ozone later is thinner over the poles than over the equator.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
35. Which of the following are correct regarding water vapour.
1. Water vapour absorbs infrared or heat emitted by earth during
nights.
2. Water vapour absorbs part of incoming solar radiation.
3. It is the ultimate driving force behind all storms.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
36. Which of the following are correct regarding Greenhouse gases?
1. Carbon dioxide is meteorologically a very important gas as it is
transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the
outgoing terrestrial radiation.
2. Agriculture is the main emitter of GHGs in the global food
system.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
37. Match the following:
(1) Heat transfer through matter
(i) Radiation
by molecular activity.
(2) Heat transfer from one body to
(ii) Convection another without actual contact or
movement.
(3) Transfer of heat energy by
actual transfer of matter or
(iii) Conduction
substance from one place to
another.
Select the correct options
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
38. Assertion(A): Much of the stormy weather is associated with the
mid-latitudes region. Reason(R): Most of the heat transfer takes
place across the mid-latitudes (30° to 50°)
(a) A and R are correct, R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is true
39. Why does temperature fall with elevation?
1. With increase in elevation, the atmospheric pressure falls.
2. With increase in elevation, the concentration of greenhouse
gases decrease.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(i) Aleutian
(1) sub-tropical high pressure belt
depression
(ii) Horse
(2) Equatorial low pressure belt
Latitudes
(ii) Doldrums (3) Sub polar low-pres sure belt
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
41. Which of the following are dynamic factors for controlling pressure
systems?
1. Pressure gradient force.
2. Coriolis force Select the correct option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(i) Planetary winds (1) Bora
(ii) Periodic winds (2) Mountain Breeze
(iii) Local winds (3) Easterlies
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
43. Which of the following are correct regarding frontal inversion?
1. A frontal inversion occurs when a cold air mass undercuts a
warm air mass.
2. This types of inversion is stable and consistent even though
weather changes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
44. Jet streams are
1. Bounded by low speed winds
2. Jet streams are a part of upper level westerlies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
45. Which jet streams influences Indian monsoon Patterns?
1. Sub-tropical jet stream
2. Polar jet stream
3. Somali jet stream
4. Tropical Easterly jet stream Select the correct option:
(a) 1, 2, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
46. What are the ideal conditions for the formation of air masses?
1. Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air
circulation
2. Areas with high pressure but greater pressure difference or
pressure gradient.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
47. Read the following statements:
1. A process by which the cold front of a rotating low-pressure
system catches up the warm front, so that the warm air between
them is forced upwards.
2. Such a front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm
air mass and goes underneath it.
3. Frontolysis begin when warm sector diminishes and the cold air
mass completely undertakes the warm sector on ground.
What is the type Front which satisfies above mentioned conditions.
(a) Cold Front
(b) Stationary Front
(c) Warm Front
(d) Occluded Front
48. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Relative Humidity ?
1. Relative Humidity is always greater than Absolute Humidity.
2. Relative Humidity is greater over the continents and least over
the oceans.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
49. Which of the following are correct regarding Specific Humidity?
1. It is expressed as the weight of water vapour per unit weight of
air.
2. The specific humidity is not affected by changes in pressure or
temperature.
3. Specific humidity is a constant.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
50. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Dew?
1. Dew and fog result when the temperature is higher than the
freezing point.
2. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air,
high relative humidity.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(i) Cirrus (1) Low clouds
(ii) Nimbostratus (2) Middle clouds
(iii) Alto cumulus (3) High clouds
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
52. Which of the following are correct?
1. Smog caused by the burning of large amounts of Primary
pollutants.
2. Smog always contain sulphur dioxide.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
53. Which of the following are incorrect?
1. Convectional precipitation is heavy but of short duration, highly
localised and is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness.
2. Cyclonic rainfall is convectional rainfall on a large scale.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
54. Assertion(A): Orographic ‘Cloud bursts’ are common in Jammu
and Kashmir.
Reason(R): Forceful upliftment of warm moist air parcel when it
passes over a mountain barrier creates cumulonimbus cloud
causing heavy precipitation on the windward side.
55. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Squall—a strong and fast-moving stream of water or other
liquid.
2. Torrent—a sudden violent gust of wind or localised storm,
especially one bringing rain, snow, or sleet.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
56. Which of the following are correct regarding impact of wind shear
on tropical cyclone?
1. Tropical cyclones develop when the wind is uniform.
2. Because of strong vertical wind shear, cyclone formation
processes are limited to latitude equator ward of the subtropical
jet stream.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
57. Which of the following are correct regarding eye of a cyclone?
1. Eye wall is the most violent region of the cyclone.
2. Eye is created due to tangential force acting on wind that is
following a curvy path.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
58. Which of the following are correct ?
1. The average annual frequency of tropical cyclones in the north
Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea) is very very
less.
2. The annual frequency is more in the Bay of Bengal than in the
Arabian Sea
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
59. Which of the following are correct regarding modifying cyclones?
1. Seeding with silver iodide.
2. Placing a substance on the ocean surface.
3. By nuking them.
4. By cooling the surface waters with deep ocean water.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 1,2,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
(i) Pampas (1) Australia
(ii) Bush-Velds (2) Hungary
(iii) Downs (3) Argentina
(iv) Pustaz (4) South Africa
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(c) (i)-1, (ii)-4, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
61. Assertion(A): Days always longer than nights at the equator.
Reason(R): Refraction is particularly stronger during the morning
and the evening time when the sun’s rays are slant.
62. Which of the following are correct regarding Stratosphere ?
1. The ozonosphere is also called chemosphere.
2. Noctilucent clouds will be formed in stratosphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
63. Which of the following are correct regarding Aurora.
1. Aurora’s are type of clouds found in thermosphere.
2. Solar wind is responsible for the formation of Aurora’s.
3. A geomagnetic storm causes the auroral ovals (north and
south) to expand, bringing the aurora to lower latitudes.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
64. Which of the following are incorrect regarding land-sea
differential?
1. Albedo of land is less than albedo of oceans and water bodies.
2. Average penetration of sunlight is less in water than in land.
Therefore, land cools or becomes hot more rapidly compared to
oceans.
3. The specific heat of water is higher than landmass.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Temperature gradients are usually low over the eastern margins
of continents.
2. Low temperature gradients are observed over tropics.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
66. Which of the following are correct regarding Isotherms ?
1. The isotherms are regular over the northern hemisphere.
2. While passing through an area with warm ocean currents, the
isotherms show a poleward shift.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
67. Latent heat of condensation is the driving force behind all tropical
cyclones. In this respect which of the following are correct
regarding Latent heat?
1. It is the heat released or absorbed during phase change.
2. Latent heat, characteristic amount of energy absorbed or
released by a substance during a change in its physical state
that occurs with the changing temperature.
3. The latent heat associated with melting a solid or freezing a
liquid is called the heat of fusion.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
68. Deserts formed on the western margins of the continents is due to
1. Subtropical high pressure belt
2. Cold ocean currents
3. Easterlies
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
69. Climatically, the development of an El Niño brings
1. Drought to the western Pacific, Indonesia, India and southern
Africa.
2. Rains to the equatorial coast of South America
3. Convective storms and hurricanes to the central Pacific
4. Heavy rains in California, Ecuador, and the Gulf of Mexico.
(a) 1,2,3 only
(b) 2,3,4 only
(c) 1,3,4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4
70. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Geostrophic wind?
1. Wind forms in the Absence of frictional force.
2. Wind forms in the Absence of Coriolis force and in the presence
of pressure gradient force.
3. Geostrophic winds form in the lower atmosphere of the earth.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
71. The pattern of planetary winds depend on:

1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
2. The migration of belts following apparent path of the sun
3. The distribution of continents and oceans
4. Coriolis force
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 1,2,3, only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3,4
72. Which of the following are correct regarding Trade winds?
1. Trade winds are confined to a region between 30°N and 30°S
throughout the earth’s surface.
2. Trade winds are ascending and stable in areas of their origin.
3. The eastern parts of the trade winds associated with the cool
ocean currents are drier and more stable than the western parts
of the ocean.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
73. Which of the following are correct regarding Westerlies?
1. The westerlies are the winds blowing from the sub-tropical high
pressure belts towards the sub polar low pressure belts.
2. The westerlies of the Northern hemisphere are stronger and
persistent.
3. Westerlies plays important role in bringing moderate to heavy
rain in low-lying areas and heavy snow to mountainous areas of
the Indian Subcontinent.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Easterly trade winds helps in getting rains over India during
South-West monsoon only.
2. Monsoons were considered a convectional circulation on a
giant scale.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The cool air of the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the
valley is called katabatic wind.
2. In mountainous regions, during the day the slopes get heated
up and air moves upslope and to fill the resulting gap the air
from the valley blows up the valley. This wind is known as the
Mountain breeze.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
76. Which of the following are harmful winds?
1. Fohn or Foehn
2. Mistral
3. Sirocco
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
77. Choose the correct statements regarding effects of Temperature
Inversion.
1. Inversions play an important role in determining cloud forms.
2. Diffusion of dust, smoke, and other air pollutants is limited to
levels below inversion.
3. Diurnal variations tend to be very large. Select the correct
option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
78. Which of the following are correct regarding Rossby waves?
1. The stable and consistent jet streams are called Rossby
Waves.
2. They form due to the variation in the Coriolis Effect with latitude.
3. Rossby waves are formed when polar air moves toward the
Equator while tropical air is moving poleward.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
79. Which of the following are correct regarding Permanent jet
streams?
1. The Subtropical Jet stream exists all year in the Northern
hemisphere.
2. The polar front jet is produced by a temperature difference.
3. In summer, its position shifts towards the poles and in winter
towards the equator.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. A cold air mass is associated with stable weather conditions.
2. A warm air mass is associated with instability and atmospheric
turbulence.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The temperature contrast influences the thickness of frontal
zone in an inversely proportional manner.
2. The frontal activity is invariably associated with cloudiness and
precipitation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Cumulonimbus clouds are formed along cold front but not along
warm front.
2. Warm front is a sloping frontal surface along which active
movement of warm air over cold air takes place
3. A cold front passes off rapidly, but the weather along it is
violent.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
83. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Relative Humidity ?
1. Relative Humidity is always greater than Absolute Humidity.
2. Relative Humidity is greater over the continents and least over
the oceans.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
84. Evaporation is a process by which water is transformed from liquid
to gaseous state. What are the factors affecting evaporation.
1. Amount of water vapour available.
2. Temperature
3. Air pressure
4. Wind speed
5. Composition of water Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2
(b) 1,2,3
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4,5
1. Fog contains more moisture than Mist.
2. Generally mist will have more visibility than fog.
3. Mist is less dense and quicker to dissipate. Select the correct
option:
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Haze is formed when condensation takes place in the presence
of dust, smoke and other particles.
2. Secondary pollutant is formed during the process of
Photochemical smog.
3. Temperature inversion traps pollution close to the ground.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i)
(1) Raindrop size is less than 0.5 mm.
Rainfall
(ii) (2) Precipitation in the form ofhard rounded
Drizzle pellets.
(iii)
(3) Raindrop size is more than 0.5 mm.
Virage
(4) Rain drops evapo rate before reaching
(iv) Hail
the earth.
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-4, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (ii)-1, (iv)-3
(c) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (ii)-4, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (ii)-3, (iv)-4
1. Between the latitudes 35° and 65° N and S of the equator, the
rain is heavier on the eastern coasts.
2. Due to anti cyclonic circulation on land and little humidity winter
monsoons do not cause much rainfall in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
89. Which of the following are correct regarding Thunderstorms?
1. Thunderstorms are more frequent on water bodies.
2. Intense convection of moist hot air builds up a towering
cumulonimbus cloud in its initial stage.
3. The speed of the thunderstorms is typically about 120 to 180
km per hour.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
90. Which of the following are correct regarding cyclones?
1. The cyclones are often characterised by existence of an
anticyclone between two cyclones.
2. They are irregular wind movements involving closed circulation
of air around a low pressure centre.
3. The cyclonic wind movements are clockwise in the northern
hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
91. Which of the following are conditions favourable for the formation
of Tropical Cyclone?
1. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
2. Small variations in the vertical wind speed
3. Upper divergence above the sea level system
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
92. Which of the following are correct regarding Polar cyclones?
1. Polar cyclones are seasonal.
2. Polar cyclones can form quickly.
3. Direction and movement of these cyclones cannot be predicted.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
93. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Central dense overcast is the cirrus cloud shield that results
from the thunderstorms in the eyewall of a tropical cyclone and
its rain bands.
2. The cyclones, which does not cross 20° N latitude generally,
recurve and they are more destructive.
3. In general, the strongest winds in a cyclone are found on the
right side of the storm.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
94. Which of the following are correct regarding polar front theory?
1. A polar front is formed as a surface of discontinuity. Such
conditions occur over subtropical high, sub-polar low pressure
belts and along the tropopause.
2. Cumulus clouds develop along the cold front.
3. Precise movement of this weather system is controlled by the
orientation of the polar jet stream in the upper troposphere.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
95. Which of the following are incorrect regarding differences between
tropical and temperate cyclones?
1. Tropical seas can be formed on seas only, whereas temperate
cyclones can be formed on land only.
2. Tropical cyclones occur in late summers and all temperate
cyclones occur in winter.
3. Tropical cyclones cover large area whereas temperate cyclones
are limited to small area.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
96. Which of the following are correct regarding Indian ocean Dipole?
1. The difference in sea surface temperature between two areas
Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal.
2. IOD develops in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean.
3. Negative IOD index often negated the effect of ENSO.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
97. Which of the following are correct regarding impact of Indian
Ocean Dipole on Indian cyclone system?
1. Negative IOD results in more cyclones than usual in Arabian
Sea.
2. Positive IOD results in stronger than usual cyclone genesis in
Bay of Bengal. Cyclone genesis in Arabian Sea is suppressed.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
98. Which of the following are correct regarding El-Nino Modoki?
1. It is associated with strong anomalous cooling in the central
tropical pacific and warming in the eastern and western tropical
pacific.
2. Such zonal gradients result in anomalous two-cell Walker
Circulation over the tropical pacific.
3. Rainfall anomalies are negative over the southern peninsular
India.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
99. Which of the following are correct regarding Equatorial climate?
1. The diurnal range of temperature is small, and so is the annual
range.
2. The double rainfall peaks coinciding with the equinoxes are a
characteristic feature of equatorial climates not found in any
other type of climate.
3. Selvas is the main feature of Equatorial climate.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
100. Which of the following are correct regarding the Mediterranean
climate?
1. The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind
belts.
2. Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of
‘winter rain climate’.
3. Southern Australia, and south-west Australia are also of
Mediterranean type of climate.
4. Cloudy skies and low temperatures; moderate summers and
warm winters.
(a) 1,2,4
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (d,a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)
76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (b)
86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d)
Explanations
1. Statement 1: CORRECT—Latitude is the angular distance of a
point on the earth’s surface, measured in degrees from the
center of the earth.
As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance
of a degree of latitude at the pole is a little longer than that at
the equator.
Statement 1: CORRECT—The mid-day sun is exactly
overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the
Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This area,
therefore, receives the maximum heat and is called the torrid
zone.
2. Temperature falls with increasing latitude (as we move from
equator towards poles):
Because of the spherical (Geoid) shape of the earth and the
position of the Sun.
Because the energy received per unit area decreases from
equator to poles.
Because Equator receives direct sunlight while Poles receive
slant or oblique rays of the Sun.
3. Diurnal and annual range of temperatures are highest in the
interiors of continents due to the effect of continentality (in
continental interiors these will no moderating effect of oceans).
Diurnal and annual range of temperatures are least in oceans.
[high specific heat of water and mixing of water keep the range
low].
4. In subtropics clouds are not there or are less in amount, the
heat is directly radiated from the Sun due to which there will be
higher temperatures in the region. That is the reason why areas
of earth experience higher temperatures in the subtropics of the
northern hemisphere rather than at the equator.
5. Fall in temperature with the rising of the air parcel is called
Adiabatic Temperature Lapse. And the rate at which it happens
is called Adiabatic Lapse Rate. This is Positive Adiabatic Lapse
Rate as the Temperature is falling. Rising of a parcel of air and
associated Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate is the first step in the
formation of Thunderstorms, Tornadoes and Cyclones.
6. A, B, C are correct.
Air expands when heated and gets compressed when cooled.
This results in variations in the atmospheric pressure.
The differences in atmospheric pressure causes the movement
of air from high pressure to low pressure, setting the air in
motion. Atmospheric pressure also determines when the air will
rise or sink.
Air in horizontal motion is wind. The wind redistributes the heat
and moisture across latitudes, thereby, maintaining a constant
temperature for the planet as a whole.
The vertical rising of moist air forms clouds and bring
precipitation.
In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with
height.
At the height of Mt. Everest, the air pressure is about two-thirds
less than what it is at the sea level.
7. Coriolis Force: Once air has been set in motion by the pressure
gradient force, it undergoes an apparent deflection from its
path, as seen by an observer on the earth. This apparent
deflection is called the “Coriolis force” and is a result of the
earth’s rotation.
8. Walker Cell: Warming and cooling of the Pacific Ocean is most

important in terms of general atmospheric circulation.
The El Nino event is closely associated with the pressure
changes in the Central Pacific and Australia. This change in
pressure condition over Pacific is known as the southern
oscillation.
The combined phenomenon of southern oscillation and El Nino
is known as ENSO.
9.
Cold wind Warm winds

• Pampero • Foehn or Fohn
• Gregale • Chinook
• Bora • Zonda
• Tramontane • Loo
• Mistral • Sirocco
10. The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called
the source regions. The main source regions are the high pressure
belts in the sub tropics (giving rise to tropical air masses) and
around the poles (the source for polar air masses).
11. Winds do not flow from tropical high pressure (in upper
troposphere) to polar low (in upper troposphere) directly.
Because these winds are geostrophic, i.e., they flow at great
speeds due to low friction and are subjected to greater Coriolis
force.
So they deflect greatly giving rise to three distinct cells called
Hadley cell, Ferrel Cell and Polar cell. Instead of one big cell we
have three small cells that combinedly produces the same effect.
12. There are two permanent jet streams - subtropical jets at lower
latitudes and polar front jets at midlatitudes.
Temporary jet streams are few. Important ones are Somali jet and
the African Easterly jet.
13. Dew point: The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a
given temperature is said to be saturated. It means that the air at
the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional
amount of moisture at that stage. The temperature at which
saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as dew point.
14. Nimbostratus is a low cloud which is said to be long duration
rainfall cloud.
15. Cirrus clouds: Composed of ice crystals, lit up long before other
clouds and fade out much later. Refraction of light in cirrus clouds
produce sun’s halo.
16. Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid
to the gas phase, without passing through the intermediate liquid
phase.
17. Single-cell thunderstorm: Single-cell thunderstorms are small,
brief, weak storms that grow and die within an hour or so. They are
typically driven by heating on a summer afternoon.
Single-cell storms may produce brief heavy rain and lightning. Very
common in India during summers, mostly April, May. In Kerala they
are called ‘Mango Showers’ and in Karnataka ‘Blossom showers’.
18. The world’s most electric place, the most lightning activity on Earth
is seen on the shore of Lake Maracaibo in Venezuela.
At the place where the Catatumbo river falls into Lake Maracaibo,
October sees 28 lightning flashes every minute — a phenomenon
referred to as the Beacon of Maracaibo or the Everlasting Storm.
19. Regional name for the tropical cyclones in western Australia are
called as Willy-willies.
20. Storm Surge is an abnormal rise of sea level as the cyclone
crosses the coast.
21. The Fujiwhara effect, sometimes referred to as the Fujiwara effect,
Fujiwara interaction or binary interaction, is a phenomenon that
occurs when two nearby cyclonic vortices orbit each other and
close the distance between the circulations of their corresponding
low-pressure areas.
22. El Niño is the name given to the occasional development of warm
ocean surface waters along the coast of Ecuador and Peru.
When this warming occurs the usual upwelling of cold, nutrient rich
deep ocean water is significantly reduced.
23. Southern Oscillation, in oceanography and climatology, is a
coherent inter-annual fluctuation.
Only El Nino = [Warm water in Eastern Pacific + Cold water in
Western Pacific].
Only SO = [Low Pressure over Eastern Pacific + High Pressure
over Western Pacific]
24. Similar to ENSO, the atmospheric component of the IOD was later
discovered and named as Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation
[EQUINOO], Oscillation of warm water and atmospheric pressure
between Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea.
25. Effects of La Nina
• Some of the other weather effects of La Niña include
1. abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia,
2. cool and wet winter weather in southeastern Africa, wet weather
in eastern Australia,
3. cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United States,
4. winter drought in the southern United States.
26. Epiphyte: An epiphyte is a plant that grows harmlessly upon
another plant (such as a tree) and derives its moisture and
nutrients from the air, rain, and sometimes from debris
accumulating around it.
All plants struggle upwards (most ephiphytes) for sunlight resulting
in a peculiar layer arrangement.
27.
• Broad-leaved hardwood trees. Well developed in southeast Asia.
Trees are normally deciduous, because of the marked dry period,
during which they shed their leaves to withstand the drought
[They shed their leaves to prevent loss water through
transpiration].
• The forests are more open and less luxuriant than the equatorial
jungle and there are far fewer species.
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the difference in the rate
of heating and cooling of land and sea (This is old theory. New
theory will be explained while studying Indian Climate).
In the summer, when the sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer,
a low pressure is created in Central Asia.
28. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The aridity of the hot deserts is
mainly due to the effects of off-shore Trade Winds, hence they are
also called Trade Wind Deserts.
The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western
coasts of continents between latitudes 15° and 30°N. and S.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The temperate deserts are rainless
because of either continentiality or rain-shadow effect. Gobi desert
is formed due to continentality and Patagonian desert due to rain-
shadow effect.
29. Statement 1: CORRECT—Characterised by a warm moist
summer and a cool, dry winter (one exception: winters are also
moist in Natal Type).
Statement 2: CORRECT—Rainfall is more than moderate,
anything from 60 cm to 150 cm.
• This is adequate for all agricultural purposes and hence supports
a wide range of crops.
• Areas which experience this climate are very densely populated.

30. British Type Climate
• Moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters.
• Rainfall occurs throughout the year with winter maxima.
The climate is experienced in southern Chile, Southern Australia,
Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand.
31. The International Date Line (IDL) passes through the Pacific
Ocean. It is an imaginary line, like longitudes and latitudes.
The time difference on either side of this line is 24 hours. So, the
date changes as soon as one crosses this line.
Some groups of Islands (Polynesia, Melanesia, Micronesia) fall on
either of the dateline. So if the dateline was straight, then two
regions of the same Island country or Island group would fall under
different date zones. Thus to avoid any confusion of date, this line
is drawn through where the sea lies and not land. Hence, the IDL
is drawn in a zig-zag manner.
32. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Solstice
On 21st June, the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun.
The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a
result, these areas receive more heat.
At this time in the southern hemisphere all these conditions are
reversed. It is winter season there. The nights are longer than the
days. This position of the earth is called the summer solstice.
On 22nd December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of
the sun as the south pole tilts towards it. As the sun’s rays fall
vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn (23%° s), a larger portion of the
southern hemisphere gets light. Therefore, it is summer in the
southern hemisphere with longer days and shorter nights. The
reverse happens in the northern hemi-sphere. This position of the
earth is called the winter solstice.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Equinox
On 21 March and 23 September, direct rays of the sun fall on the
equator. At this position, neither of the poles is tilted towards the
sun; so, the whole earth experiences equal days and equal nights.
This is called an equinox.
Statement 3 and 4: CORRECT—Days and nights and changes in
the seasons because of the rotation and revolution of the earth
respectively.
33. Statement 1: CORRECT—The atmosphere absorbs certain
frequencies and lets through some other frequencies of solar
radiation. In other words, the atmosphere regulates the entry of
solar radiation.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Harmful ultraviolet radiation would find
its way through, if the atmosphere (ozone in stratosphere to be
specific) were absent.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The atmosphere also takes care of
extra-terrestrial objects like meteors which get burnt up while
passing through the atmosphere (mesosphere to be precise) due
to friction.
34. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Ozone is unevenly distributed. It is
between 20 km and 25 km altitude that the greatest concentrations
of ozone are found.
Statement 2: CORRECT—It is formed at higher altitudes and
transported downwards.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—The ozone layer is typically thicker
over the poles than over the equator for three reasons. First, there
is a lack of sunlight during an arctic winter to break it down.
Second, seasonal weather systems and wind patterns in the upper
atmosphere push more ozone toward the poles in winter. Third, the
vertical structure of the atmosphere affects thickness.
35. 90% of moisture content in the atmosphere exists within 6 km of
the surface of the earth. Like carbon dioxide, water vapour plays a
significant role in the insulating action, of the atmosphere.
It absorbs not only the long-wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or
heat emitted by earth during nights), but also a part of the incoming
solar radiation.
Water vapour is the source of precipitation and clouds. On
condensation, it releases latent heat of condensation—the ultimate
driving force behind all storms.
36. Statement 1: CORRECT—Carbon dioxide is meteorologically a
very important gas as it is transparent to the incoming solar
radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs
a part of terrestrial radiation and reflects back some part of it
towards the earth’s surface. It is largely responsible for the
greenhouse effect.
Statement 1: CORRECT—The global food system, from fertilizer
manufacture to food storage and packaging, is responsible for up
to one-third of all human-caused greenhouse-gas emissions,
according to the latest figures from the Consultative Group on
International Agricultural Research (CGIAR), a partnership of 15
research centres around the world.
37. Ways of Transfer of Heat Energy: The heat energy from the solar
radiation is received by the earth through three mechanisms—
1. Radiation: Heat transfer from one body to another without
actual contact or movement. It is possible in relatively emptier
space, for instance, from the sun to the earth through space.
2. Conduction: Heat transfer through matter by molecular activity.
Heat transfer in iron and other metals is by conduction.
Generally, denser materials like water are good conductors and
a lighter medium like air is a bad conductor of heat.
3. Convection—Transfer of heat energy by actual transfer of
matter or substance from one place to another. (heat transfer by
convection cycles in atmosphere as well as oceans)
38. The atmosphere (planetary winds) and the oceans (ocean
currents) transfer excess heat from the tropics (energy surplus
region) towards the poles (energy deficit regions) making up for
heat loss at higher latitudes.
And most of the heat transfer takes place across the mid-latitudes
(30° to 50°) [more while studding jet streams and cyclones], and
hence much of the stormy weather is associated with this region.
39. Statement 1: CORRECT—With increase in elevation, the
atmospheric pressure falls. Fall in pressure implies that the
temperature also falls [Pressure is directly proportional to
temperature and vice versa] Statement 2: CORRECT—With
increase in elevation, the concentration of greenhouse gases
decrease (Water vapor and carbon dioxide fall sharply with
elevation). Hence the heat absorption capacity of atmosphere will
also decrease.
This sort of fall in temperature with elevation is called Temperature
Lapse and the rate at which it happens is called Temperature
Lapse Rate or simply Lapse rate.
40. Equatorial Low Pressure Belt: This belt happens to be the zone of
convergence of trade winds from two hemispheres from sub-
tropical high pressure belts. This belt is also called the Doldrums,
because of the extremely calm air movements.
Sub-tropical High Pressure Belt: The corresponding latitudes of
sub-tropical high pressure belt are called horse latitudes.
In early days, the sailing vessels with cargo of horses found it
difficult to sail under calm conditions of this high pressure belt.
They used to throw horses into the sea when fodder ran out.
Hence the name horse latitudes.
Sub-Polar Low Pressure Belt Located between 45°N and S
latitudes and the Arctic and the Antarctic circles (66.5° N and S
latitudes).
On long-term mean climatic maps, the sub polar low- pressure
belts of the northern hemisphere are grouped into two centers of
atmospheric activity: the Iceland low and the Aleutian depression
(Aleutian low).
41. There are two main causes, thermal and dynamic, for the pressure
differences resulting in high and low pressure systems.
Thermal Factors: When air is heated, it expands and, hence, its
density decreases. This naturally leads to low pressure. On the
contrary, cooling results in contraction. This increases the density
and thus leads to high pressure.
Formation of equatorial low and polar highs are examples of
thermal lows and thermal highs, respectively.
Dynamic Factors: Apart from variations of temperature, the
formation of pressure belts may be explained by dynamic controls
arising out of pressure gradient forces and rotation of the earth
(Coriolis force).
42. Permanent winds or Primary winds or Prevailing winds or
Planetary winds: The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies.
Secondary or Periodic Winds:
• Seasonal winds: These winds change their direction in different
seasons. For example monsoons in India.
• Periodic winds: Land and sea breeze, mountain and valley
breeze.
Local winds: These blow only during a particular period of the day
or year in a small area. Winds like Loo, Mistral, Foehn, Bora.
43. Statement 1: CORRECT—A frontal inversion occurs when a cold
air mass undercuts a warm air mass (Cold and Warm Fronts) and
lifts it aloft, the front between the two air masses then has warm air
above and cold air below.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—This types of inversion is unstable
and is destroyed as the weather changes.
44. Jet streams are:
• Circumpolar
• Narrow
• Concentrated bands of meandering
• Upper tropospheric
• High velocity
• Geostrophic streams
• Bounded by low speed winds and
• Part of upper level westerlies
45. Statement 1: CORRECT—STJ is closely connected to the Indian
and African summer monsoons. Statement 2: INCORRECT—Polar
jet stream greatly influences climates of regions lying close to 60
degree latitude.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Somali jet stream can strengthens or
weakens the South-west monsoon.
Statement 4: CORRECT—During the south Asian summer
monsoon, the TEJ induces secondary circulations that enhance
convection over South India and nearby ocean.
The TEJ is the upper-level venting system for the strong southwest
monsoon.
47. (d) Occluded Front:
Occlusion: Meteorology a process by which the cold front of a
rotating low-pressure system catches up the warm front, so that
the warm air between them is forced upwards.
Such a front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air
mass and goes underneath it.
Frontolysis begin when warm sector diminishes and the cold air
mass completely undertakes the warm sector on ground.
Thus, a long and backward swinging occluded front is formed
which could be a warm front type or cold front type occlusion.
(a) Conditions for the formation of air masses:

• Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air
circulation (slightly at high pressure).
• Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure
gradient are ideal source regions.
• There are no major source regions in the mid-latitudes as these
regions are dominated by cyclonic and other disturbances.
48. Statement 1: CORRECT—Relation between Absolute Humidity
and Relative Humidity depends upon the temperature. With the
change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture
increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Relative humidity is greater over the
oceans and least over the continents. Absolute humidity is greater
over oceans because of greater availability of water for
evaporation.
49. Specific Humidity: It is expressed as the weight of water vapour
per unit weight of air. Since it is measured in units of weight
(usually grams per kilogram), the specific humidity is not affected
by changes in pressure or temperature. Absolute Humidity and
Relative Humidity are variable whereas Specific Humidity is a
constant.
50. Statement 1: CORRECT—For the formation of dew, it is
necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
Statement 2: CORRECT—When the moisture is deposited in the
form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid such as stones,
grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew.
The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high
relative humidity, and cold and long nights.
51. According to their height, expanse, density and transparency or
opaqueness clouds are grouped under four types: (i) cirrus; (ii)
cumulus; (iii) stratus; (iv) nimbus.
Low clouds: Stratus, cumulus, nimbostratus, cumulonimbus,
stratocumulus Middle clouds: Altostratus, altocumulus High clouds:
Cirrus, cirrostratus, cirrocumulus
52. Smog = smoke + fog (smoky fog) caused by the burning of large
amounts of coal, vehicular emission and industrial fumes (Primary
pollutants).
Smog contains soot particulates like smoke, sulphur dioxide,
nitrogen dioxide and other components.
At least two distinct types of smog are recognised: sulfurous smog
and photochemical smog. Sulfurous smog results from a high
concentration of SULFUR OXIDES in the air. Photochemical smog
occurs most prominently in urban areas that have large numbers of
automobiles where Nitrogen oxides are the primary emissions.
53. Statement 1: CORRECT—Convectional Rainfall:
The, air on being heated, becomes light and rises up in convection
currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat and consequently,
condensation takes place and cumulous clouds are formed. This
process releases latent heat of condensation which further heats
the air and forces the air to go further up.
Convectional precipitation is heavy but of short duration, highly
localised and is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness. It
occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial
doldrums in the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands of
south-east Asia.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Cyclonic Rain:
Cyclonic Rainfall is convectional rainfall on a large scale. The
precipitation in a tropical cyclone is of convectional type while that
in a temperate cyclone is because of frontal activity.
54. Orographic thunderstorm: Forceful upliftment of warm moist air
parcel when it passes over a mountain barrier creates
cumulonimbus cloud causing heavy precipitation on the windward
side.
Orographic ‘Cloud bursts’ are common in Jammu and Kashmir,
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.
55. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Squall = a sudden violent gust of
wind or localised storm, especially one bringing rain, snow, or
sleet.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Torrent = a strong and fast-moving
stream of water or other liquid.
56. Wind Shear:
• Wind Shear = differences between wind speeds at different
heights.
• Tropical cyclones develop when the wind is uniform.
• Because of weak vertical wind shear, cyclone formation
processes are limited to latitude equator ward of the subtropical
jet stream. [Jet streams]
• In the temperate regions, wind shear is high due to westerlies
and this inhibits convective cyclone formation.
57. Statement 1: CORRECT—Due to centripetal acceleration
(centripetal force pulling towards the center is countered by an
opposing force called centrifugal force), the air in the vortex is
forced to form a region of calmness called an eye at the center of
the cyclone. The inner surface of the vortex forms the eye wall, the
most violent region of the cyclone.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Eye is created due to tangential force
acting on wind that is following a curvy path.
58. Statement 1: CORRECT—The average annual frequency of
tropical cyclones in the north Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and
Arabian Sea) is about 5 (about 5-6% of the Global annual average)
and about 80 cyclones form around the globe in a year.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The frequency is more in the Bay of
Bengal than in the Arabian Sea, the ratio being 4:1.
59. Modifying cyclones
• Seeding with silver iodide.
• Placing a substance on the ocean surface.
• By nuking them.
• By cooling the surface waters with deep ocean water.
• By adding a water absorbing substance.
60.
Name of the
Temperate Region
Grassland
Pustaz Hungary and surrounding regions
North America [between the foothills of the
Prairies
Rockies and the Great Lakes]
Pampas Argentina and Uruguay [Rain-shadow effect]
Bush-veld (more
Northern South Africa
tropical)
High Veld (more
Southern South Africa
temperate)
Australia: Murray-Darling basin of southern
Downs
Australia
Canterbury New Zealand
60. Why are days always longer than nights at the equator?
If there was no atmosphere, there would be no refraction and the
daytime and night time would be near equal at the equator, at least
during equinoxes.
But due to atmosphere, the sun’s rays gets refracted (bending of
light). Refraction is particularly stronger during the morning and the
evening time when the sun’s rays are slant.
Even though the actual sun is below the horizon, its apparent
image would appear above the horizon due to refraction. This
makes the days longer than nights at the equator.
61. Statement 1: CORRECT—The ozonosphere is also called
chemosphere because, a lot of chemical activity goes on here. It
lies at an altitude between 30 km and 60 km from the earth’s
surface and spans the stratosphere and lower mesosphere.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Noctilucent cloud is a luminous cloud
of a kind occasionally seen at night in summer in high latitudes, at
the altitude of the mesopause.
62. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Aurora, sometimes referred to as
polar lights, northern lights (aurora borealis), or southern lights
(aurora australis), is a natural light display in the Earth’s sky,
predominantly seen in the high-latitude regions (around the Arctic
and Antarctic). Auroras are not clouds but glowing lights at mid
nights.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Auroras are the result of disturbances
in the magnetosphere caused by solar wind.
Statement 1: CORRECT—A geomagnetic storm causes the
auroral ovals (north and south) to expand, bringing the aurora to
lower latitudes.
63. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Albedo of land is much greater than
albedo of oceans and water bodies. Especially snow covered
areas reflect up to 70%-90% of insolation.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Average penetration of sunlight is
more in water-up to 20 metres, than in land - where it is up to 1
metre only. Therefore, land cools or becomes hot more rapidly
compared to oceans.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The specific heat of water is 2.5 times
higher than landmass, therefore water takes longer to get heated
up and to cool down.
64. Statement 1: CORRECT—Temperature gradients are usually low
over the eastern margins of continents. This is because of warm
ocean currents. Temperature gradients are usually high over the
western margins of continents. This is because of cold ocean
currents.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Low temperature gradients are
observed over tropics (sun is almost overhead the entire year) and
high temperature gradients over middle and higher latitudes (sun’s
apparent path varies significantly from season to season).
65. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The isotherms are irregular over the
northern hemisphere due to an enhanced land-sea contrast.
Because of predominance of land over water in the north, the
northern hemisphere is warmer. The thermal equator (ITCZ) lies
generally to the north of geographical equator.
Statement 2: CORRECT—While passing through an area with
warm ocean currents, the isotherms show a poleward shift. (North
Atlantic Drift and Gulf Stream combined with westerlies in Northern
Atlantic; Kurushio Current and North Pacific current combined with
westerlies in Northern Pacific).
66. Latent Heat: Latent heat of condensation is the driving force
behind all tropical cyclones.
It is the heat released or absorbed during phase change.
Latent heat, characteristic amount of energy absorbed or released
by a substance during a change in its physical state that occurs
without changing its temperature.
The latent heat associated with melting a solid or freezing a liquid
is called the heat of fusion; that associated with vapourising a
liquid or a solid or condensing a vapour is called the heat of
vapourisation.
The latent heat is normally expressed as the amount of heat (in
units of joules or calories) per mole or unit mass of the substance
undergoing a change of state.
68.
69. Climatically, the development of an El Niño brings drought to the
western Pacific, rains to the equatorial coast of South America,
and convective storms and hurricanes to the central Pacific.
Severe droughts occur in Australia, Indonesia, India and southern
Africa.
Heavy rains in California, Ecuador, and the Gulf of Mexico.
70. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2-3 km above the surface, are
free from frictional effect of the surface and are controlled by the
pressure gradient and the Coriolis force.
When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the
pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the
resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as
the geostrophic wind.
The wind movement around a low is called cyclonic circulation.
Around a high it is called anti cyclonic circulation. The direction of
winds around such systems changes according to their location in
different hemispheres.

71. The pattern of planetary winds depend on:
1. latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating;
2. emergence of pressure belts;
3. the migration of belts following apparent path of the sun;
4. the distribution of continents and oceans;
5. the rotation of earth (Coriolis force).
The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the
general circulation of the atmosphere. The general circulation of
the atmosphere also sets in motion the ocean water circulation
which influences the earth’s climate.
72. Statement 1: CORRECT—The trade winds are those blowing
from the sub-tropical high pressure areas towards the equatorial
low pressure belt. Therefore, these are confined to a region
between 30°N and 30°S throughout the earth’s surface.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Trade winds are descending and
stable in areas of their origin (subtropical high pressure belt), and
as they reach the equator, they become humid and warmer after
picking up moisture on their way.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The eastern parts of the trade winds
associated with the cool ocean currents are drier and more stable
than the western parts of the ocean.
73. Statement 1: CORRECT—The westerlies are the winds blowing
from the sub-tropical high pressure belts towards the sub polar low
pressure belts.
They blow from southwest to north-east in the northern
hemisphere and north-west to south-east in the southern
hemisphere.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The westerlies of the southern
hemisphere are stronger and persistent due to the vast expanse of
water, while those of the northern hemisphere are irregular
because of uneven relief of vast land-masses.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Western Disturbance plays important
role in bringing moderate to heavy rain in low-lying areas and
heavy snow to mountainous areas of the Indian Subcontinent
especially in winter. This disturbance is usually associated with
cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain.
74. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Easterly trade winds helps ingetting
rains over India during both Southwest and North-east monsoons.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Monsoons were traditionally explained
as land and sea breezes on a large scale. Thus, they were
considered a convectional circulation on a giant scale.
The monsoons are characterised by seasonal reversal of wind
direction.
75. Valley Breeze and Mountain Breeze: In mountainous regions,
during the day the slopes get heated up and air moves upslope
and to fill the resulting gap the air from the valley blows up the
valley. This wind is known as the valley breeze.
During the night the slopes get cooled and the dense air descends
into the valley as the mountain wind (Mountain Breeze). The cool
air, of the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the valley is
called katabatic wind.
Another type of warm wind (katabatic wind) occurs on the leeward
side of the mountain ranges. The moisture in these winds, while
crossing the mountain ranges condense and precipitate. When it
descends down the leeward side of the slope the dry air gets
warmed up by adiabatic process. This dry air may melt the snow in
a short time.
76. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Foehn is a hot wind of local
importance in the Alps. It is a strong, gusty, dry and warm wind
which develops on the leeward side of a mountain range. As the
windward side takes away whatever moisture there is in the
incoming wind in the form of orographic precipitation, the air that
descends on the leeward side is dry and warm (Katabatic Wind).
The wind helps animal grazing by melting snow and aids the
ripening of grapes. It is a beneficial wind.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Mistral: It is a Harmful Wind. It is
channeled through the Rhine valley. It is very cold and dry with a
high speed. It brings blizzards into southern France.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Sirocco: It is a Harmful Wind. Sirocco
is a Mediterranean wind that comes from the Sahara and reaches
hurricane speeds in North Africa and Southern Europe.
The Sirocco causes dusty dry conditions along the northern coast
of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cool wet weather
in Europe.
77. Statement 1: CORRECT—Inversions play an important role in
determining cloud forms, precipitation, and visibility.
Statement 2: CORRECT—An inversion acts as a cap on the
upward movement of air from the layers below. As a result,
convection produced by the heating of air from below is limited to
levels below the inversion. Diffusion of dust, smoke, and other air
pollutants is likewise limited.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Inversions also affect diurnal
variations in temperature. Diurnal variations tend to be very small.
78. Rossby Waves:
• The meandering jet streams are called Rossby Waves.
• Rossby waves are natural phenomenon in the atmosphere and
oceans due to rotation of earth.
• In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the
Coriolis effect (When temperature contrast is low, speed of jet
stream is low, and Coriolis force is weak leading to meandering)
with latitude.
• Rossby waves are formed when polar air moves toward the
Equator while tropical air is moving poleward.
79. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The sub-tropical jet stream is
produced by the earth’s rotation (Coriolis force) and temperature
contrast between tropical and sub-tropical regions.
During winter, the STJ is nearly continuous in both hemispheres.
The STJ exists all year in the southern hemisphere. However, it is
intermittent in the northern hemisphere during summer when it
migrates north.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The polar front jet is produced by a
temperature difference and is closely related to the polar front.
Statement 3: CORRECT—It has a more variable position than the
sub-tropical jet. In summer, its position shifts towards the poles and
in winter towards the equator.
80. Statement 1: INCORRECT—A cold air mass is one which is
colder than the underlying surface and is associated with instability
and atmospheric turbulence.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—A warm air mass is one which is
warmer than the underlying surface and is associated with stable
weather conditions.
81. Statement 1: CORRECT—The temperature contrast influences
the thickness of frontal zone in an inversely proportional manner,
i.e., two air masses with higher temperature difference do not
merge readily. So the front formed is less thick.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The frontal activity is invariably
associated with cloudiness and precipitation because of ascent of
warm air which cools down adiabatically, condenses and causes
rainfall.
82. Statement 1: CORRECT—No cumulonimbus clouds are formed
along warm front as the gradient is gentle.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Warm Front: It is a sloping frontal
surface along which active movement of warm air over cold air
takes place (warm air mass is too weak to beat the cold air mass).
Frontolysis (front dissipation) begin when the warm air mass
makes way for cold air mass on the ground, i.e. when the warm air
mass completely sits over the cold air mass.
Statement 3: CORRECT—At actual front, dark nimbus and
cumulonimbus clouds cause heavy showers. A cold front passes
off rapidly, but the weather along it is violent.
83. Statement 1: CORRECT—Relation between Absolute Humidity
and Relative Humidity is depend upon the temperature. With the
change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture
increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Relative humidity is greater over the
oceans and least over the continents. Absolute humidity is greater
over oceans because of greater availability of water for
evaporation.
84. Factors Affecting Rate of Evaporation:
• Amount of water available
• Temperature
• Relative humidity
• Area of evaporating surface
• Wind speed: A high wind speed removes the saturated air from
the evaporating surface and replaces it with dry air which favours
more evaporation.
• Whenever there is a combination of high temperature, very low
relative humidity and strong winds, the rate of evaporation is
exceptionally high. This leads to dehydration of soil to a depth of
several inches.
• Air Pressure: Evaporation is also affected by the atmospheric
pressure exerted on the evaporating surface. Lower pressure
over open surface of the liquid results in a higher rate of
evaporation.
• Composition of water: Evaporation is inversely proportional to
salinity of water. Rate of evaporation is always greater over fresh
water than over salt water.
85. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The difference between the mist and
fog is that mist contains more moisture than fog.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—In mist, visibility is more than one
kilometer but less than two kilometres. In fog, visibility is less than
one kilometer.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Mist is also formed by water
droplets, but with less merging or coalescing. This means mist is
less dense and quicker to dissipate.
Mists are frequent over mountains as the rising warm air up the
slopes meets a cold surface.
Fogs are drier than mist and they are prevalent where warm
currents of air come in contact with cold currents.
86. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Haze is traditionally an atmospheric
phenomenon where dust, smoke and other dry particles obscure
the clarity of the sky (No condensation. Smog is similar to haze but
there is condensation in smog).
Statement 2: CORRECT—Photochemical forms when pollutants
such as nitrogen oxides (primary pollutant) and organic
compounds (primary pollutants) react together in the presence of
SUNLIGHT. A gas called OZONE (Secondary pollutant) is formed.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The atmospheric pollution levels of Los
Angeles, Beijing, Delhi, Mexico City and other cities are increased
by inversion that traps pollution close to the ground.
87. Rainfall: drop size more than 0.5 mm.
Virage: raindrops evaporate before reaching the earth.
Drizzle: light rainfall; drop size less than 0.5 mm. Mist: evaporation
occurs before reaching the ground leading to foggy weather.
Snowfall: fine flakes of snow fall when the temperature is less than
0°C.
Sleet: frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow; mixture of snow
and rain or merely partially melted snow.
Hail: precipitation in the form of hard rounded pellets is known as
hail; 5 mm and 50 mm.
88. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Between the latitudes 35° and 40° N
and S of the equator, the rain is heavier on the eastern coasts and
goes on decreasing towards the west. But, between 45° and 65° N
and S of equator, due to the westerlies, the rainfall is first received
on the western margins of the continents and it goes on
decreasing towards the east.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall
as they move from land to the sea. It is because firstly, they have
little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on
land, the possibility of rainfall from them reduces. So, most parts of
India do not have rainfall in the winter season.
89. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Thunderstorms mostly occur on
ground where the temperature is high. Thunderstorms are less
frequent on water bodies due to low temperature.
Statement 2: CORRECT—In its cumulus stage, Ground is
significantly heated due to solar insolation. Intense convection of
moist hot air builds up a towering cumulonimbus cloud.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—The speed of isolated storms is
typically about 20 km (12 miles) per hour, but some storms move
much faster.
In extreme circumstances, a supercell storm may move 65 to 80
km (about 40 to 50 miles) per hour.
90. Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in
tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas bringing about
large scale destruction due to violent winds (squalls), very heavy
rainfall (torrential rainfall) and storm surge.
They are irregular wind movements involving closed circulation of
air around a low pressure center. This closed air circulation
(whirling motion) is a result of rapid upward movement of hot air
which is subjected to Coriolis force. The low pressure at the center
is responsible for the wind speeds.
The cyclonic wind movements are anti-clockwise in the northern
hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere (This is due
to Coriolis force).
The cyclones are often characterised by existence of an
anticyclone between two cyclones.
91. Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation:
1. Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27°C,
2. Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic
vortex,
3. Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
4. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low- level-cyclonic
circulation,
5. Upper divergence above the sea level system.
92. Polar or Arctic Cyclones:
• Arctic or polar cyclones occur in Antarctic regions and can reach
up to 1,200 miles wide.
• Polar cyclones differ with others because they are not seasonal.
[Tropical Cyclones are seasonal]
• They can occur at any time of the year.
• Polar cyclones can also form quickly (sometimes less than 24
hours), and their direction or movement cannot be predicted.
• They can last from a day up to several weeks. [Tropical Cyclones
does not for more than a week]
• Most frequently, polar cyclones develop above northern Russia
and Siberia.
93. Statement 1: CORRECT—Central dense overcast: This is the
cirrus cloud shield that results from the thunderstorms in the
eyewall of a tropical cyclone and its rain bands.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The cyclones, which cross 20°N
latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—In general, the strongest winds in a
cyclone are found on the right side of the storm. The strongest
wind on the right side of the storm is mainly due to the fact that the
motion of the cyclone also contributes to its swirling winds.
94. Polar Front Theory:
• According to this theory, the warm-humid air masses from the
tropics meet the dry-cold air masses from the poles and thus a
polar front is formed as a surface of discontinuity.
• Such conditions occur over sub-tropical high, sub-polar low
pressure belts and along the Tropopause.
• The cold air pushes the warm air upwards from underneath.
Thus a void is created because of lessening of pressure. The
surrounding air rushed in to occupy this void and coupled with
the earth’s rotation, a cyclone is formed which advances with the
westerlies (Jet Streams).
• When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves
northwards and the cold air move towards south setting in motion
an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation (northern hemisphere). This
is due to Coriolis Force.
• The cyclonic circulation leads to a well-developed extra tropical
cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front.
• There are pockets of warm air or warm sector wedged between
the forward and the rear cold air or cold sector. The warm air
glides over the cold air and a sequence of clouds appear over
the sky ahead of the warm front and cause precipitation.
• The cold front approaches the warm air from behind and pushes
the warm air up. As a result, cumulus clouds develop along the
cold front. The cold front moves faster than the warm front
ultimately overtaking the warm front. The warm air is completely
lifted up and the front is occluded (occluded front) and the
cyclone dissipates.
• Normally, individual frontal cyclones exist for about three to ten
days moving in a generally west to east direction.
• Precise movement of this weather system is controlled by the
orientation of the polar jet stream in the upper troposphere.
95. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Tropical seas can be formed on
seas only, whereas temperate cyclones can be formed on both
land as well as oceans.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Tropical cyclones occur in late
summers and not all temperate cyclones occur in winter few will be
formed in winters. Temperate cyclones are irregular.
Statement 3: INCORRECT— Tropical cyclones are limited to
small area (100-500 kms in diameter) whereas Temperate
cyclones cover large area (3002000 kms in diameter).
96. Statement 1: CORRECT—The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is
defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two
areas (or poles, hence a dipole) - a western pole in the Arabian
Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern
Indian Ocean south of Indonesia.
Statement 2: CORRECT—IOD develops in the equatorial region
of Indian Ocean from April to May peaking in October.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—With a positive IOD winds over the
Indian Ocean blow from east to west (from Bay of Bengal towards
Arabian Sea). This results in the Arabian Sea (western Indian
Ocean near African Coast) being much warmer and eastern Indian
Ocean around Indonesia becoming colder and dry.
It was demonstrated that a positive IOD index often negated the
effect of ENSO, resulting in increased Monsoon rains in several
ENSO years like the 1983, 1994 and 1997.
97. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Positive IOD (Arabian Sea warmer
than Bay of Bengal) results in more cyclones than usual in Arabian
Sea.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Negative IOD results in stronger than
usual cyclone genesis (Formation of Tropical Cyclones) in Bay of
Bengal. Cyclone genesis in Arabian Sea is suppressed.
98. Statement 1: INCORRECT—El Niño Modoki is associated with
strong anomalous warming in the central tropical Pacific and
cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The El Niño Modoki phenomenon is
characterised by the anomalously warm central equatorial Pacific
flanked by anomalously cool regions in both west and east.
Such zonal gradients result in anomalous two-cell Walker
Circulation over the tropical Pacific, with a wet region in the central
Pacific.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Rainfall anomalies are negative over
the southern peninsular India and positive over the central parts of
India during El Niño Modoki years. Detailed analysis suggests that
the El Niño Modoki modulates Indian Summer Monsoon rainfall by
inducing changes in the western north Pacific (WNP) low-level
circulation.
99. Statement 1: CORRECT—The diurnal range of temperature is
small, and so is the annual range.
Statement 2: CORRECT—There are two periods of maximum
rainfall, April and October. [shortly after the equinox]. Least rain fall
occurs in June and December [solstice].
The double rainfall peaks coinciding with the equinoxes are a
characteristic feature of equatorial climates not found in any other
type of climate.
Statement 3: CORRECT—In the Amazon lowlands, the forest is
so dense that it is called ‘selvas’. [selvas: A dense tropical
rainforest usually having a cloud cover (dense canopy).]
100. Statement 1: CORRECT—Entirely confined to the western
portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and
south of the equator. The basic cause of this type of climate is the
shifting of the wind belts.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Mediterranean Sea has the greatest
extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’, and gives rise to the
name Mediterranean Climate.
Statement 3: CORRECT— Other Mediterranean regions include
1. California (around San Francisco)
2. the south-western tip of Africa (around Cape Town)
3. southern Australia, and south-west Australia (Swanland)
Statement 4: INCORRECT—Clear skies and high temperatures;
hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters.
3
Oceanography
DIFFICULTY LEVEL: Easy
1. Which of the following is a source of fossil fuels?

(a) Continental shelf
(b) Continental slope
(c) Continental rise
(d) Deep Sea Plain
2. Which of the following is not a marginal sea of Atlantic Ocean?
(a) Caribbean Sea
(b) English Channel
(c) Barents Sea
(d) Hudson Bay
3. Which of the following is/are effect/s of ocean currents?
(a) Desert formation (b) Drizzle
(c) Moderating effect (d) All of the above
4. Which of the following current does not form part of the circuit in
the North Atlantic?
(a) Gulf stream
(b) North Atlantic Drift
(c) Antilles current
(d) Benguela current
1. Labrador current is a warm current.
2. The confluence of Labrador current and Gulf stream produce
the famous fogs around Cape de Sao Roque.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
6. West Wind Drift is a
(a) Cold current
(b) Warm current
(c) Universal current
1. Euphotic zone extends from the upper surface to ~200 m.
2. Aphotic zone extends from 200 m to the ocean bottom.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
8. Which of the following is true?
(a) The higher salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal in
the Indian ocean.
(b) The Arabian Sea shows lower salinity in the Indian ocean.
(c) All of the above
9. When the tide is channeled between islands or into bays and
estuaries they are called
(a) Tidal surge
(b) Tidal storm
(c) Tidal current
(d) Tidal bulge
1. The time between the high tide and low tide, when the water
level is falling, is called the ebb.
2. The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is
rising, is called the flow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
11. Which of the following are advantages of Tides?
(a) Navigation
(b) Desilting
12. A Tidal bore takes place during
(a) Ebb tide
(b) Flow tide
13. Which of the following is not a Coral island?
(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Lakshadweep Islands
(c) Maldives
(d) Seychelles
14. The relation between Corals and Zooxanthalae is
(a) Commensalism
(b) Amensalism
(c) Symbiotic
(d) Mutualism
15. Sargasso sea is present in
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
16. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Continental slope?

1. The continental slope boundary indicates the end of the
continents.
2. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
17. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Biomass production
in oceans?
1. Biomass production is highest in open ocean regions.
2. Biomass production is intermediate in marginal seas.
3. Biomass production is lowest in coastal upwelling regions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Near the equator, the ocean water is higher in level than in the
middle latitudes.
2. The monsoon winds influence the current movements which
change directions according to seasons.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
19. Which of the following, i.e., factor/s aid the formation of Counter-
Equatorial current?
1. Piling up of water in the western pacific due to trade winds.
2. The presence of doldrums in between the north equatorial
current and the south equatorial current.
3. Rotation of earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2
(c) 1,3
(d) 1,2,3
20. Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding Indian ocean?
1. There will be absence of ocean currents in the northern Indian
ocean during Summer.
2. Agulhas current merges with Mozambique current before it
merges with West Wind Drift.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
21. Which of the following are factors affecting temperature
distribution of oceans?
1. The presence of submarine ridges and sills
2. The shape of the ocean.
3. Distribution of land and water
4. Boiling point Select the correct option
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
22. Which of the following is/are correct regarding vertical distribution
of temperature in oceans?
1. The rate of decrease of temperature with depths is greater at
the equator than at the poles.
2. The enclosed seas of low latitudes have high bottom
temperatures.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are
responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth.
2. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the sum of these two forces i.e.
the gravitational attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
24. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Tidal bore?
1. The in and out movement of water into a gulf through a channel
called a tidal bore.
2. The favourable conditions for tidal bore include strength of the
incoming tidal wave, slim and depth of the channel and the river
flow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
25. Which of the following is/are ideal conditions for the coral growth?
1. Diurnal and annual temperature ranges should be very narrow.
2. Clear salt water.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
26. Which of the following is/are incorrect?
1. Most of the ocean trenches are found in the eastern and
western parts of the Pacific Ocean and they are seldom found
in the middle ocean region.
2. Most of the trenches are curved, convex side facing the open
ocean.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Romanche Gap divides the Mid Atlantic Ridge into two parts.
2. Canyons located near islands will have gentle slope.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Wyevale Thomson Ridge lies between British Isles and Ireland.
2. Walvis Ridge is located along the African coast.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Dead sea has the highest salinity in the world.
2. Gulf of Mexico records some of the lowest salinity in the world.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Imager current is a branch of Benguele current.
2. Mozambique current is a branch of Auglhas current.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

1. The continental shelf boundary indicates the end of the
continents.
2. Polymetallic nodules (PMN) can be found on the continental
shelves.
3. Seamounts can be found along continental shelves.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Strait is a narrow strip of land connecting two larger land
masses.
2. A gulf is a large body of water, sometimes with a narrow mouth,
that is almost completely surrounded by land.
3. A bay is a small body of water that is set off from a larger body
of water generally where the land curves inward.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3
(c) 1,2,3
33. Which of the following are correct regarding ocean currents?
1. Cold water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the
poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator.
2. Deep water currents make up the other 90% of the ocean
water.
3. The general movement of the currents in the northern
hemisphere is anti-clockwise.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
34. Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding flow of Ocean
currents?
1. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the
continents in the low and middle latitudes in both hemispheres.
2. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast in the higher
latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
3. In the northern hemisphere, warm currents are found on the
east coasts of continents in high latitudes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,2,3 only
35. Which of the following are correct regarding pacific ocean
currents?
1. North Pacific current is a warm ocean current.
2. South Pacific current is a cold ocean current.
3. Counter Equatorial current flows in east-west direction.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
36. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Winter circulation in
Indian Ocean?
1. The North-East monsoons drive the water along the coast of
Bay of Bengal to circulate in an anti-clockwise direction.
2. The north-east monsoons drive the water along the coast of
Arabian Sea to circulate in clockwise direction.
3. Counter-equatorial current does not exist in the winter
circulation of Indian Ocean.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
37. Assertion(A): Deep water marine organisms survive in spite of
absence of sunlight. Reason(R): At the sea bottom, there are
bacteria that make use of heat supplied by earth’s interior to
prepare food.
38. Which of the following are correct regarding Oceans?
1. Diurnal range of ocean temperatures too small.
2. The ocean water is heated by heat produced due to Back
radiation.
3. The ocean water is cooled by evaporation. Select the correct
option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
39. Which of the following are correct regarding Ocean salinity?
1. Any change in the density influences the salinity of an area.
2. Surface salinity is greatly influenced in polar regions by the
processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
3. Wind has zero effect on salinity of an area of a sea.
4. The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depends
mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
Select the correct option (a) 2,4
(b) 1,2,4
(c) 2,3
(d) 2,3,4
(i) North sea (1) Very low salinity
(ii) Baltic sea (2) High salinity
(iii) Mediterranean sea (3) Low salinity
(iv) Black sea (4) Very high salinity
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
41. Which of the following are correct regarding distribution of salinity?
1. In high latitudes, salinity increases with depth.
2. In the middle latitudes, it increases up to few metres and then it
decreases.
3. There is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity
decreases sharply.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
42. Which of the following are correct regarding occurrence of tides?
1. Spring tides occur twice a month.
2. Tidal pattern, featuring two high tides and two low tides each
day is called as Diurnal tide.
3. Once in a month, when the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth
(perigee), unusually high and low tides occur.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
43. Which of the following is/are correct regarding characteristics of
tides?
1. In the open ocean tidal currents are relatively weak.
2. The large continents on the planet, however, block the
westward passage of the tidal bulges as the Earth rotates.
3. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves have greater
height.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
44. Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding coral reefs?
1. Fringing reefs are reefs that grow directly from a shore. They
are located very close to land, and often form a shallow lagoon
between the beach and the main body of the reef.
2. Atolls are extensive and largest of three reefs, linear reef
complexes that parallel a shore, and are separated from it by
lagoon.
3. Atolls are far more common in the Indian ocean than any other
ocean.
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2,3
(d) 1,2,3
45. Which of the following are correct regarding Coral reefs?
1. Coral reefs are absent on west coast of tropical continents.
2. Violent storms, flooding, Enso cause damage to coral reefs.
3. Coral bleaching is irreversible.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Mediterranean sea-Black sea (1) Yucatan strait
(ii) Gulf of Mexico-Caribbean sea (2) Tsugaru strait
(iii) Pacific ocean-Sea of Japan (3) Bosporus strait
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(i) Pacific ocean (1) Agalega Island
(ii) Atlantic ocean (2) Spratly Island
(iii) Indian Ocean (3) Aleutian Island
(iv) South China sea (4) Bahama Island
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(d) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
1. Guyots are flat topped hills.
2. Diamantina Trench is located west of Chile.
3. Large number of seamounts and guyots are found in South
pacific ocean than North pacific ocean.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
49. Which of the following are correct regarding submarine Canyons?
1. They look like long V-shaped valleys with steep sides.
2. They do not have tributaries like river.
3. Most of the canyons are formed by continental rifting.
4. They are similar to youthful river valleys on the land but are
much deeper than the river valleys on the land.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
50. Which of the following are correct regarding oceans?
1. Tsunamis have very short wave length and high amplitude in
the deep sea.
2. Blue mud is the most widely spread of all the muds.
3. Atlantic Ocean is the youngest of all the oceans.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c)
26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
Explanations
1. People have depended on the continental shelf for thousands of
years to provide 90% of the fisheries production in the world and,
more recently, for petroleum. According to the abiogenic theory,
fossil fuels were formed when ancient plants and animals fell to
sedimentary rock in the ocean floor.
2. Barents Sea is marginal sea of Arctic ocean.
Marginal seas of the Atlantic Ocean
• Argentine Sea
• Caribbean Sea
• English Channel
• Gulf of Mexico
• Hudson Bay
• Irish Sea
• Labrador Sea
• Mediterranean Sea
• North Sea
• Norwegian Sea
• Scotia Sea
3. Desert formation
• Cold ocean currents have a direct effect on desert formation in
west coast regions of the tropical and subtropical continents.
Rains
• Warm ocean currents bring rain to coastal areas and even
interiors. Example: Summer Rainfall in British Type climate.
Moderating effect
• They are responsible for moderate temperatures at coasts.
[North Atlantic Drift brings warmness to England. Canary cold
current brings cooling effect to Spain, Portugal etc.]
Fishing
• Mixing of cold and warm ocean currents bear richest fishing
grounds in the world.
Drizzle
• Mixing of cold and warm ocean currents create foggy weather
where precipitation occurs in the form of drizzle [Newfoundland].
Tropical cyclones
• They pile up warm waters in tropics and this warm water is the
major force behind tropical cyclones.
Navigation
• Currents are referred to by their “drift”. Usually, the currents are
strongest near the surface and may attain speeds over five
knots.
5. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Labrador current is a cold current.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The Labrador current flows along part
of the east coast of Canada and meets the warm Gulf Stream. The
confluence of these two currents, one hot and the other cold,
produce the famous fogs around Newfoundland.
In the South Atlantic Ocean, the south equatorial current, flowing
from east to west, splits into two branches near Cape de Sao
Roque (Brazil).
6. West Wind Drift is a cold ocean current flows in the higher
latitudes of Southern hemisphere.
7. Statement 1: CORRECT—Photic or euphotic zone extends from
the upper surface to ~200 m. The photic zone receives adequate
solar insolation.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Aphotic zone extends from 200 m to the
ocean bottom; this zone does not receive adequate sunrays.
8. Indian Ocean
• The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35.
• The low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to
influx of river water by the river Ganga.
• On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to
high evaporation and low influx of fresh water.
9. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the
tide is channeled between islands or into bays and estuaries they
are called tidal currents.
10.
• The time between the high tide and low tide, when the water
level is falling, is called the ebb.
• The time between the low tide and high tide, when the tide is
rising, is called the flow or flood.
11. Since tides are caused by the earth-moon-sun positions which are
known accurately, the tides can be predicted well in advance. This
helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities.
Tides are also helpful in desilting the sediments and in
removing polluted water from river estuaries.
Tides are used to generate electrical power.
12. A tidal bore takes place during the flood tide and never during the
ebb tide.
13. The Indian Ocean also contains numerous atoll formations.
Examples are found in the Maldives and Chagos island groups, the
Seychelles, and in the Cocos island group. A large ‘number of
atolls also occur in the Lakshadweep Islands.
Both the Andaman and Nicobar groups are part of a great
island arc, formed by the above-sea extensions of submarine
ridges of the Rakhine Mountains.
14.
• Zooxanthellae live symbiotically within the coral polyp tissues
and assist the coral in nutrient production through its
photosynthetic activities.
• These activities provide the coral with fixed carbon compounds
for energy, enhance calcification, and mediate elemental nutrient
flux.
• The host coral polyp in return provides its zooxanthellae with a
protected environment to live within, and a steady supply of
carbon dioxide for its photosynthetic processes.
15. The Sargasso Sea is a region in the gyre in the middle of the
North Atlantic Ocean.
• It is the only sea on Earth which has no coastline.

16. Continental Slope
• The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the
ocean basins.
• It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops
off into a steep slope.
• The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°.
• The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3000 m.
• The seaward edge of the continental slope loses gradient at this
depth and gives rise to continental rise.
• The continental slope boundary indicates the end of the
continents.
• Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.
17. Biomass Production and Primary Productivity
• Marine biomass production originates with primary productivity,
which in turn is affected by the availability of sunlight, carbon
dioxide, nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates, and trace
elements.
• Marginal seas generally exhibit intermediate levels of primary
production, with the highest rates found in coastal upwelling
regions and the lowest primary production occurring in open
ocean regions.
• Hence, the highest biomass production rates occur in coastal
upwelling zones, the lowest in open oceans regions, and
intermediate rates in marginal seas.
18. Statement 1: CORRECT—Heating by solar energy causes the
water to expand. That is why, near the equator the ocean water is
about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Winds are responsible for both
magnitude and direction [Coriolis force also affects direction] of the
ocean currents. Example: Monsoon winds are responsible for the
seasonal reversal of ocean currents in the Indian ocean.
19. Three factors aid the formation of Counter- Equatorial current
1. Piling up of water in the western pacific due to trade winds.
2. The presence of doldrums (equatorial low pressure belt) in
between the north equatorial current and the south equatorial
current. Doldrums are narrow regions with calm (lower)
atmospheric conditions. Such conditions aid the backward
movement of piled up western pacific waters.
3. Piling of water in the western part of oceans due to rotation of
earth.
20. Statement 1: CORRECT—Summer Circulation - North Equatorial
Current Counter-Equatorial Current are Absent
In summer, due to the effects of the strong southwest monsoon
and the absence of the north-east trades, a strong current flows
from west to east, which completely obliterates the north equatorial
current. Hence, there is no counter-equatorial current as well.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The south equatorial current, partly led
by the corresponding current of the Pacific Ocean, flows from east
to west.
It splits into two branches, one flowing to the east of
Madagascar known as Agulhas current and the other between
Mozambique and Western Madagascar coast known as
Mozambique current.
At the southern tip of Madagascar, these two branches mix and
are commonly called as the Agulhas current. It still continues to be
a warm current, till it merges with the West Wind Drift.
21. Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution of Oceans
• Insolation
• Heat loss
• Albedo
• Physical characteristics of the sea surface: Boiling point of the
sea water is increased in the case of higher salinity and vice
versa
Salinity increased = Boiling point increased = Evaporation
decreased.
• The presence of submarine ridges and sills [Marginal Seas]:
Temperature is affected due to lesser mixing of waters on the
opposite sides of the ridges or sills.
• Shape of the ocean
• Enclosed seas (Marginal Seas - Gulf, Bay, etc.) in the low
latitudes record relatively higher temperature than the open seas.
• Local weather conditions such as cyclones.
• Unequal distribution of land and water
• Prevalent winds
• Ocean currents
22. Statement 1: CORRECT—The rate of decrease of temperature
with depths is greater at the equator than at the poles.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The enclosed seas of low latitudes like
the Sargasso Sea, the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea have
high bottom temperatures due to high insolation throughout the
year and lesser mixing of the warm and cold’ waters.
23. Statement 1: CORRECT—Together, the gravitational pull and the
centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal
bulges on the earth. On the side of the earth facing the moon, a
tidal bulge occurs while on the opposite side though the
gravitational attraction of the moon is less as it is farther away, the
centrifugal force causes tidal bulge on the other side.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The ‘tide-generating’ force is the
difference between these two forces; i. e., the gravitational
attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force.
24. Statement 1: INCORRECT—
• The in and out movement of water into a gulf through a channel
called a tidal current. Tidal bore is a type of Tidal current bot not
every tidal current is a tidal bore.
• When a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river, the
front of the tidal wave appears to be vertical owing to the piling
up of water of the river against the tidal wave and the friction of
the river bed.
• The steep-nosed tide crest looks like a vertical wall of-water
rushing upstream and is known as a tidal bore.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The favourable conditions for tidal bore
include strength of the incoming tidal wave, slim and depth of the
channel and the river flow.
25. Ideal Conditions for Coral Growth
• Stable climatic conditions: Corals are highly susceptible to quick
changes. They grow in regions where climate is significantly
stable for a long period of time.
• Perpetually warm waters: Corals thrive in tropical waters [30°N
and 30°S latitudes, The temperature of water is around 20°C]
where diurnal and annual temperature ranges are very narrow.
• Shallow water: Coral require fairly good amount of sunlight to
survive. The ideal depths for coral growth are 45 m to 55 m
below sea surface, where there is abundant sunlight available.
• Clear salt water: Clear salt water is suitable for coral growth,
while both fresh water and highly saline water are harmful.
• Abundant Plankton: Adequate supply of oxygen and microscopic
marine food, called plankton [phytoplankton], is essential for
growth. As the plankton is more abundant on the seaward side,
corals grow rapidly on the seaward side.
• Little or no pollution: Corals are highly fragile and are vulnerable
to climate change and pollution and even a minute increase in
marine pollution can be catastrophic.
26. Statement 1: CORRECT—Most of the ocean trenches are found in
the eastern and western parts of the Pacific Ocean and they are
seldom found in the middle ocean region.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Most of the trenches are curved, convex
side facing the open ocean, because of the geometry of plate
interactions on the spherical earth.
27. Statement 1: CORRECT—Romanche Gap divides the Mid Atlantic
Ridge into two parts. This is located near the equator. To the north
of this gap is the North Mid Atlantic Ridge and to the south is the
South Mid Atlantic Ridge.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Canyons facing the river mouths are
usually long but have gentle gradient. Canyons located near
islands are quite deep.
28. Statement 1: CORRECT—Wyevale Thomson Ridge lies between
British Isles and Ireland.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Walvis Ridge lies to the west of the
western coast of Africa in the South Atlantic Ocean.
29. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Lake Van has the highest salinity in
the world.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Gulf of Mexico records some of the
highest salinity(36ppm) in the world.
30. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Imager current is a branch of North
Atlantic current.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Mozambique current is a branch of
Auglhas current.

31. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The continental slope boundary
indicates the end of the continents.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Continental shelves are potential sites
for economic minerals. Twenty percent of the world production of
petroleum and gas comes from shelves. Polymetallic nodules
(manganese nodules; concentric layers of iron and manganese
hydroxides) etc., are good sources of various mineral ores like
manganese, iron copper, gold, etc.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Seamounts can be found along
Abyssal plains.
32. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Isthmus is the land- equivalent of a
strait, i.e., a narrow strip of land connecting two larger land
masses.
Example: Isthmus of Panama and Isthmus of Suez.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Gulfs: A gulf is a large body of water,
sometimes with a narrow mouth, that is almost completely
surrounded by land.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—A bay is a small body of water that is
set off from a larger body of water generally where the land curves
inward.
In simple words, bay is a water body surrounded on three sides
by land with the fourth side (mouth) wide open towards oceans.
33. Statement 1: CORRECT—Denser water tends to sink, while
relatively lighter water tends to rise. Cold-water ocean currents
occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves
towards the equator.
Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface,
flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The ocean currents may be classified
based on their depth as surface currents and deep water currents:
1. surface currents constitute about 10% of all the water in the
ocean, these waters are the upper 400 m of the ocean;
2. deep water currents make up the other 90% of the ocean water.
These waters move around the ocean basins due to variations
in the density and gravity.
Deep waters sink into the deep ocean basins at high latitudes,
where the temperatures are cold enough to cause the density to
increase.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—The general movement of the
currents in the northern hemisphere is clockwise and in the
southern hemisphere, anticlockwise. This is due to the Coriolis
force which is a deflective force and follows Ferrel’s law.
34. Ocean currents are classified based on temperature: as cold
currents and warm currents:
1. Cold currents bring cold water into warm water areas [from high
latitudes to low latitudes]. These currents are usually found on
the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes
(true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher
latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere;
2. Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas[low to
high latitudes] and are usually observed on the east coast of
continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both
hemispheres). In the northern hemisphere they are found on the
west coasts of continents in high latitudes.
35. Statement 1 and 2: CORRECT—
See Explanation Fig. on the next page
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Counter-equatorial current flows
between the north equatorial current and the south equatorial
current in west-east direction.
36. Winter Circulation
• Under the influence of prevailing trade winds [easterly trade
winds], the north equatorial current and the south equatorial
current start from the south of Indonesian islands, moving from
east to west.
• This raises the level of western Indian (south-east of horn of
Africa) ocean by few centimeters. And this creates a counter-
equatorial current which flows between the north equatorial
current and the south equatorial current in west-east direction.
• The north-east monsoons drive the water along the coast of Bay
of Bengal to circulate in an anticlockwise direction.
• Similarly, the water along the coast of Arabian Sea also circulate
in an anti-clockwise circulation.
37. How does deep water marine organisms survive in spite of
absence of sunlight?
• Photic zone is only about few hundred meters. It depends on a
variety of factors like turbidity, presence of algae, etc.
• There are no enough primary producers below few hundred
meters till the ocean bottom.
• At the sea bottom, there are bacteria that make use of heat
supplied by earth’s interior to prepare food. So, they are the
primary producers.
• Other organisms feed on these primary producers and
subsequent secondary producers.
• So, the heat from earth supports wide ranging deep water marine
organisms.
38. Statement 1: CORRECT—The process of heating and cooling of
the oceanic water is slower than land due to vertical and horizontal
mixing and high specific heat of water.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—
The ocean water is heated by three processes.
1. Absorption of sun’s radiation.
2. The conventional currents: Since the temperature of the earth
increases with increasing depth, the ocean water at great
depths is heated faster than the upper water layers. So,
convectional oceanic circulations develop causing circulation of
heat in water.
3. Heat is produced due to friction caused by the surface wind and
the tidal currents which increase stress on the water body.
Statement 3: CORRECT—
The ocean water is cooled by
1. Back radiation (heat budget) from the sea surface takes place
as the solar energy once received is reradiated as long wave
radiation (terrestrial radiation or infrared radiation) from the
seawater.
2. Exchange of heat between the sea and the atmosphere if there
is temperature difference.
3. Evaporation: Heat is lost in the form of latent heat of
evaporation (atmosphere gains this heat in the form of latent
heat of condensation).
39. Factors Affecting Ocean Salinity
• The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend
• Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the
fresh water flow from rivers, and in polar regions by the
• Wind also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to
other areas.
• The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations.
• Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated.
Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the
salinity of an area.
40. Salinity of Marginal seas:
• The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records
higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North
Atlantic Drift.
• Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in
large quantity.
• The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high
evaporation.
• Salinity is, however, very low in Black Sea due to enormous fresh
water influx by rivers.
41. Statement 1 and 2: CORRECT—
Sub-Surface Salinity
• With depth, the salinity also varies, but this variation again is
subject to latitudinal difference. The decrease is also influenced
by cold and warm currents.
• In high latitudes, salinity increases with depth. In the middle
latitudes, it increases up to 35 metres and then it decreases. At
the equator, surface salinity is lower.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Salinity, generally, increases with
depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline (compare
this with thermocline), where salinity increases sharply.
42. Statement 1: CORRECT—When the sun, the moon and the earth
are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher. These are
called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one on full moon
period and another during new moon period.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The most common tidal pattern,
featuring two high tides and two low tides each day is said to be
Semi-diurnal tide.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Once in a month, when the moon’s orbit
is closest to the earth (perigee), unusually high and low tides
occur. During this time the tidal range is greater than normal.
Two weeks later, when the moon is farthest from earth
(apogee), the moon’s gravitational force is limited and the tidal
ranges are less than their average heights.
43. Characteristics of Tides
• The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves have greater height.
• In the open ocean tidal currents are relatively weak.
• When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands they become low.
• The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also
magnify the intensity of tides.
• Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. Example:
Bay of Fundy — Highest tidal range.
• The large continents on the planet, however, block the westward
passage of the tidal bulges as the Earth rotates.
• Tidal patterns differ greatly from ocean to ocean and from
location to location.
44. Statement 1: CORRECT—Fringing reefs are reefs that grow
directly from a shore. They are located very close to land, and
often form a shallow lagoon between the beach and the main body
of the reef.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Barrier reefs are extensive linear reef
complexes that parallel a shore, and are separated from it by
lagoon.
This is the largest (in size, not distribution) of the three reefs,
runs for hundreds of kilometres and is several kilometres wide. It
extends as a broken, irregular ring around the coast or an island,
running almost parallel to it.
An atoll is a roughly circular (annular) oceanic reef system
surrounding a large (and often deep) central lagoon.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Atolls are far more common in the
Pacific than any other ocean. The Fiji atoll and the Funafuti atoll in
the Ellice/Island are well known examples of atolls. A large number
of atolls also occur in the Lakshadweep Islands.
45. Statement 1: CORRECT—Coral reefs are absent on west coast of
tropical continents due to Cold Ocean Currents - corals like warm
waters and hate cold waters.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Natural disturbances which cause
damage to coral reefs include violent storms, flooding, high and
low temperature extremes, El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
events, sub aerial exposures, predatory outbreaks and epizootics.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Coral bleaching is not irreversible. Coral
reefs can be recovered when ideal conditions for the formation of
reefs retain or when zooxanthalae returns.
Mass bleaching can turn a coral dominated reef to an algae
dominated one in the space of a few months—a process that can
take decades or longer to reverse.
46. The Mediterranean Sea, which is divided by a 400 meter sill into
two sub basins, is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the Straits
of Gibraltar, to the Black Sea via the Bosporus Strait, and to the
Red Sea via the manmade Suez Canal.
The Gulf of Mexico is connected to the Atlantic Ocean via the
Straits of Florida and the Caribbean Sea via the Yucatán Strait.
TSUGARU STRAIT—It lies between Hokkaido and Honshu in
northern Japan and connects the Sea of Japan to the Pacific
Ocean.
47. 1. Agalega Island-Indian Ocean, located N-E of Madagascar.
2. Spratly Island-South China Sea, located west to Philippines.
3. Aleutian Island-Pacific Ocean, connects Asia and America.
4. Bahama Island-Atlantic ocean, located S-E of Florida
48. Statement 1: CORRECT—Guyots are flat topped hills.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Diamantina Trench is located west of
Australia.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—North and Central Pacific:
Characterised by maximum depth and a large number of deeps,
trenches and islands.
49.
1. Submarine canyons are so called because they resemble river
canyons on the continents.
2. They look like long V-shaped valleys with steep sides.
3. Most canyons are formal by turbidity currents.
4. They have tributaries similar to those of river cut canyons on
land.
5. Most of the canyons are formed by continental rifting.
6. They are similar to youthful river valleys on the land but are
much deeper than the river valleys on the land.
50. Statement 1: INCORRECT—In the deep sea, tsunamis have very
long wave length which often exceeds 500 to 700 Kms. But their
amplitude is very low and rarely exceeds 1 meter. However, on
reaching coast, wave length of tsunamis is reduced considerably
and their amplitude increase to 10-30 meters.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Ocean Deposits:
• Organic deposits originate in the ocean itself.
• Blue mud is the most widely spread of all the muds.
• Calcareous deposits consist of remains of those animals which
have high proportion of lime.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Atlantic Ocean is the youngest of all
oceans.
4
Ecology, Environment, Climate

Change and Disaster
Management
1. Which of the following best describes the term “habitat”?

(a) The region on earth that supports life.
(b) An area where an organism lives.
(c) A functional unit of the environment.
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
2. Which of the following components can act as a limiting factor for
development of plant life?
1. Spectral quality of solar radiation
2. Altitude
3. Salinity of water
4. Frost
Choose the correct option using the codes below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. The appearance or behaviour or structure or mode of life of an
organism that allows it to survive in a particular environment is
known as:
(a) Variation
(b) Adaptation
(c) Adaptive variation
(d) Speciation
4. Identify the correct order of levels of organisation.
(a) Population < Community < Ecosystem < Biome
(b) Population < Community < Biosphere < Biome
(c) Population < Species < Ecosystem < Biome
(d) Community < Population < Ecosystem < Biome
5. Consider the following statements regarding ecological
succession.
1. Secondary succession happens at faster rate unlike primary
succession.
2. All habitats are environments, but all environments are not
habitats.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. The capacity of the ecosystem of maintaining their state of
equilibrium is known as:
(a) Haemostasis
(b) Homeostasis
(c) Stability
(d) Resistance
7. Which of the following concepts involve tropic level interactions?
1. Food Chain
2. Food Web
3. Ecological Pyramid
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. The process of bacterial and fungal enzymes degrading detritus
into simpler inorganic substances is called:
(a) Humification
(b) Mineralisation
(c) Catabolism
(d) Leaching
9. Which of the following is not a negative biotic interaction?
(a) Amensalism
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitism
(d) Commensalism
10. Consider the following statements regarding food pyramids.
1. Both Pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass are upright
in aquatic ecosystem.
2. Both Pyramid of energy is inverted in grass land ecosystem.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Acid rain is caused by pollution of environment by
1. Sulphur Dioxide
2. Ozone
3. Carbon Monoxide
4. Nitrous oxide
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
12. Which of the following is a biogeochemical cycle?
1. Carbon cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Phosphorous Cycle
4. Hydrogen cycle
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
13. Consider the following:
1. Manufacturing Urea
2. Thunder and lightning
3. Nitrification
Which of the above processes are nitrogen fixing processes?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
14. Identify the biome represented in the map below.
(a) Tropical Rainforest Biome

(b) Temperate Deciduous Biome
(c) Tropical Deciduous Biome
(d) Sub-tropical Deciduous Biome
15. Identify correct order of aquatic organism based on their zone of
occurrence from surface to bottom.
(a) Neuston - Periphyton - Nekton - Plankton - Benthos
(b) Neuston - Plankton - Periphyton - Nekton - Benthos
(c) Periphyton - Neuston - Nekton - Plankton - Benthos
(d) Neuston - Periphyton - Plankton - Nekton - Benthos
16. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems
in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Tropical Rain forest > Swamps and Marshes > Savanna >
Estuaries
(b) Tropical Rain forest > Estuaries > Swamps and Marshes >
Savanna
(c) Tropical Rain forest > Savanna > Swamps and Marshes >
Estuaries
(d) Tropical Rain forest > Swamps and Marshes > Estuaries >
Savanna
17. Consider the following.
1. Sulphur Dioxide
2. ozone
3. Nitrogen Dioxide
4. Water
Which of these are constituents of Smog?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
18. Which of the following pollutants are being monitored as part of
Air Quality Index under National Air Quality Monitoring Program?
1. Lead
2. ozone
3. Ammonia
4. Carbon Dioxide
5. Sulphur Dioxide
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
19. Species diversity is a measure of the diversity within an ecological
community that incorporates both species richness and the
evenness of species. Generally, how does it change as we move
away from equator towards poles?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) No such observation can be made
(d) It does not change
20. What is bioprospecting?
(a) Expanding the biodiversity of existing system by constructing
wildlife bridges, corridors between habitats.
(b) Using advanced technologies like genetic engineering to
multiply species that are at risk of extinction.
(c) Encouraging trade in wildlife and other natural products of
economic importance without harming the diversity and
richness of biomes.
(d) Exploring molecular, genetic and species- level diversity of
nations to derive products of economic importance.
21. Which of the following are characteristics of a stable community?
1. Annual productivity of the community is nearly stable
2. Resistant or resilient to occasional natural and anthropogenic
disturbances
3. Resistant to invasion by alien species. Choose the correct
option using the codes below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
22. In ecological terms, which of the following is extreme opposite
state of endemic state of a species?
(a) State of Extinction
(b) State of Preservation
(c) State of cosmopolitan distribution
(d) None
23. Which of the following is the foundation species in Kelp forest?
(a) Zooxanthella
(b) Grass and plants
(c) Macroalgae
(d) Corals
24. Which of the following are distinguished biogeographic regions of
India?
1. Trans-Himalaya
2. Desert
3. Semi-arid
4. Eastern Ghats
5. Gangetic Plains
25. Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayas:
1. Dominant species in high altitude regions are sal, silk-cotton
trees, giant bamboos; tall grassy meadow with savannahs in
terai.
2. Hangul and chiru are dominant fauna at lower altitudes.
Which of the above statements are correct? Choose right
combination from the options given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following are invasive species in India?
1. Eucalyptus
2. Goldfish
3. African Giant Snail
4. African Catfish
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. Identify correct increasing order of protection of wildlife habitats.
(a) Reserved Forests < Protected Forests < Wildlife Sanctuaries
< National Parks
(b) Reserved Forests < Wildlife Sanctuaries < Protected Forests
< National Parks
(c) Protected Forests < Reserved Forests < Wildlife Sanctuaries
< National Parks
(d) Protected Forests < Wildlife Sanctuaries < Reserved Forests
< National Parks
28. Consider the following statements regarding Paris Climate
Agreement.
1. The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC),
though determined voluntarily by each nation, it is binding on
countries to achieve INDCS in stipulated time.
2. INDC achievements of each country would be assessed by
IPCC every five years see whether these are in line with the
global 2°C target.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Recently Nandhaur sanctuary was in news for establishment of
exclusive tier cell to examine movement of big cats. Nandhaur
Sanctuary is in which state?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
30. Which of the following is not a short-lived climate pollutant
(SLCP)?
(a) Methane
(b) Carbon Dioxide
(c) Black Carbon
(d) Tropospheric ozone
1. A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does
not necessarily have life in it.
2. All habitats are environments, but all environments are not
habitats.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Assertion(A): The biosphere is absent at extremes of the North
and South poles, the highest mountains and the deepest oceans.
Reason(R): No metabolically active life can exist where all or
some biotic and abiotic components required for survival are
minimal or absent.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not correct explanation of A
(c) only A is true, and B is not true
(d) Neither A nor B is true.
1. Of the visible part of the spectrum, only red and blue are
effective in photosynthesis.
2. Frosty conditions leads to increasing concentration of salts and
dehydration of cells.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements in ecological studies
perspective.
1. Population is group of living organisms consisting of similar
individuals capable of exchanging genes or of interbreeding.
2. Biome is a community of organisms interacting with each other
and with their environment such that energy is exchanged and
system-level processes, such as the cycling of elements,
emerge.
Which of the above statements are incorrect? Choose right
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which of the following ecosystems can be called as ‘Ecotone’?
1. Mangrove Forests
2. Grass Lands
3. Estuaries
4. Hydrothermal Vent
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
36. Assertion(A): Population density of birds is more likely to be
higher at the edge of a desert and a forest rather than that of
density birds in that desert or forest individually.
Reason(R): Ecological niche causes higher species density at the
edge which is unique compared to the individual ecosystems.
(c) Only A is true, and B is not true
37. Ecological succession is characterised by:
1. Increased productivity
2. Decreased complexity of food webs
3. Decreased diversity of organisms
4. Shift of nutrients from the reservoirs Choose the incorrect
combination using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
38. Which of the following species can be pioneer species in
ecological succession on land?
(a) Grasses, algae, fungi and mosses
(b) Mosses, algae, viruses, lichen, phytoplankton
(c) Lichen, mosses
(d) Algae, bacteria, mosses, viruses, grasses
39. Assertion(A): Rate of secondary succession is usually relatively
faster than primary succession in ecological succession at a site.
Reason(R): Secondary succession starts on a well-developed soil
already formed at the site which lacks primary succession.
40. If forests were to replace grasslands in ecological succession,
which of the following conditions are necessary.
1. Water availability for survival of trees
2. Less occurrence of fires
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. A biodiversity hope spot is an area of ocean that is under special
protection because of its wildlife and significant under water
habitat. Which of the following are declared Hope Spots under this
program?
1. Andaman Islands
2. Lakshadweep Islands
3. Nicobar Islands
4. Gulf of Khambhat
5. Gulf of Mannar
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 5 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
42. Assertion(A): Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
Reason(R): Small animals have a larger surface area relative to
their volume, they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold
outside; then they must expend much energy to generate body
heat.
(d) Neither A nor B is true
1. Proportion of energy flow through detritus food chain in aquatic
ecosystem is higher than that of terrestrial ecosystem.
2. Detritus ecosystem plays a key role in mineralisation of soil.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which of the following organisms act as decomposers in detritus
food chain?
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Fungi
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
45. Which of the following is a perfect nutrient cycle?
1. Carbon cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Phosphorous Cycle
4. Sulphur cycle
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
46. The amount of nitrogen fixed by man through the industrial
process has far exceeded the amount fixed by the Natural Cycle.
And the fixed nitrogen is being used in such a way that it is
changing the natural proportion of nitrogen and its compounds at
various levels in the cycle. What are the negative impacts of it on
environment?
1. Harmful Algal Bloom
2. Eutrophication
3. Acid Rains
4. Groundwater pollution Answer using the codes give below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. Identify the Biome based on the statements given below:
1. Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and never
very tall.
2. Fire is an important hazardous factor in this ecosystem, and
the adaptation of the plants enable them to regenerate quickly
after being burnt.
3. This biome is most notable because trees there go through
four seasons. Leaves change color in autumn, fall off in the
winter, and grow back in the spring; this adaptation allows
plants to survive cold winters.
(a) Tropical Rainforest Biome
(b) Temperate Deciduous Biome
(c) Tropical Deciduous Biome
(d) Sub-tropical Deciduous Biome
48. Which of the following statements about lagoons and estuaries
are correct?
1. Lagoons are usually deeper than estuaries.
2. Lagoons are more saline than estuaries
3. Lagoons are formed due to emerging of coastlines whereas
estuaries are mostly formed due to submerging coastlines.
Answer using the codes give below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Summer smog forms when pollutants such as sulphur oxides
and organic compounds react together in the presence of
sunlight.
2. Delhi is more likely to face smog than Mumbai or Kolkata.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Consider the following statements on bioremediation to combat
pollution.
1. Using genetic engineering, microorganisms can be modified to
remove any contaminant from the soil and water.
2. Bioremediation is environment friendly, economical and
quickest technique to clear up pollution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which of the following are ill-effects of plastic pollution?
1. Inhibiting soil microbe activity
2. Carcinogenic effects
3. Release of Persistent Organic Pollutants
4. Reducing underground water recharge Choose the correct
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
52. Which of the following international conventions are correctly
matched with target pollut-ant/hazardous chemicals group?
1. Basel Convention: Safe disposal of Radioactive water
2. Rotterdam Convention: Controlling transboundary movement
of hazardous chemicals Pesticides
3. Stockholm Convention: Eliminating Persistent organic
Pollutants
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Species diversity is a measure of the diversity within an
ecological community that incorporates both species richness
and the evenness of species.
2. If value of species diversity is ‘one’ represents infinite diversity,
and ‘zero’ represents only one species present.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Species diversity is a measure of the diversity within an
and the evenness of species.
2. If value of species diversity is ‘one’ represents infinite diversity,
and ‘zero’ represents only one species present.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Species that differ from one another in their genetic makeup do
not interbreed in nature.
2. Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics
in the genetic makeup of a species.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from
an ecosystem leads to major changes in the occurrence of at
least one other species.
2. Keystone species of an ecosystem are always the group apex
predators.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. All flagship species are keystone species, but all keystone
species are not flagship species.
2. All endemic species are flagship species. Which of the above
statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Biome is a large spatial region within which ecosystems share
a broadly similar biota while biogeographic realm is the main
groups of plants and animals living in areas of certain climate
patterns.
2. India represents three biogeographic realms and five biomes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Unlike a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a
National Park, no rights are allowed.
2. The purpose of the ESZ was to provide more protection to the
parks by acting as a shock absorber or transition zone.
Choose right combination from the options given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is an
initiative of World Bank under its Environmental and Social
Framework.
2. The purpose of TEEB is to promote analysis of global
economic benefit of biological diversity, the costs of the loss of
biodiversity and the failure to take protective measures versus
the costs of effective conservation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Consider the following statements regarding plant growth:

1. Plants that are grown in predominantly blue light tends to be
smaller with shorter stems and thicker leaves than its
counterpart grown in natural light.
2. Plants that are grown in predominantly ultraviolet and violet
light tends to become dwarfs.
Which of the statements are correct? Choose the correct option
using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Which of the following processes might involved in diversity of the
three-spined stickleback, a marine fish which established new
freshwater colonies in isolated lakes and streams after the last
glacial period?
1. Adaptation
2. Speciation
3. Adaptive speciation
4. Evolution
Choose the correct combination using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
63. Which of the following adaptations is correctly matched with
corresponding description?
1. Girraffe’s neck growing longer with higher growth of trees over
time: Physiological Adaptation
2. Animals temporarily migrating to perennial water bodies during
summer: Behavioural
3. Ability of polar bear to reduce metabolic rate during winter:
Morphological
Choose correct combination using codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
64. Consider the following statements regarding ecotone:
1. Ecotone, being a transitional ecosystem, should always be
narrowly spread.
2. Since it has conditions intermediate to the adjacent
ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension.
Which of the statements are correct? Choose the correct option
using the codes below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Suppose Wakanda is a newly emerged island in tropical zone due
to tectonic activity. Wakanda is of size of Australia, with uniform
precipitation and insolation across its area. If Autogenic Ecological
succession is to be happened, and primary succession is uniform
across the island, which of the following area of Wakanda is more
likely to reach ecological climax first.
(a) Interior part of the Wakanda
(b) Coastal Zone of Wakanda
(c) Entire Wakanda would reach ecological climax at the same
time as precipitation, insolation and primary succession are
uniform
(d) Cannot be determined
1. Ecological niche refers to unique functional role and position of
an ecosystem within a biome.
2. Edge effect is a result of ecological niche and its unique role in
ecosystem.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A biodiversity hope spot is an area of ocean that is under
special protection because of its wildlife and significant under
water habitat.
2. Biodiversity hope spot program is overseen by Mission Blue in
partnership with UNFCCC.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A food web illustrates the number of each organism which are
eaten by others.
2. Food chains can be found within the Communities of an
ecosystem.
Choose the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Despite of being at different climatic extremes, soil in both
tropical rain forest and taigas is acidic.
2. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms
feed upon each other.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Which of the following ecological energy flow concepts does not
consider the same species belonging to two or more trophic
levels?
1. Food chain
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Food Web
4. Pyramid of Energy
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
71. Assertion(A): Global warming reduces freshwater ecosystem
diversity.
Reason(R): Warm water decomposer activity and has less
solubility of oxygen. Therefore, increases the rate at which oxygen
is depleted from the water.
(c) only A is true, and B is not true
1. Estuaries and backwater occupy 70% area of total wetland
area (excluding rivers) in India.
2. Wetlands are transition zones (ecotone) between terrestrial
and aquatic ecosystems.
Which of the statements above are correct? Choose the correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Which of the following is true about BS-VI vehicle and fuel
standards?
1. It is mandatory for all BS VI vehicles to deploy onboard
diagnostics (OBD).
2. BS-VI fuels contain 50 parts per million (ppm) sulphur.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which of the following is true about Biotoilets?
1. Bio-toilets use anaerobic bi-degradation system.
2. The final products out of bio-toilets are only water, methane
and carbon dioxide.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Which of the following are natural sources of radioactive
pollution?
1. Uranium-238
2. Radium-224
3. Strontium-90
4. Iodine-131
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
76. India is aspiring to eliminate single use plastics by 2022. Which of
the following are harmful gases that may release due to
combustion of plastic?
(a) Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, cyanogen
(b) Carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulphide, dioxins
(c) Tungsten hexafluoride, carbon dioxide, phosgene, dioxins
(d) Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, phosgene, dioxins
77. Which of the following are pollutants due to e-waste?
1. Beryllium
2. Dioxin
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Strontium
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only (c) 1, 3, 5, and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
78. Which of the following pollutant/hazardous chemicals are
correctly matched with the disease caused by it in humans?
1. Mercury: Itai-Itai
2. Arsenic: Melanosis
3. Cadmium: Minamata Disease Answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Denitrification
2. Nitrification
3. Ammonification
Which of the above processes add nitrogen in nitrogen cycle to
atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
80. Which of the following can be ill-effects of radioactive pollution?
1. Miscarriage
2. Underweight babies
3. Increased susceptibility to AIDS
4. Genetic Abnormalities
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
81. Match the following host cities with respective conference of
parties of UNFCCC:
(i) COP24 (1) Lima
(ii) COP20 (2) Doha, Qatar
(iii) COP18 (3) Paris, France
(iv) COP21 (4) Katowice, Poland
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
82. Which of the following are correct regarding Kyoto protocol?
1. The Kyoto Protocol applies to the six greenhouse gases.
2. The Protocol is based on the principle of common but
differentiated responsibilities. Country will be suspended from
making transfers under an emissions trading program when an
Annex I country is not in compliance with its emissions
limitation.
3. US is the only signatory that has not ratified the Protocol.
Select the correct option from below:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
83. Which of the following are effects of Chlorinated Hydrocarbons
(CHC)?
1. It accumulated in food chains and caused eggshell thinning in
certain bird species.
2. In India, it is still being used by civic administrations as a
mosquito repellent.
3. In Arctic areas, particularly high levels are found in marine
mammals.
4. Effects and threats to human health by CHCs were discussed
in Stockholm Convention.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
84. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Podzols?
1. Podzols are the typical soils of a Tropical Deciduous Biome.
2. The top layer of the soil is very thin and is overlain over sandy
or loamy subsurface which has no organic matte
3. These soils will have high pH value.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Sub-Tropical Deciduous
(1) Alaska
Biome
(ii) Temperate Deciduous Biome (2) England
(iii) Temperate Rainforest Biome (3) Eastern China
(iv) Temperate Deciduous Biome (4) Italy
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
86. Which of the following are correct regarding Wetlands?
1. Hydric soils are the chief characteristics of wetlands.
2. More than two-third of the wetlands are under paddy
cultivation.
3. Vertical mixing is thermally regulated.
4. Excessive growth of Epiphytes is common in wetland
ecosystem.
(a) 1,2
(b) 1,2,3
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
87. The Ramsar Convention works closely with six organisations
known as International Organisation Partners (IOPs). These are:
1. International Water Management Institute (IWMI)
2. Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
3. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
4. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
5. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
(CITES).
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,5
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4,5
1. All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to
osmoregulation.
2. Tides cause great damage to the estuarine ecology.
3. Examples of estuaries are tidal marshes, lagoons.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Qualitative pollutants (1) DDT
(ii) Quantitative pollutants (2) Carbon dioxide
(iii) Fly ash (3) Lead
(a) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
90. Which of the following are correct regarding Brown carbon?
1. Brown carbon has more potential to warm the atmosphere by
absorbing light when compared to black carbon.
2. This class of organic carbon, known for its brownish colour,
absorbs strongly in the ultraviolet wavelengths and less
significantly going into the visible wavelengths.
3. Types of brown carbon include tar materials from smoldering
fires or coal combustion, breakdown products from biomass
burning.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
91. Which of the following are correct regarding effect of Nano
particles on stratospheric temperature?
1. Nano particles in the troposphere interact with molecular
hydrogen accidentally released from hydrogen fuel cells.
2. Molecular hydrogen along with NPs moves up to the
stratosphere, resulting in the abundance of water vapour in the
stratosphere.
3. This will cause stratospheric warming due to the formation of
Stratospheric clouds.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
92. Which of the following are correct regarding UN-REDD?
1. It is a multilateral collaborative programme of the FAO, UNDP,
UNEP.
2. It aims to conserve forest carbon stocks, sustainably manage
forests and enhance forest carbon stocks.
3. It partners with developing countries to support them in
establishing the technical capacities needed to implement
REDD+
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
93. Which of the following are correct regarding Framework for
Energy Efficiency Economic Development (FEEED)?
1. The fund guarantees a risk cover for DISCOMS up to 50%
loan amount or INR 10 crore per project, whichever is less.
2. Venture Capital Fund for Energy Efficiency (VCFEE) is
intended towards promoting equity financing in the energy
efficiency sector.
3. It is institutionalised by the BEE.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
94. National Water Policy, aims to
1. Ensure that a considerable share of the water needs of urban
areas are met through recycling.
2. Increase water use efficiency by 50%.
3. Incentivising water-neutral or water-positive technologies.
4. It is confined to ensure more equitable distribution within states
not across the states (considering interstate river disputes).
(a) 1,2
(b) 1,3
(c) 1,2,3
(d) 1,2,3,4
95. Which of the following are correct regarding National Mission on
Seabuckthorn?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing
desertification.
2. It is also known as Sikkim gold.
3. The MoEF and DRDO have launched the initiative for
Seabuckthorn cultivation.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
96. Match the following legislations with respective years.
(i) Biodiversity Act (1) 1972
(ii) Forest (Conservation) Act (2) 2006
(iii) Wildlife (Protection) Act (3) 1980
(iv) Forest Rights Act (4) 2000
Choose right combination from the options given below:
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
97. Which of the following are Critically Endangered Vultures in
India?
1. White-Rumped Vulture
2. Ruppell’s Vulture
3. Griffon Vulture
4. Slender-Billed Vulture
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
98. Which of the following are correct regarding CITES?
1. Management Authority in India is Secretary, MoEFCC.
2. International trade in all wild fauna and flora is regulated jointly
through the provisions of the Foreign Trade Policy of
Government of India.
3. CITES is also known as the New York Convention.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
99. Match the following.
Species Conservation status
(i) Smooth-coated otter 1. Least Concern
(ii) Tokay gecko 2. Vulnerable
(iii) Wedge fish 3. Critically Endangered
Choose correct combination from below:
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3 (b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-3 (d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
Protected Area Location
(i) Pin Valley National Park 1. Andaman
(ii) Tadoba Tiger Reserve 2. Spiti
(iii) Wandoor National Park 3. Maharashtra
(iv) Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary 4. West Bengal
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-4, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (c)
56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (a)
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (a)
76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (b)
86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (c)
96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
Explanations
1.
• The region on earth that supports life: Biosphere
• Area where an organism lives: Habitat
• A functional unit of the environment: Ecosystem
• The flora and fauna of a geographical area: Biodiversity
2. Frost results in freezing the soil moisture. The plants are killed
due to increased transpiration when their roots are unable to
supply moisture. Extremely high intensity favours root growth than
shoot growth which results in increased transpiration, short stem,
smaller thicker leaves. On the other hand, low intensity of light
retards growth, flowering and fruiting.
3.
• An adaptation is, “the appearance or behaviour or structure or
mode of life of an organism that allows it to survive in a
particular environment”.
• Variations are induced by changes in genetic makeup due to
addition or deletion of certain genes.
• Adaptive radiation is a process in which organisms diversify
from an ancestral species into a multitude of new forms when
the environment creates new challenges or opens new
environmental niches.
• Speciation is the process by which new species are formed, and
evolution is the mechanism by which speciation is brought
about.
4. Organisation
5. Difference between Habitat and Environment

• A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does not
necessarily have life in it.
• All habitats are environments, but all environments are not
habitats.
• A habitat is always a preference of one species.
• An environment could be a preference of many species that
could eventually become many habitats.
• Usually, the environment governs the properties of a habitat, but
not vice versa.
6. In ecology, the term homeostasis applies to the tendency for a
biological system to resist changes. Ecosystems are capable of
maintaining their state of equilibrium. They can regulate their own
species structure and functional processes. This capacity of the
ecosystem of self-regulation is known as homeostasis. For
example, in a pond ecosystem, if the population of zooplankton
increases, they consume a large number of the phytoplankton
and as a result, food would become scarce for zooplankton.
However, the homeostatic capacity of ecosystems is not unlimited
as well as not everything in an ecosystem is always well
regulated.
7. The trophic level interaction involves three concepts namely
1. Food Chain
2. Food Web
3. Ecological Pyramids
8. Decomposition is the process of breaking of complex organic
matter into simpler inorganic matter. There are five steps of
decomposition. These are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism,
humification and mineralization. Fragmentation is the process of
breaking of detritus into small pieces by detrivores such as
earthworm. Leaching is the process of releasing nutrients in the
water and seeping into the soil. Catabolism is the process of
breaking down of complex molecules into the simpler molecules.
Humification is the process of formation of dark coloured
substance humus on the soil. It undergoes microbial action at a
slow rate. Mineraland is the process of degradation of the humnus
to release inorganic nutrients.
Thus, the correct answer is ‘Fragmentation.’
9. Except commensalism, all other are negative biotic interactions.
• Amensalism: One species is inhibited while the other species is
unaffected.
• Predation: One species (predator) benefits while the second
species (prey) is harmed and inhibited.
• Parasitism: Beneficial to one species (parasite) and harmful to
the other species (host).
• Commensalism: One species (the commensal) benefits, while
the other species (the host) is neither harmed nor inhibited.
10. In aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an
inverted form. In contrast, a pyramid of numbers for the aquatic
ecosystem is upright.
An energy pyramid represents the amount of energy at each
trophic level and loss of energy at each transfer to another trophic
level. Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy
base at the bottom.
11. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxides
of sulphur in atmosphere can cause acid rains.
12. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus as elements
and compounds makeup 97% of the mass of our bodies and are
more than 95% of the mass of all living organisms. These
elements or mineral nutrients are always in circulation moving
from non-living to living and then back to the nonliving
components of the ecosystem in a more or less circular fashion.
This circular fashion is known as biogeochemical cycling (bio for
living; geo for atmosphere).
13. There is an inexhaustible supply of nitrogen in the atmosphere,
but the elemental form cannot be used directly by most of the
living organisms. Nitrogen needs to be ‘fixed’, that is, converted to
ammonia, nitrites or nitrates, before it can be taken up by plants.
Nitrogen fixation on earth is accomplished in three different ways:
• By microorganisms (bacteria and blue-green algae),
• By man using industrial processes (fertiliser factories) and
• To a limited extent by atmospheric phenomena such as thunder
and lighting.
14. Tropical Deciduous Biome is also called as Monsoon Climate

• Tropical Monsoon Forests are also known as a drought-
deciduous forest; dry forest; dry-deciduous forest; tropical
deciduous forest.
• Teak, neem, bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair,
mulberry are some of the important species.
15. Aquatic organisms’ classification from surface to the bottom in
that order:
• Neuston: These organisms live at the air-water interface, e.g.,
floating plants.
• Periphyton: These are organisms which remain attached to
stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances emerging
above the bottom mud such as sessile algae.
• Plankton: Microscopic floating organisms such as algae,
diatoms, protozoans and larval forms are called plankton. This
group includes both microscopic plants like algae
(phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans
(zooplankton).
• Nekton: This group contains powerful swimmers that can
overcome the water currents.
• Benthos: The benthic organisms are those found living at the
bottom of the water mass.
16.
• Productivity = production/unit area/unit time.
• Production/unit area depends on the number and diversity of
producers.
• Ecotones have greater productivity compared to the surrounding
ecosystems. Mangroves and grasslands are ecotones. (Tropical
Rainforests is an exception as it has productivity comparable to
wetlands because of its rich diversity of primary producers).
17.
• Smog = smoke + fog (smoky fog) caused by the burning of large
amounts of coal, vehicular emission and industrial fumes
(Primary pollutants).
• Smog contains soot particulates like smoke, sulphur dioxide,
nitrogen dioxide and other components.
• At least two distinct types of smog are recognised: sulphurous
smog and photochemical smog.
• Note: Water in form of droplets/vapour is an essential
component of fog which is often ignored by students.
18.
• Central Pollution Control Board along with State Pollution
Control Boards have been operating the National Air Monitoring
Program (NAMP).
• There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory,
Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.
• The AQI will consider eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, N02, S02,
CO, 03, NH3, and Pb).
19.
• Species diversity is the ratio of one species pop ulation over
total number of organisms across all species in the given biome.
‘Zero’ would be infinite diversity, and ‘one’ represents only one
species present.
• Species diversity is a measure of the diversity within an
(the number of species in a community) and the evenness of
species.
• In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from
the equator towards the poles.
20. Bioprospecting is the process of discovery and commercialisation
of new products based on biological resources. These resources
or compounds can be important for and useful in many fields,
including pharmaceuticals, agriculture, bioremediation, and
nanotechnology, among others.
21. A stable community means that there is not much variation in
productivity from year to year; it is either resistant or resilient to
occasional disturbances (natural or human-made) and is resistant
to invasions by alien species.
22.
• Endemism is the ecological state of a species being unique to a
defined geographic location, such as an island, nation, country
or other defined zone, or habitat type; organisms that are
indigenous to a place are not endemic to it if they are also found
elsewhere.
• An animal or plant may be endemic to a zone, a state or a
country. The extreme opposite of endemism is cosmopolitan
distribution means presence of that species is not limited to a
region but is globally distributed.
23. Foundation species is a dominant primary producer in an
ecosystem both in terms of abundance and influence.
Macroalgae, as the primary producer which meets most of the
energy requirement of the ecosystem, is the foundation species in
kelp forest.
24.
• Biogeography deals with the geographical distribution of plants
and animals.
• Biogeographic zones were used as a basis for planning wildlife
protected areas in India.
• There are ten biogeographic zones which are distinguished
clearly in India. They are as follows:
1. Trans-Himalayas
2. Himalayas
3. Desert
4. Semi-arid
5. Western Ghats
6. Deccan Peninsula
7. Gangetic plain
8. North-east India
9. Islands
10. Coasts
25. Himalayan foothills:
• Flora: Natural monsoon evergreen and semi-evergreen forests;
dominant species are sal, silkcotton trees, giant bamboos; tall
grassy meadow with savannahs in terai.
• Fauna: Elephant, sambar, swamp deer, cheetal, hog deer,
barking deer, wild boar tiger, panther, hyena, black bear, sloth
bear, Great Indian onehorned rhinoceros, wild buffalo, Gangetic
gha- rial, golden langur.
Western Himalayas (High altitude region):
• Flora: Natural monsoon evergreen and semi-evergreen forests;
rhododendrons; dwarf hill bamboo and birch forests mixed with
alpine pastures.
• Fauna: Tibetan wild ass (kiang), wild goats (thar, ibex) and blue
sheep; antelopes (Chiru and Tibetan gazelle), deer (hangul of
Kashmir stag, musk deer); golden eagle, snow cocks, snow
partridges; snow leopard, black and brown bears; birds like
Griffon vultures.
26. All the above-mentioned species are invasive in India.
• Eucalyptus: Australian native species most prominently invasive
in Deccan
• Goldfish: East Asian native, invasive in almost all of India
• African Giant Snail and African Catfish: Both are African native
species, mostly found in Western Ghats states.
27.
• Typically, reserved forests are often upgraded to the status of
wildlife sanctuaries, which in turn may be upgraded to the status
of national parks, with each category receiving a higher degree
of protection and government funding.
• In terms of protection, National parks > Wildlife Sanctuary >
Reserved forests > Protected forests
28.
• Unlike its predecessor, the Kyoto Protocol, which sets
commitment targets that have legal force, the Paris Agreement,
with its emphasis on consensus-building, allows for voluntary
and nationally determined targets. The specific climate goals are
thus politically encouraged, rather than legally bound.
• The global stocktake established under Article 14 of the Paris
Agreement is a process for taking stock of collective progress
toward achieving the purpose of the Agreement and its long-
term goals. It takes place every five years.
• The outcome of the global stocktake shall inform Parties in
updating and enhancing, in a nationally determined manner,
their actions and support in accordance with the relevant
provisions of the Agreement, as well as in enhancing
international cooperation for climate action.
29. Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in Kumaon
region of Uttarakhand. The sanctuary is part of the Terai Arc
Landscape (TAL), a forest zone that stretches from Uttarakhand in
India and extends into Nepal. The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL)
extends from River Yamuna in India in the west to River Bagmati
in Nepal in east.
30.
• SLCPs have relatively short lifetime in the atmosphere - a few
days to a few decades.
• Though short-lived, their potential to warm the atmosphere can
be many times greater than CO2.
• SLCPs are responsible for up to 45% of current global warming,
only next to CO2.
• SLCPs include black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and
hydrofluorocarbons.

31. Difference between Habitat and Environment
• A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does not
necessarily have life in it.
• All habitats are environments, but all environments are not
habitats.
• A habitat is always a preference of one species.
• An environment could be a preference of many species that
could eventually become many habitats.
• Usually, the environment governs the properties of a habitat, but
not vice versa.
32. The biosphere is the biological component (supporting life) of the
earth which includes the lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmosphere. The biosphere includes all living organisms on earth,
together with the dead organic matter produced by them. The
biosphere is absent at extremes of the North and South poles, the
highest mountains and the deepest oceans since existing hostile
conditions there do not support life (life is the characteristic
feature of the biosphere). Occasionally spores of fungi and
bacteria do occur at a great height beyond 8000 metres, but they
are metabolically inactive, and hence represent only dormant
life.
33.
• Of the visible part of the spectrum, only red and blue are
effective in photosynthesis.
• Plants grown in blue light are small, red light results in
elongation of cells (etiolated plants). Plants grown in ultraviolet
and violet light are dwarf.
• Frost results in freezing the soil moisture. The plants are killed
due to increased transpiration when their roots are unable to
supply moisture. Water in the intercellular spaces of the plant
gets frozen into ice. This results in increasing concentration of
salts and dehydration of cells.
34.
• An ecosystem is a community of organisms interacting with
each other and with their environment such that energy is
exchanged and system-level processes, such as the cycling of
elements, emerge.
• A biome is a large naturally occurring community of flora and
fauna occupying a major habitat. For example, rainforest biome
or tundra biome.
• Population is a community of interbreeding organisms (same
species), occupying a defined area during a specific time.
• Species are a group of living organisms consisting of similar
individuals capable of exchanging genes or of interbreeding.
35. An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two
biomes (diverse ecosystems). Ecotone is the zone where two
communities meet and integrate. For example, the mangrove
forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial
ecosystem. Other examples are grassland (between forest and
desert), estuary (between fresh water and saltwater) and
riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet).
36. Sometimes the number of species and the population density of
some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either
community. This is called edge effect. The organisms which occur
primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge
species. In the terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially
applicable to birds. For example, the density of birds is greater in
the ecotone between the forest and the desert. Niche refers to the
unique functional role and position of a species in its habitat or
ecosystem. The functional characteristics of a species in its
habitat is referred to as ‘niche’ in that common habitat.
37. Succession is characterised by the following: increased
productivity, the shift of nutrients from the reservoirs, increased
diversity of organisms, and a gradual increase in the complexity of
food webs.
38. In primary succession on a terrestrial site, the new site is first
colonised by a few hardy pioneer species that are often microbes,
lichens and mosses. Lichen are plant-like organisms that consist
of a symbiotic association of algae (usually green) or
cyanobacteria and fungi. The pioneers over a few generations
alter the habitat conditions by their growth and development
39.
• Primary succession takes place over where no community has
existed previously.
• Such areas include rock outcrops, newly formed deltas and
sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows, glacial
moraines (muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier), etc.
Unlike in the primary succession, the secondary succession
starts on a well-developed soil already formed at the site. Thus,
secondary succession is relatively faster.
40. In grasslands, grasses maintain status of climax due to following
process:
In the dry season the grasses dry up and cause fires which
destroy other plant species and their seeds.
• Also, grasslands develop in regions with scanty rainfall where
plant growth cannot be achieved.
• Though forests form the climax community in most of the
ecosystems, in the grassland ecosystem grasses form the
climax community. Thanks to fire and lack of water.
• Grasslands are almost irreversible once deforestation in water-
scarce areas gives way to grasslands.
41. Andamans, Lakshadweep declared ‘hope spots’ by IUCN
Two groups of islands are the first in India to make it to the list
of 50 global hope spots with significant wildlife and underwater
habitats.
42. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Since small
animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume, they
tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside; then they
have to expend much energy to generate body heat [a lot of food
goes into heat generation] through metabolism. This is the main
reason why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
43.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain is the major
conduit for energy flow.
• As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction
of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the
grazing food chain.
44.
• Fungi and Bacteria are decomposers. They breakdown organic
matter into simple inorganic substances.
• Virus represents dormant life. They are metabolically inactive if
they are outside a host body. They are not decomposers. They
invade host cells and use their nucleus (DNA machinery) to
carry out their life processes.
45. Based on the replacement period, a nutrient cycle is referred to
as Perfect or Imperfect cycle.
• A perfect nutrient cycle is one in which nutrients are replaced as
fast as they are utilised.
• Most gaseous cycles are generally considered as perfect cycles.
In contrast sedimentary cycles are considered relatively
imperfect, as some nutrients are lost from the cycle and get
locked into sediments and so become unavailable for immediate
cycling.
• Based on the nature of the reservoir, a nutrient cycle is referred
to as Gaseous or Sedimentary cycle
• Gaseous Cycle: the reservoir is the atmosphere or the
hydrosphere—water cycle, carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, etc.,
and
• Sedimentary Cycle: the reservoir is the earth’s crust (soluble
elements mostly found in earth’s crust)—phosphorous cycle,
sulphur cycle, calcium cycle, magnesium cycle, etc.
46.
• The amount of nitrogen fixed by man through the industrial
process has far exceeded the amount fixed by the Natural
Cycle.
• As a result, nitrogen fixed by man has become a pollutant which
can disrupt the balance of nitrogen. It may lead to Acid rain,
Eutrophication and Harmful Algal Blooms.
• Oxides of nitrogen fall on earth as acid rain. Acidic rain is a
complex mixture of nitrous, nitric, sulphurous and sulfuric acids
which all combine to lower the pH.
• Amount of excessive fixed nitrogen being added to soil in form
of fertilizers adds nitrogen to the soil and pollutes water bodies
near through run of and leaching.
• While run-off of nitrogen may cause harmful algal bloom,
leached nitrogen compounds pollute ground water.
47. Temperate Deciduous Biome (Mediterranean Climate)
• Trees with small broad leaves are widely spaced and never very
tall.
• Regions with adequate rainfall are inhabited by low, broad-
leafed evergreen trees (mostly evergreen oaks).
• Fire is an important hazardous factor in this ecosystem, and the
adaptation of the plants enable them to regenerate quickly after
being burnt.
• Plants are in a continuous struggle against heat, dry air,
excessive evaporation and prolonged droughts.
• They are, in short, xerophytic (drought tolerant).
48.
• A lagoon is a stretch of saltwater separated from the sea by a
low sandbank or coral reef. Backwaters in Kerala are mostly
lagoons where seawater flows inwards through a small inlet that
is open towards the sea.
• In estuaries, the water flows fast and strong, while in lagoons
the water is shallower and flows sluggishly.
• Estuaries are usually deeper than lagoons. Also, lagoons mostly
do not have any fresh water source while the estuaries have at
least one. Lagoons are more saline than estuaries.
• Lagoons are formed due to falling in sea levels (coastline of
emergence, e.g., Kerala Coast) whereas estuaries are mostly
formed due to rise in sea levels (coastline of submergence, e.g.,
Konkan coast)
49. Smog is a combination of airborne particulate matter, like soot,
and invisible toxic gases including ozone (03), carbon monoxide
(CO), sulphur dioxide (S02), which are carcinogens (cancer
causing agents). Sulphurous smog, also called as summer smog,
results from a high concentration of SULFUR OXIDES in the air
and is caused due to use of sul-phur-bearing fossil fuels,
particularly coal.
50.
• Bioremediation is limited to biodegradable compounds. Not all
compounds are susceptible to rapid and complete degradation.
• Bioremediation takes a longer time than other mechanised
industrial processes.
51.
• Conventional plastics have been associated with reproductive
problems in both humans and wildlife.
• Dioxin (highly carcinogenic and toxic) by-product of the
manufacturing process is one of the chemicals believed to be
passed on through breast milk to the nursing infant.
• Burning of plastics, especially PVC releases dioxin and also
furan into the atmosphere.
• Plastic bags can also contaminate foodstuffs due to leaching of
toxic dyes and transfer of pathogens.
• Careless disposal of plastic bags chokes drains, blocks the
porosity of the soil and causes problems for groundwater
recharge.
• Plastic disturbs the soil microbe activity. The terrestrial and
aquatic animals misunderstand plastic garbage as food items,
swallow them and die.
52.
• Basel Convention is an international treaty that was designed to
reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations.
• Rotterdam Convention promotes an open exchange of
information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to
use proper labelling, safe handling, and inform purchasers of
any known restrictions or bans.
• Stockholm Convention to eliminate or restrict the production and
use of persistent organic pollutants (PoPs).
53.
• Species diversity is the ratio of one species population over total
number of organisms across all species in the given biome.
‘Zero’ would be infinite diversity, and ‘one’ represents only one
species present.
species.
54.
• It is the ratio of one species population over total number of
organisms across all species in the given biome. ‘Zero’ would be
infinite diversity, and ‘one’ represents only one species present.
species.
• In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from
the equator towards the poles.
55.
• Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics in
the genetic makeup of a species.
• A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level
(For example, Homo sapiens: Chinese, Indian American,
African, etc.).
• India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice
and 1,000 varieties of mango.
• Genetic diversity allows species to adapt to changing
environments. This diversity aims to ensure that some species
survive drastic changes and thus carry on desirable genes.
56.
• Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from an
ecosystem leads to major changes in the occurrence of at least
one other species.
• Certain species in an ecosystem is considered more important
in determining the presence of many other species in that
ecosystem.
• A keystone species is often, but not always, a predator. Just a
few predators can control the distribution and population of large
numbers of prey species. Herbivores can also be keystone
species. Their consumption of plants helps control the physical
and biological aspects of an ecosystem. Other kinds of keystone
species are those, such as coral or beavers, that significantly
alter the habitat around them and thus affect large numbers of
other organisms.
57.
• A flagship species is a species chosen to represent an
environmental cause, such as an ecosystem in need of
conservation.
• These species are chosen for their vulnerability, attractiveness
or distinctiveness in order to engender support and
acknowledgement from the public at large while keystone
species is defined by it’s ability to alter its habitat significantly. All
flagship species need not be keystone species and vice versa.
But there is some overlapping. And flagship species may vary
based on national, political and political priorities but keystone
species is strictly biological and environmental.
• Many endemic species if endangered may be identified as
flagships but not necessarily. For example, Giant Panda and
Yangtze Dolphin both endemic to China and are endangered but
Panda campaign the flag role while later is not much talked
about.
58.
• Biogeographic realms are large spatial regions within which
ecosystems share a broadly similar biota.
• A realm is a continent or sub-continent sized area with unifying
features of geography and fauna & flora.
• The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
1. The Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm.
2. The rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm.
• Biome means the main groups of plants and animals living in
areas of certain climate patterns.
• It includes the way in which animals, vegetation and soil interact
together. The plants and animals of that area have adapted to
that environment.
• The five biomes of India are:
1. Tropical Humid Forests
2. Tropical Dry or Deciduous Forests (including Monsoon
Forests)
3. Warm deserts and semi-deserts
4. Coniferous forests
5. Alpine meadows
59.
• National parks are areas reserved for wildlife where they can
freely use the habitats and natural resources.
• The difference between a Sanctuary and a National Park mainly
lies in the vesting of rights of people living inside. Unlike a
Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a National
Park, no rights are allowed. No grazing of any livestock shall
also be permitted inside a National Park while in a Sanctuary,
the Chief Wildlife Warden may regulate, control or prohibit it.
• The purpose of the ESZ was to provide more protection to the
parks by acting as a shock absorber or transition zone. Eco-
Sensitive Zones would minimise forest depletion and man-
animal conflict.
60.
• The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is an
international initiative to draw attention to the global economic
benefits of biodiversity.
• In 2007, environment ministers from the G8+5 countries
meeting in Germany proposed TEEB to initiate the process of
1. analysing the global economic benefit of biological diversity,
2. the costs of the loss of biodiversity and
3. the failure to take protective measures versus the costs of
effective conservation.

61.
• More blue light will lead to shorter stems and thicker leaves.
• Too much far-red light or an unequal balance with the red light
will result in elongated plants.
• A low red to far-red ratio and consequently a limited amount of
red light at the beginning of the night is important for the
flowering of short-day plants.
• Far red light alone does not regulate flowering
• Green light is beneficial for the photosynthesis, although it does
not affect the flowering or plant development.
62. The term diversity is itself indicating that the marine fish now has
different species in different habitats and ecosystems. Which
means it gave rise to new freshwater species ^ speciation.
Evolution is the mechanism by which speciation occurs ^
evolution. Speciation here also involves adaptation and adaptive
speciation as the species adopted to freshwater ecosystem.
63.
• Morphological - when trees grew higher, the giraffe’s neck got
longer;
• Physiological - in the absence of an external source of water,
the kangaroo rat in North American deserts can meet all its
water requirements through its internal fat oxidation (in which
water is a byproduct). It also has the ability to concentrate its
urine so that minimal volume of water is used to remove
excretory products;
• Behavioural - animals migrating temporarily to a less stressful
habitat.
64. Ecotone may be narrow (between grassland and forest) or wide
(between forest and desert). It has conditions intermediate to the
adjacent ecosystems. Hence, it is a zone of tension. Usually, the
number and the population density of the species of an outgoing
community decreases as we move away from the community or
ecosystem. A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms
which are entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
65. Succession would occur faster in area existing in the middle of
the large continent. This is because here seeds of plants
belonging to the different seres would reach much faster. Thus,
interior part of Wakanda island is more likely to reach ecological
climax first.
66. • Edge effect refers to the changes in population or community
structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone).
Sometimes the number of species and the population density of
some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either
community. This is called edge effect.
• Niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a
species in its habitat or ecosystem. The functional
characteristics of a species in its habitat is referred to as ‘niche’
in that common habitat.
67. A biodiversity hope spot is an area of ocean that is under special
protection because of its wildlife and significant under water
habitat. They are places where human activities and impacts will
be minimised, the unique and vital ecosystems within the Hope
Spots will have a chance to recover and to flourish. Biodiversity
hope spot program is overseen by Mission Blue in partnership
with IUCN.
68. A food web illustrates the numbers of each organism which are
eaten by others, but food chain does not. Food chains can be
found within the Communities of an ecosystem as communities
consist of different species to feed upon.
69. Low temperature and anaerobiosis, in taiga, inhibit decomposition
resulting in a build-up of organic materials soils become acidic. In
tropical rain forests, the nutrients are quickly released due to
abundance of heat and air. But these nutrients are either quickly
absorbed by dense shrubs on ground or washed away by rain
because of which soils are deprived of nutrients ^ soils become
acidic.
70. All food pyramids, including pyramids of energy, biomass and
number, do not consider the same species belonging to two or
more trophic levels.
Food pyramids assume a simple food chain, something that
seldom exists in nature; it does not accommodate a food web
which considers the same species belonging to two or more
trophic levels.
71.
• In freshwater the average concentration of dissolved oxygen is
ten parts per million by weight.
• This is 150 times lower than the concentration of oxygen in an
equivalent volume of air. Oxygen enters the aquatic ecosystem
through the air-water interface and by the photosynthetic
activities of aquatic plants.
• Dissolved oxygen escapes the water body through the air-water
interface and respiration of organisms (fish, decomposers,
zooplankton, etc.).
• The amount of dissolved oxygen retained in water is also
influenced by temperature.
• Oxygen is less soluble in warm water → more dissolved oxygen
would escape into atmosphere. Warm water also enhances
decomposer activity → consumes dissolved oxygen reducing
amount of oxygen available for other species.
• When the dissolved oxygen level falls below 3-5 ppm, many
aquatic organisms are likely to die leading to reduced diversity.
72. Wetlands are areas of marsh or peatland with water that is static
or flowing, fresh, brackish or saline, including areas of marine
water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6 m.
Wetlands are transition zones (ecotone) between terrestrial
and aquatic ecosystems.
According to the Directory of Asian Wetlands (1989), wetlands
occupy 18.4% of the country’s area (excluding rivers), of which
70% are under paddy cultivation.
Recent estimates of the total area of wetlands in India include
the following:
40,990,000
Area under paddy cultivation
ha
Area suitable for fish culture
(a) freshwater 1,600,000 ha
(b) brackish water 2,000,000 ha 3,600,000 ha
Area of capture fisheries 2,900,000 ha
Mangroves (after Blasco 1977) 356,000 ha
Estuaries 3,900,000 ha
Back waters 3,540,000 ha
Man-made impoundments 3,000,000 ha
Rivers including main tributaries 28,999 km
Canals and irrigation channels 113,000 km
Total area of wetlands (Excluding 58,286,000
rivers) ha
73.
• The extent of sulphur is the major difference between Bharat
Stage IV and Bharat Stage VI norms.
• BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts per million (ppm) sulphur; the BS-VI
grade fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur.
• BS VI can bring down PM in diesel cars by 80% and nitrogen
oxides from diesel cars by 70% and in petrol cars by 25%.
• BS VI also makes onboard diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all
vehicles.
• OBD device informs the vehicle owner or the repair technician
how efficient the systems in the vehicle are.
74.
75. Artificial Sources of Radioactive pollution

• Accidents in nuclear power plants and nuclear waste.
• Nuclear weapon testing and explosion (Nuclear fallout). The fall
out contains radioactive substances such as strontium-90,
caesium-137, iodine-131, etc.
• Radiation therapy and direct exposures to radiation for
diagnostic purposes (e.g., X-rays), chemotherapy, etc.
Natural Sources of Radioactive pollution
• They include cosmic rays from space and terrestrial radiations
from radionuclides present in earth’s crust such as radium-224,
uranium-238, thorium-232, potassium-40, carbon-14, etc.
76.
• Burning of plastic in garbage dumps release highly toxic and
poisonous gases like carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide,
phosgene, dioxins and other poisonous chlorinated compounds.
• Toxic solid residue left after burning remains in the soil. The
harmful gases enter soils through chemical cycles.
77.
• Dioxin is a pollutant released by plastics that may get released
due to improper disposal of e-waste as e-waste also contains
plastic.
• Heptachlor is an insecticide.
• Strontium is a radioactive pollutant.
78.
• Itai-itai disease first reported from Japan in 1965 was attributed
to cadmium contamination in water and rice caused by the
discharge of effluents from a zinc smelter into a river.
• Chronic arsenic poisoning causes melanosis and keratosis (dark
spots on the upper chest, back and arms are known as
melanosis. The next stage is keratosis in which palms become
hard) and leads to loss of appetite, weight, diarrhoea,
gastrointestinal disturbances and skin cancer.
• In Japan, mass mercury poisoning (Minamata disease) was
observed in the 1960s, caused by eating fish from Minamata
Bay which was contaminated with methyl mercury.
79.
• Only denitrification converts nitrates to nitrogen and makes it
available to add to atmosphere.
• Nitrification: Takes up Ammonium in soil and converts into
nitrates in soil. Does not release nitrogen into atmosphere.
• Ammonification: Takes up ammonium in soil and converts into
nitrites in soil.
80.
• At high doses, nuclear radiation is lethal, but at lower doses, it
creates various disorders, the most frequent of all being cancer.
• Continued small dose exposure to nuclear radiation can cause
childhood leukaemia, miscarriage, underweight babies, infant
deaths, increased susceptibility to AIDS and other immune
disorders.
80.
• 2012: COP 18/CMP 8, Doha, Qatar
Qatar hosted COP 18 which took place in Doha, Qatar, from 26
November to 7 December 2012. The Conference produced a
package of documents collectively titled The Doha Climate
Gateway.
• 2014: COP 20/CMP 10, Lima, Peru
The tenth session of the Meeting of the Parties (CMP) to the
1997 Kyoto Protocol (the protocol having been developed under
the UNFCCC’s charter). The pre-COP conference was held in
Venezuela.
• 2015: COP 21/CMP 11, Paris, France Negotiations resulted in
the adoption of the Paris Agreement on 12 December,
governing climate change reduction measures from 2020. The
adoption of this agreement ended the work of the Durban
platform, established during C0P17. The agreement will enter
into force (and thus become fully effective) on 4 November
2016. On 4 October 2016, the threshold for adoption was
reached with over 55 countries representing at least 55% of the
world’s greenhouse gas emissions ratifying the Agreement.
• 2018: COP 24/CMP 14/CMA 1-3, Katowice, Poland
The Polish government’s vision for presidency states that the
organisation of COP 24 will provide an opportunity for
convincing other countries that Poland does not hamper the
process of tackling dangerous climate change and that Poland
is one of the leaders of this process.
82. • The Kyoto Protocol applies to the six green-house gases listed
in Annex A: Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide
(N2O), Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and
Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
• The Protocol is based on the principle of common but
differentiated responsibilities.
• If the enforcement branch determines that an Annex I country is
not in compliance with its emissions limitation, then that country
is required to make up the difference during the second
commitment period plus an additional 30%.
In addition, that country will be suspended from making
transfers under an emissions trading program.
• 192 parties have ratified the protocol (191 states and one
regional economic integration organisation). The United States
has not; it dropped out in 2001. The protocol mandated that 37
industrialised nations plus the European Community cut their
greenhouse gas emissions.
83. Chlorinated Hydrocarbons (CHCs)
• CHCs are hydrocarbons in which one or more hydrogen atoms
have been replaced by chlorine e.g. DDT
(dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane), endosulfan, chloroform,
carbon tetrachloride, etc.
• DDT accumulated in food chains and caused eggshell thinning
in certain bird species.
• In India, it is still being used by civic administrations as a
mosquito repellent (disease vector control).
• DDT residues continue to be found in mammals all across the
planet. In Arctic areas, particularly high levels are found in
marine mammals.
• Because of its threats to human health and the environment, a
global ban on the manufacture and use of endosulfan was
negotiated under the Stockholm Convention in 2011.
84. Podzols
• Podzols are the typical soils of a coniferous or boreal biome.
• The top layer of the soil is very thin and is overlain over sandy or
loamy subsurface which has no organic matter (lost due to
leaching of nutrients to the bottom layers).
• The soils are characterised by low levels of moisture
(excessively drained) and nutrients and are loamy or sandy.
Others have shallow rooting zones and poor drainage due to
subsoil cementation.
• A low pH further compounds issue. The low pH (acidic) is due to
excessive leaching of alkaline matter which if present would
neutralise the organic acids of the accumulating litter.
• Hence, most Podzols are poor soils for agriculture. They are
mostly used for grazing.
85.
• Sub-Tropical Deciduous Biome- Eastern China, South Eastern
USA
• Temperate Deciduous Biome (North-Western Europe-British
Type Climate)-England
• Temperate Rainforest Biome
• This is a small biome in terms of area covered. The main stretch
of this habitat is along the north western coast of North America
from northern California through southern Alaska.
• There are also small areas in southern Chile, New Zealand,
Australia and a few other places around the world.
• Temperate Deciduous Biome-Mediterranean climate.
86. • Wetlands are areas of marsh or peatland with water that is static
or flowing, fresh, brackish or saline, including areas of marine
water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6 m.
• Wetlands are transition zones (ecotone) between terrestrial and
aquatic ecosystems.
• For example, Mangroves, lake littorals (marginal areas between
highest and lowest water level of the lakes), floodplains (areas
lying adjacent to the river channels beyond the natural levees
and periodically flooded during high discharge in the river) and
other marshy or swampy areas.
• These habitats experience periodic flooding from adjacent
deepwater habitats and therefore supports plants and animals
specifically adapted to such shallow flooding or waterlogging.
• Waterlogged soil adapted plant life (hydrophytes), and hydric
soils (not enough O2) are the chief characteristics of wetlands.
• Natural wetlands in India range from high altitude wetlands in
the Himalayas; flood plains of the major river systems; saline
and temporary wetlands of the arid and semi-arid regions;
coastal wetlands such as lagoons, backwaters, estuaries,
mangroves, swamps and coral reefs, and so on.
• Excessive growth of macrophytes (both submerged and free-
floating) in wetlands affects the water quality adversely and
interfere with the utilisation of the water body.
• Vertical mixing is thermally regulated in lakes while it is wind
regulated in wetlands.
87. The Ramsar Convention works closely with six organisations
known as International Organisation Partners (IOPs). These are:
1. Birdlife International
2. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
3. International Water Management Institute (IWMI)
4. Wetlands International
5. World Wide Fund (WWF)
6. International Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust (WWT)
88.
• An estuary is a place where a river or a stream opens into the
sea (mouth of the river).
• It is a partially enclosed coastal area of brackish water (salinity
varies between 0-35 ppt) with one or more rivers or streams
flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea.
• At the estuaries, freshwater carrying fertile silt and runoff from
the land mixes with the salty sea water.
• Estuaries form a transition zone (ecotone) between river
environments and maritime environments.
• Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays, tidal
marshes, lagoons and deltas.
• Estuaries are formed due to rise in sea level, movement of sand
and sandbars, glacial processes and tectonic processes.
• All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to
variations in salinity to which they are adapted (osmoregulation).
• Estuaries are greatly influenced by tidal action. They are
periodically washed by sea water once or twice a day based on
the number of tides.
• In some narrow estuaries, tidal bores are significant. Tidal bores
cause great damage to the estuarine ecology.
89. According to their existence in nature:
• Quantitative Pollutants: These occur in nature and become
pollutant when their concentration reaches beyond a threshold
level. For example, carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxide.
• Qualitative Pollutants: These do not occur in nature and are
human-made. For example, fungicides, herbicides, DDT, etc.
Composition
• Fly ash particles are oxide rich and consist of silica, alumina,
oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium and toxic heavy metals
like lead, arsenic, cobalt, and copper.
• Major oxides are present are aluminium silicate (in large
amounts), silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO).
90.
• Up to about 70% of light absorption is by black carbon. When
Brown carbon is present independently it has nearly 15%
potential to warm the atmosphere by absorbing light.
• Black carbon particles (a component of soot) originating from
combustion processes have been known for some time to
absorb sunlight and warm the atmosphere, and pollution
controls have been put into place to reduce their emissions and
their effects.
• Brown carbon has attracted interest as a possible cause of
climate change. This class of organic carbon, known for its
brownish colour, is absorbed strongly in the ultraviolet
wavelengths and less significantly going into the visible
wavelengths. Types of brown carbon include tar materials from
smouldering fires or coal combustion, breakdown products from
biomass burning, a mixture of organic compounds emitted from
soil, and volatile organic compounds given off by vegetation.
91. Effect of Nano Particles on stratospheric temperature
• NPs in the troposphere interact with molecular hydrogen
accidentally released from hydrogen fuel cells and other
sources.
• Molecular hydrogen along with NPs moves up to the
stratosphere, resulting in the abundance of water vapour in the
stratosphere.
• This will cause stratospheric cooling due to the formation of
Stratospheric clouds (mostly ice crystals).
• Stratospheric clouds destroy ozone.
92. UN-REDD:
• The United Nations Programme on Reducing Emissions from
Deforestation and Forest Degradation.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
• Membership: 64 Partner Countries.
• It is a multilateral collaborative programme of the Food and
Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
• It was created in 2008 in response to the UNFCCC decisions on
the Bali Action Plan and REDD at COP-13. It partners with
developing countries to support them in establishing the
technical capacities needed to implement REDD+ and meet
UNFCCC requirements for REDD+ results- based payments.
• REDD+: Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation and the role of conservation, sustainable
management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon
stocks in developing countries (REDD+).
93. Framework for Energy Efficiency Economic Development
(FEEED) is for promoting energy efficiency initiatives by hedging
against investment risks.
• BEE institutionalised two types of funds in order to protect the
confidence of banks and investors in energy efficiency projects
and to avoid the stalling of projects due to lack of funds.
• Partial Risk Guarantee Fund for Energy Efficiency
(PRGFEE): The fund guarantees a risk cover for banks and
investors for up to 50% loan amount or INR 10 crore per project,
whichever is less.
• Venture Capital Fund for Energy Efficiency (VCFEE): This
fund is intended towards promoting equity financing (stock,
share) in the energy efficiency sector and thus reducing the
impact of non-availability of debt financing (bond, loan) to small
size companies and projects. The equity support is equivalent to
INR 2 crore or 15% of total equity whichever is less.
94. National Water Mission (NWM) Mission:
• Objective is to ensure integrated water resource management
helping to conserve water, minimize wastage and ensure more
equitable distribution both across and within states.
The Mission, in line with National Water Policy, aims to
• increase water use efficiency by 20%.
• ensure that a considerable share of the water needs of urban
areas are met through recycling.
• ensure that the water requirements of coastal cities are met
through modern desalination technologies.
• ensure basin level management strategies by working with
states to deal with variability in rainfall.
The Mission aims to achieve its objectives through:
• Increasing efficiency through regulatory mechanisms (differential
entitlements and pricing).
• Enhanced storage both above and below ground, rainwater
harvesting.
• Incentivising water-neutral or water-positive technologies, and
adoption of large-scale irrigation programmes which rely on
sprinklers, drip irrigation and ridge and furrow irrigation.
95. National Mission on Seabuckthorn
• The initiative is a part of Sub-Mission on Cold Desert
Ecosystems under the Green India Mission.
• Seabuckthorn, popularly known as Leh berries is also called the
“Wonder plant” and “Ladakh gold”.
• The MoEF and DRDO have launched the initiative for
Seabuckthorn cultivation in the cold deserts.
• It has multi-purpose medicinal and nutritional properties.
• It has the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
• It is tolerant to extreme temperatures and has an extensive root
system, making it ideal for controlling soil erosion and
preventing desertification.
96. Wildlife (Protection) Act: 1972
Forest (Conservation) Act: 1980
Biodiversity Act: 2000
Forest Rights Act: 2006
97. Conservation Status of India Vultures (As of March 2019)
Critically Endangered
• White-Rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)
• White-Backed Vulture (Gyps africanus)
• Ruppell’s Vulture (Gyps rueppellii)
• Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus)
• Slender-Billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
Endangered
• Cape Vulture (Gyps coprotheres)
Near Threatened
• Himalayan Vulture (Gyps himalayensis)
Least Concern
• Griffon Vulture (Gyps fulvus)
98.
• Management Authority in India: Director of Wildlife Preservation,
MoEFCC.
• Other Management Authorities competent to grant permits:
Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB).
• International trade in all wild fauna and flora is regulated jointly
through the provisions of the
• Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
• Foreign Trade (Development Regulation) Act 1992.
• Foreign Trade Policy of Government of India and
• Customs Act, 1962.
• CITES is also known as the Washington Convention.
99. India has submitted proposals to the CITES regarding changes to
the listing of various wildlife species.
• The proposals submitted are regarding changes in the listing of
the smooth-coated otter, small-clawed otter, Indian star tortoise,
Tokay gecko, wedge fish and Indian rosewood.
• Smooth-coated otter, Indian rosewood, Indian star tortoise,
Oriental small-clawed otter/ Asian small-clawed otter-Vulnerable
• Tokay gecko-Least Concern
• Wedge fish- Critically Endangered
100.
• Pin Valley National Park, Spiti
• Tadoba Tiger Reserve, Maharashtra
• Wandoor Marine National Park, Andaman
• Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary, West Bengal
5
Geography of Asia
1. Which of the following imaginary lines passes through Asia?

(a) Equator, Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle
(b) Equator, Tropic of Capricorn and Tropic of Cancer
(c) International Date line and Tropic of Capricorn
(d) International Date line, Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle
2. Which of the following is the highest Peak in Asia?
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Mount Godwin-Austen
(c) Mount Kilimanjaro
(d) Aconcagua
3. Chukha project is in
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Bangladesh
4. In which hemisphere Asia is located ?
(a) Eastern and Northern Hemisphere
(b) Western and Northern Hemisphere
(c) Southern and Northern Hemisphere
(d) Northern Hemisphere
5. The deepest trench of the Indian Ocean?
(a) Philippine trench
(b) Tonga Trench
(c) Kuril-Kamchatka Trench
(d) Java Trench
6. Which of the following is the longest river in Asia?
(a) Brahmaputra River
(b) Ganga River
(c) Yangtze River
(d) Nile River
7. The Manchurian Plain is located in which part of Asia?
(a) India
(b) Mongolia
(c) Russia
(d) China
8. Which is the lowest point in Asia?
(a) Mariana Trench
(b) Dead Sea
(c) Tibet
(d) Indonesia
9. Largest waterfall in Asia is
(a) Huangguoshu Waterfall
(b) Jog Falls
(c) Hebbe Falls
(d) Barkana Falls
10. Aral Sea is located in between
(a) Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan
(b) Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan
(c) Afghanistan and Turkmenistan
(d) Kazakhstan and Afghanistan
11. Asia and Europe are separated by
(a) The Gulf of Aden
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Ural Mountains
(d) Red Sea
12. Which of the following is known as the “Roof of the World”?
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Pamir plateau
(c) Khorat plateau
(d) Katanga plateau
13. Which of the following does not share land boundary with India?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Srilanka
(d) Bhutan
14. Name the deepest lake of the world.
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Baikal
(c) Lake Nyasa
(d) Lake Manzala
15. Rub-al Khali is name of a
(a) Sea
(b) Desert
(c) Mountain
(d) River
16. Which country is known as the country of white elephants?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Thailand
(d) Nigeria
17. What is the name of world’s longest railway platforms which lies in
Asia?
(a) Gorakhpur railway station
(b) Kollam Junction
(c) Kharagpur Railway Station
(d) Kolkata Railway Station
18. Mekong River passes through which country?
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Indonesia
19. Anatolia is a part of
(a) Australia
(b) North America
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
20. Borneo Island is shared by which among the following countries?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Brunei
21. Himalayas are not inhabited by
(a) Bhutan
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) Tajikistan
22. Which among the following Rivers is not in Asia?
(a) Amur
(b) Aldan
(c) Weser
(d) Lena
23. Which are the two countries connected by Karakoram Pass?
(a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China (c) Pakistan and
China(d) India and Nepal
24. Strait between Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
(a) Tsugaru Strait
(b) Soya Strait
(c) Strait Bab-el Mandeb
(d) Strait of Hormuz
25. Which of the following is the largest producer of rubber?
(a) Myanmar
(b) China
(c) Thailand
(d) India
26. Which of the following are correct regarding climate of Asia?

1. The tundra climate , associated with the cold, treeless plains of
the Northern plains of West and Central Asia.
2. The mountain-steppe highland subtropical climate of Arctic
lowlands of Asia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The subtropical monsoon climate is associated with southern
Japan and of south-eastern China.
2. The subequatorial monsoon climate is associated with the
eastern Java.
3. Equatorial climate is associated with the Greater Sunda Islands.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Manchurian plain (1) Forest steppe
(ii) Kazakhstan (2) Steppe
(iii) Eastern China (3) Monsoonal landscape
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3 (b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1 (c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1 (d)
(i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-3
1. In the mountains of eastern Sichuan there grew a rare and
ancient dawn redwood.
2. Palm trees are found throughout North China and northern
South Korea, as well as in the northern parts of Japan.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
30. Mangrove swamps thrive in the sheltered muddy coasts and
deltas in Asia. Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding
vegetation of Asia?
1. Their outermost edges are represented by species of red
mangrove, followed by those of white mangrove.
2. The bogs on the landward edges of those swamps abound with
the semiaquatic nipa palm.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(i) Kyzylkum Desert (1) Uzbekistan
(ii) Karakum Desert (2) Turkmenistan
(iii) Rub’ al-khali (3) Arabian peninsula
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
32. Which of the following is/are correctly paired?
1. Northern region of West Asia-Steppes
2. Western region of West Asia-Mediterranean
3. Middle region of West Asia-Continental climate
(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
33. Which of the following are areas with some of the least-disturbed
ecosystems?
1. Eastern Siberia
2. Northern Siberia
3. Inner Mongolia
4. Mountain ranges of central Asia Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
34. Which of the following is/are reasons for the degradation of Aral
sea basin in middle Asia?
1. Large scale irrigation for cotton cultivation.
2. A toxic mixture of salts and pesticide residue from the dried
seafloor
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. All islands in the Melanesia are in Southern Hemisphere.
2. All islands in the Micronesia are located above Tropic of
Capricon.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Polynesia is made up of more than 1000 islands scattered over
the central and southern Pacific Ocean.
2. New Zealand is part of Polynesia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
River Discharges into
(i) Mekong River (1) Bohai sea
(ii) Amu Darya (2) South China sea
(iii) Yellow River (3) Aral sea
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
38. Which of the following are part of Golden Triangle?
1. Thailand
2. Myanmar
3. Combodia
4. Vietnam
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 3,4 only
(d) 1,4 only
39. Which of the following is a combination of countries that form a
Golden crescent?
(a) Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran
(b) Afghanistan, Pakistan, China
(c) India, Afghanistan, Pakistan
(d) Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan
40. Which of the following are countries said to be of Levant region?
1. Iran
2. Syria
3. Lebanon
4. Palestine
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
41. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Chernozem soils?
1. It is a black-coloured soil containing a high percentage of
humus.
2. It is less fertile soil.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Chernozem soils cover the river valleys of the Tigris-Euphrates.
2. Several islands of Indonesia and southern Philippines contain
new layer of rich basic soils.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Tropical and subtropical soils of Asia are immature and
unproductive.
2. The soils of the middle latitudes are suitable for Agriculture.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Asia has enormous reserves of coal, amounting to nearly three-
fifths of the world’s total.
2. The largest reserves are found in Siberia, the Central Asian
republics, India, and especially China.
3. India has chiefly high-grade coal reserves. Select the correct
option:
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The richest uranium ore fields are found in Kazakhstan.
2. Chinese uranium resources are thought to be in northern
Xinjiang and southern Hunan provinces.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
46. Which of the following are considered as Trucial states?
1. Kuwait
2. Dubai
3. Sharjah
4. Bahrain
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
47. Which of the following are sharing their borders with Red Sea?
1. Yemen
2. Oman
3. Eritrea
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
48. Which of the following is/are landlocked countries of Asia?
1. Armenia
2. Uzbekistan
3. Laos
4. Tajikistan
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
(i) Taklamakan desert (1) Turkmenistan
(ii) Karakum desert (2) China
(iii) Registan desert (3) Afghanistan
(a) (i)-2, b-1, c-3
(b) (i)-3, b-2, c-1
(c) (i)-2, b-3, c-1
(d) (i)-1, b-2, c-3
50. Which of the following are incorrect regarding impact of Himalayas
in Asia?
1. The sheer height of the mountains stop the moisture laden
winds from the Indian Ocean from being sucked into Central
Asia, and ensure the monsoon rains.
2. These mountains also act as a shield and keep away the cold
and freezing winter winds which blow from the Arctic region.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
51. Which of the following countries share border with Afghanistan?

1. Kazakistan
2. Kyrgyztan
3. Tajikistan
4. Uzbekistan
5. Turkmenistan Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 3,4,5
(d) 1,3,5
52. Which of the following climates is/are found in Asia?
1. Hot, wet Equatorial climate
2. Sudan type of climate
3. Hot Desert climate
4. Warm Temperate western margin climate
(a) 1,3 only
(b) 1,3,4 only
(c) 2,4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4
53. Which of the following is/are correct regarding climate of Asia?
1. Maximum summer precipitation and minimum winter
precipitation are the rule in the subequatorial zones.
2. Wet winters and dry summers are typical of the Mediterranean
climatic region in West Asia.
3. In some areas of East Asia, there is uniform precipitation when,
in addition to the summer monsoon, the winter monsoon brings
moisture.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The cold, sharply continental climate of western Siberia.
2. The cold, moderately humid eastern Siberian climate.
3. The humid, subtropical climate associated with the Kolkhida
region.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
55. Which of the following is/are correct vegetation in North Asia?
1. In the Severnaya Zemlya archipelago, off the Arctic coast,
thawing begins in May and frosts begin in August.
2. Tundra extends over large areas of the Chersky, Verkhoyansk,
and Kamchatka mountain ranges.
3. The taiga has a thick and huge growth of cranberries and
bilberries, and there are few peat bogs.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Lake Baikal (1) India
(ii) Lake Balkash (2) China
(iii) Tso Moriri (3) Kazakhstan
(iv) Poyang lake (4) Russia
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
1. About two-thirds of Japan’s total area is forested.
2. The best examples of East Asian forest such as in the Kii
Peninsula is in Japan.
3. Owing to its topography and accessibility of forested areas,
Japan had many possibilities for economic exploitation.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. A significant feature of South Asian vegetation is the family
Dipterocarpaceae.
2. In parts of peninsular India and Southeast Asia moist- and dry-
deciduous forests thrive.
3. In areas with a prolonged dry season and less precipitation,
savanna woodland and thorny thickets of acacias and
euphorbias are the predominant natural vegetation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,2 only
Himalayas Vegetation
(i) Below 3000 meters (1) Junipers
(ii) 3000 to 4000 meters (2) Sal and pine trees
(iii) Above 4000 meters (3) Forests of firs
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Pontic Mountains (1) Iraq
(ii) Elbruz Mountains (2) Iran
(iii) Zagros Mountains (3) Iraq
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Barley (1) China
(ii) Soyabean (2) Japan
(iii) Rice (3) Kazakhstan
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Tundra (1) Forest reindeer
(ii) Taiga (2) Bactrian camel
(iii) The Steppes (3) Wild yak
(iv) The Himalayas (4) Lemmings
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
63. Which of the following is/are islands of Micronesia?
1. Caroline Islands
2. Marshall Islands
3. Solomon Islands
4. Gilbert Islands Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
64. Which of the following is/are islands of Melanesia?
1. Solomon Islands
2. Papua New Guinea
3. Vanuatu
4. Gilbert Islands Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
65. Which of the following is/are islands of Polynesia?
1. Samoa Island
2. Hawaii Island
3. Easter Island
4. Cook Island
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. Anatolia Plateau is located in Turkey.
2. Ustyurt Plateau is located in China.
3. The largest and highest plateau in the world is the Tibetan
Plateau.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Emba River (1) Russia
(ii) Irtysh River (2) Kazakhstan
(iii) Nizhnyaya Tunguska River (3) China
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
1. Most soils of South and Southeast Asia belong to Laterite soils.
2. Large parts of China and Mongolia are covered by Lateritic
soils.
3. Black prairie and chernozem soils can be found in west Asia.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. A good part of the Asian surface of the uplands is too steep for
the formation of Skeletal soils.
2. In northwest China some areas are covered by a thin layer of
wind-blown material called Montane soil.
3. More than 40% of the land surface in Asia is estimated to
contain soils suitable for agriculture.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Shaanxi (1) Natural gas
(ii) Ob River basin (2) Iron ore
(iii) Baku (3) Coal
(iv) Chongqing (4) Oil fields
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(i) Tungsten (1) Transcaucasia
(ii) Manganese (2) Kuznetsk Basin, Siberia
(iii) Lead (3) Kazakhstan
(iv) Bauxite (4) China
Options
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
72. Which of the following are correctly paired?
1. Pass between Afghanistan and Pakistan- Khyber pass
2. Pass between India and China-Nathu La pass
3. Pass between Afghanistan and China- Karambar pass
4. Pass between China and Pakistan-Khunjerab pass
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
73. Match the following Volcanoes with their presence in Asia.
(i) Mount
(1) Andaman Sea
Augung
(ii) Barren
(2) Bali
Island
(iii) Mount (3) Between Java and Yogyakarta
Pinatubo provinces
(iv) Mount
(4) Philippines
Merapi
(a) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
1. The Nine Degree Channel is a channel that separates the
Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the
Bay of Bengal.
2. Armistice Line, is the land border or demarcation line between
North Korea and South Korea.
3. Minicoy is separated from rest of the Lakshadweep by Ten
Degree Channel
4 akshadweep group separated from Maldives by Eight Degree
Channel.
(a) 1,3
(b) 2,4
(c) 1,3
(d) 1,2,3,4
75. Which of the Asian countries are surrounded by Caspian sea?
1. Kazakhstan
2. Uzbekistan
3. Turkmenistan
4. Azerbaijan
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c), (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c)
26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a)
56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c)
Explanations
1. Asia lies between 34.0479° N and 100.6197° E. The Equator,
Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle passes through it.
2. Mount Everest, known in Nepali as Sagarmatha and in Tibetan as
Chomolungma, is Earth’s highest mountain above sea level,
located in the Mahalangur Himal sub-range of the Himalayas.
3. Solution (C): Chukha is the commercial and the financial capital of
Bhutan. With Bhutan’s oldest hydropower plant, Chukha hydel
(completed in 1986-88), and Tala Hydroelectricity Project, the
country’s largest power plant, Chukha is the dzong- khag which
contributes the most to the GDP of the country.
Solution (B): The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates
the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the
Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian
Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
4. Asia is located primarily in the Eastern and Northern Hemispheres.
It shares the continental landmass of Eurasia with the continent of
Europe and the continental landmass of Afro-Eurasia with both
Europe and Africa.
5. The Indian Ocean’s average depth is 12990 feet (3960 metres),
and its deepest point, in the Sunda Deep of the Java Trench off the
southern coast of the island of Java (Indonesia), is 24442 feet
(7450 metres). Indian OceanThe Indian Ocean, with depth
contours and undersea features.
6. The Yangtze River is the longest river in Asia, and the fourth
longest in the world at 3915 miles (6301 km).
7. The Northeast China Plain, also known as the Manchurian Plain,
is located in Northeast China.It lies between the Greater and
Lesser Khingan and Changbai mountains.
8. Dead Sea at an elevation of -1,401 feet below sea level is the
absolute lowest point on the earth. Its surface and coastline border
has Israel to its west and Jordan to its east
9. This is Huangguoshu Waterfall, the largest waterfall in Asia.
Located in the southwestern Chinese province of Guizhou,
Huangguoshu (Yellow Fruit Tree) Waterfall is this poor province’s
pride and joy, its key tourist attraction.
10. Positioned in far-western Asia, just to the east of the Caspian Sea,
the Aral Sea is located in the countries of Kazakhstan and
Uzbekistan
11. The Ural Mountains and the Caucasus Mountains separate
Europe from Asia.
12. Since Victorian times, they have been known as the “Roof of the
World”.
13. In total there are seven countries that India shares its borders with.
In other words it can be said that there are seven neighbouring
countries of India. These countries from east to west are Myanmar,
Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, China, Afghanistan (only official claim,
not on actual grounds) and Pakistan.
14. Lake Baikal in southern Russia is the world’s deepest lake. It is an
estimated 5387 feet deep (1642 meters), and its bottom is
approximately 3893 feet (1187 meters) below sea level. Lake
Baikal is also the world’s largest freshwater lake in terms of
volume.
15. The Rub’al Khali is the sand desert encompassing most of the
southern third of the Arabian Peninsula. The desert covers some
650,000 km2 including parts of Saudi Arabia, Oman, the United
Arab Emirates, and Yemen. It is part of the larger Arabian Desert.
16. Thailand is called the country of white elephants due to the large
population of white elephants found within the country.
17. Longest railway platforms in the World lies in Asia: Gorakhpur
railway station, Uttar Pradesh, India (1366.33 m) (4483 ft.) is the
longest railway platform in world.
18. Mekong River flows through many countries: China, Burma,
Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, and finally Vietnam. The Mekong
begins in the Lasagongma Spring which is in the plateaus of Tibet,
disputed part of China, and flows about 2703 miles (4350 km)
south-east to the South China Sea.
19. Anatolia is also often considered to be synonymous with Asian
Turkey, which comprises almost the entire country; its eastern and
southeastern borders are widely taken to be Turkey’s eastern
border
20. Borneo, a giant, rugged island in Southeast Asia’s Malay
Archipelago, is shared by the Malaysian states of Sabah and
Sarawak, Indonesian Kalimantan and the tiny nation of Brunei. It is
known for its beaches and ancient, biodiverse rainforest, home to
wildlife including orangutans and clouded leopards. In Sabah is
4095m-tall Mount Kinabalu, the island’s highest peak, and,
offshore, the famed dive site Sipadan Island.
21. The Himalayas are inhabited by 52.7 million people, and are
spread across five countries: Bhutan, China, India, Nepal and
Pakistan. The Hindukush range in Afghanistan and Hkakabo Razi
in Myanmar are normally not included, but they are both (with the
addition of Bangladesh) part of the greater Hindu Kush Himalayan
(HKH) river system.
22. The Weser is a river in Northwestern Germany.
23. The Karakoram Pass is a 5,540 m or 18,176 ft mountain pass
between India and China in the Karakoram Range. It is the highest
pass on the ancient caravan route between Leh in Ladakh and
Yarkand in the Tarim Basin. ‘Karakoram’ literally means ‘Black
Gravel’ in Turkic.
24. The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow, strategically important strait
between the Gulf of Oman in the southeast and the Persian Gulf.
On the north coast is Iran and on the south coast is the United
Arab Emirates and Musandam, an exclave of Oman. The strait at
its narrowest is 21 nautical miles (39 km) wide.
25. Thailand is the leading Rubber producing country in the world.
Thailand is followed by Indonesia and China at the second and
third place respectively. India stands at fourth position in Rubber
production.

26. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The tundra climate, associated with
the cold, treeless plains of the Arctic lowlands of Asia.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The mountain-steppe highland
subtropical climate of West and Central Asia.
27. The subtropical monsoon climate is associated with the southern
Japan and of south-eastern China.The subequatorial monsoon
climate is associated with the South Asia, eastern Java, and the
Lesser Sunda Islands, and the equatorial climate is associated
with the Greater Sunda Islands.
28. South of the Siberian forests are found forest-steppes, with forest
galleries lining the rivers. Forest-steppe and meadow-steppe
vegetation is predominant on the Northeast (Manchurian) Plain.
The steppe (grassland) zone runs from Kazakhstan in the west
through the Altai Mountains to the Da Hinggan Range in the east.
Herbaceous cover of feather grass, rootstock grasses, and
sagebrush is utilised for grazing. Farther south discontinuous semi-
desert and desert vegetation predominates. To the east the
steppes stretch toward the southern part of the Ordos Plateau,
forming the transition to the monsoonal landscapes of eastern
China.
29. A variety of conifers of both hemispheres also occurred along
Yangtze river, and in the mountains of eastern Sichuan there grew
a rare and ancient Chinese conifer, the dawn redwood. Palm trees
are found throughout South China and southern South Korea, as
well as in the southern parts of Japan; many varieties of bamboo
also are found in those regions.
30. Mangrove swamps thrive in the sheltered muddy coasts and
deltas. Their outermost edges are represented by species of
Rhizophora (red mangrove), followed by those of Bruguiera and
Avicennia (white mangrove). The bogs on the landward edges of
those swamps abound with the semiaquatic nipa palm.
31. In West Asia, naturally wild vegetation no longer occurs in clearly
defined zones but is dispersed in small areas. The region is
predominantly arid; desertlike depressions such as the Kyzylkum
Desert of Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan, the Karakum Desert of
Turkmenistan, and the Rub’ al-Khali (Empty Quarter) of the
Arabian Peninsula contrast with the moist, forested mountains that
lie between them.
32. Three climatic zones, however, characterise West Asia: a
continental climate in the northern regions; a dry zone, except
where northerly winds bring moisture to the mountains, to the
south; and a Mediterranean climate along the western edges. A
fringe of steppe covers the area between the Fertile Crescent
(which sweeps in an arc from the Tigris-Euphrates valley to the
Mediterranean) and the north and west of the Syrian Desert.
33. Areas with some of the least-disturbed ecosystems occur in
northern and eastern Siberia, the Plateau of Tibet, and the
mountain ranges of Central Asia. By contrast, areas exhibiting
some of the most drastic changes to natural conditions include the
eastern margins of the Thar (Great Indian) Desert in South Asia,
Inner Mongolia and the Ordos region in China—all of which have
been subject to intensive desertification from livestock overgrazing
—and the Aral Sea basin in Middle Asia.
34. Statement 1: CORRECT—The Aral Sea basin is in Middle Asia.
Large-scale irrigation for cotton cultivation reduced the flow of the
Amu Darya and Syr Darya, which feed the sea, and thus severely
reduced its area.
Statement 2: CORRECT—A toxic mixture of salts and pesticide
residue from the dried seafloor has been spread by dust storms
throughout the region.
35. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Most of the Melanesian region is in
the Southern Hemisphere, with a few small northwestern islands of
Western New Guinea in the Northern Hemisphere.
Statement 2: CORRECT
36. Statement 1: CORRECT—Polynesia is a subregion of Oceania,
made up of more than 1000 islands scattered over the central and
southern Pacific Ocean. Statement 2: CORRECT—The largest
country in Polynesia is New Zealand.
(See Figure)
37.
• Mekong River finally discharges into the South China Sea.
• Yellow river originates in the Bayankala Mountains in Western
China at the Qinghai Province. Flowing through nine provinces,
the mouth of the river empties into the Bohai Sea.
• Amu Darya river flowed into the Aral Sea
38. The Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand,
Laos and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and
Mekong rivers. Most of the world’s heroin came from the Golden
Triangle.
39. The Golden Crescent region of South Asia— comprising
Afghanistan, Iran and Pakistan—is a principal global site for opium
production and distribution. Over the past few decades, war,
terrorism, and a shifting political landscape have facilitated an
active heroin trade throughout the region.
40. The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term
referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of
Western Asia. In its narrowest sense, it is equivalent to the
historical region of Syria, which included present-day Syria,
Lebanon, Jordan, Israel and Palestine. In its widest historical
sense, the Levant included all of the Eastern Mediterranean with
its islands, that is, it included all of the countries along the Eastern
Mediterranean shores, extending from Greece to Cyrenaica in
eastern Libya.
41. Chernozem (“black soil”) is a black-coloured soil containing a high
percentage of humus (4 to 16%) and high percentages of
phosphoric acids, phosphorus and ammonia. Chernozem is very
fertile and can produce high agricultural yields with its high
moisture storage capacity. Chernozems are also a Reference Soil
Group of the World Reference Base for Soil Resources (WRB).
42. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Alluvial soils cover the river valleys of
the Tigris-Euphrates, the plains of Indus-Ganga Rivers, the lower
Irrawaddy basin, the deltas of the Mekong and the lower basins of
Chang Jiang, Huanghe Rivers, as well as the river plains of smaller
rivers in India, Malaysia, the Philippines, Taiwan, Korea, and
Japan.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Several islands of Indonesia and
southern Philippines contain active volcanoes that periodically
provide a new layer of rich basic soils of recently deposited
volcanic materials
43. Tropical and subtropical soils are generally immature and
unproductive. The soils of the middle latitudes are themselves
suitable, but lack of water is often a key factor. Only the alluvial
soils of the river plains and the basic soils produced by the
volcanic ejecta are productive soils.
44. Asia has enormous reserves of coal, amounting to nearly three-
fifths of the world’s total, but they are unevenly distributed. The
largest reserves are found in Siberia, the Central Asian republics,
India, and especially China; Indonesia, Japan, and North Korea
have smaller but nevertheless economically important reserves.
China has chiefly high-grade coal reserves. Every province has at
least one coalfield, but the largest reserves are in Shanxi and
Shaanxi in the Ordos River basin in the north. Sichuan, Shandong,
and the Northeast are old coal-producing regions with good
reserves, and a coal-mining area with large deposits has been
developed in central Anhui, north of the Yangtze River (Chang
Jiang).
45. Reserves of uranium ore are found in Asia’s ancient crystalline
rocks. The richest ore fields are found in Kyrgyzstan, between Osh
and Tuya Muyun. China and India have their own deposits.
Chinese uranium resources are thought to be in northern Xinjiang
and southern Hunan provinces.
46. The Trucial States consisted of Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ras al-
Khaimah, Umm al-Qaiwain, Ajman and Fujairah, and from 1931,
also Bahrain. The states had semi-independence, leaving military
defense and foreign politics to the Great Britain.
47. There are six countries-Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan,
Eritrea, and Djibouti bordering the Red Sea.
48. These landlocked countries are Uzbekistan, Armenia,
Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Laos, Mongolia,
Kazakhstan, Nepal, Bhutan, and Azerbaijan.
49.
1. The Taklamakan Desert is located in the Xinjiang Uyghur
Autonomous Region of China. It is surrounded by mountains to
the north, south, and west and the Gobi Desert to the east.
2. The Karakum Desert is located in Central Asia where it covers
nearly 70% of the total area of Turkmenistan. The desert region
is extremely sparsely populated. The desert is rich in oil and
natural gas deposits. A chief attraction here is the Darvaza gas
crater or the “Door to Hell”, a continuously burning crater set on
fire intentionally by geologists to check the spread of methane
gas.
3. The Registan Desert is located in southwestern Afghanistan.
The sandy desert features sandy plains, rocky areas, clay-
covered areas, and small sandy hills. Nomadic tribes inhabit
this desert. Recently, the desert has been observed to migrate
westwards into agricultural areas. This migration has triggered a
crisis situation in the region and displaced communities and
destroyed villages.
50. Statement 1: CORRECT—Geographically, the Himalayas control
the climate and especially the monsoon over the Indian
subcontinent. The sheer height of the mountains stop the moisture
laden winds from the Indian Ocean from being sucked into Central
Asia, and ensure the monsoon rains.
Statement 2: CORRECT—These mountains also act as a shield
and keep away the cold and freezing winter winds which blow from
the Arctic region. They also cause rainfall (rain-shadow area) in the
Northern parts of India, Nepal, etc.

51. The countries which share border with Afghanistan are: Tajikistan,
Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, China, Iran and India.
52. Statement 1: CORRECT—The Hot, wet Equatorial climate can be

found along south-east Asian countries.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The largest areas of savanna (Sudan
type of climate) are found in Africa, South America, Australia,
India, the Myanmar (Burma), Thailand region in Asia, and
Madagascar.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Gobi desert and Turkestan desert are
examples of the Hot desert and mid-latitude deserts can be located
in Asia.
Statement 4: CORRECT—The warm Temperate western margin
climate is also called as Mediterranean climate. Wet winters and
dry summers are typical of the Mediterranean climatic region in
West Asia, where precipitation is associated with the winter activity
of the polar front. That polar-front activity, accompanied by
maximum precipitation, occurs in the spring in the interior parts of
the West Asian highlands. Summer and winter precipitation
merges in some parts of Asia.
53. The distribution pattern of precipitation throughout the year is
varied. Relatively uniform moisture is characteristic of the Asian
equatorial zone. Maximum summer precipitation and minimum
winter precipitation are the rule in the subequatorial zones and in
other regions with monsoon climates, as well as in those areas
where there is summer movement of the fronts—the polar front in
the mountains of southern Siberia and the Arctic front in the
subarctic regions. Wet winters and dry summers are typical of the
Mediterranean climatic region in West Asia, where precipitation is
associated with the winter activity of the polar front. That polar-
front activity, accompanied by maximum precipitation, occurs in the
spring in the interior parts of the West Asian highlands. Summer
and winter precipitation merges in some parts of Asia. In the
Kolkhida area of Georgia east of the Black Sea, the summer rains
—brought by the northwesterly Atlantic air currents—merge with
the cyclonic Mediterranean winter rains. In some areas of Japan,
Korea, and eastern China, there is uniform precipitation when, in
addition to the summer monsoon, the winter monsoon brings
moisture.
54. The tundra climate, associated with the cold, treeless plains of the
Arctic lowlands of Asia. The cold, sharply continental climate of
eastern Siberia, the cold, moderately humid western Siberian
climate, the humid, subtropical climate associated with the
Kolkhida region, the desert climate of the temperate zone.
55. Statement 1: CORRECT—In the Severnaya Zemlya archipelago,
off the Arctic coast, thawing begins in May and frosts begin in
August, although in some years frosts may occur at night
throughout the short summer.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Tundra extends over large areas of the
Chersky, Verkhoyansk, and Kamchatka mountain ranges.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—The taiga has a thin undergrowth of
cranberries and bilberries, and there are numerous extensive peat
bogs.
A peat bog is a type of wetland whose soft, spongy ground is
composed largely of living and decaying Sphagnum moss.
Decayed, compacted moss is known as peat, which can be
harvested to use for fuel or as a soil additive. Peat bogs are found
throughout the world where cool temperatures and adequate
rainfall prevail.
56. Lake Baikal is a rift lake located in southern Siberia, Russia.
Lake Balkhash is one of the largest lakes in Asia and 15th largest
in the world. It is located in Central Asia in southeastern
Kazakhstan
Tso Moriri or Lake Moriri or “Mountain Lake”, is a lake in the
Changthang Plateau (literally: northern plains) in Ladakh in
Northern India.
Poyang Lake located in Jiangxi Province, is the largest freshwater
lake in China.
57. About two-thirds of Japan’s total area is forested, whereas much
of China is deforested (roughly one- seventh of China is under
forest cover); sizable tracts remain untouched, however, in the
remote rugged regions of China, and many small areas have been
reforested. One reason for that difference between the two
countries is the traditional respect the Japanese have had for their
scenery and, consequently, the strict forestry regulations that have
been promulgated and enforced. In addition, the rugged
topography and inaccessibility of many of Japan’s forested areas
have limited the possibilities for economic exploitation. The best
examples of East Asian forest, therefore, are found in Japan, such
as in the Kii Peninsula of Honshu.
58. The wettest parts of peninsular India (such as the Western Ghats)
and of Southeast Asia have magnificent tropical forests noteworthy
for the variety of their plant life. A significant feature of South Asian
vegetation is the family Dipterocarpaceae (yielding aromatic oils
and resins), which is represented there by more than 500 species.
In parts of peninsular India and Southeast Asia that have a
seasonal monsoon climate (with four to eight dry months per year),
moist- and dry-deciduous forests thrive. Many of the tree species,
such as teak, sal, and sandalwood, are highly valuable and are
heavily exploited. In areas with a prolonged dry season and less
precipitation (e.g., north-western India, the interior of the Deccan
plateau, and the ‘dry zone’ of Myanmar [Burma]), savanna
woodland and thorny thickets of acacias and euphorbias are the
predominant natural vegetation. In all of the major climate zones of
South and Southeast Asia, and particularly on the alluvial plains,
much of the natural vegetation has been cleared to make way for
agriculture.
59. In the eastern Himalayas sal is intermingled with Castanopsis (a
small genus of nut-bearing trees) and pines. Above those are
found forests of shrubs and trees of the laurel family and, higher
still, oaks and conifers; between about 10,000 and 13,000 feet
(3000 and 4000 metres), forests of firs occur. The central
Himalayas present strikingly beautiful landscapes in the following
upward succession: dry sal forest; pine forest; cedars, spruces,
pines, and oaks; firs, birches, and tall rhododendrons;
rhododendron bushes and junipers above 13,000 feet (4000
metres); and per-petual snows above 16,000 feet (4900 metres).
60. Pontic Mountains- Turkey
Elbruz Mountains- Iran
Zagros Mountains- Iraq
The Zagros Mountains are a long mountain range in Iran, Iraq and
south-eastern Turkey. So the best option among them is Iraq.
61. The broad band of predominantly wheat, corn (maize), and barley
cultivation across southern Siberia and northern Kazakhstan; a
large belt of wheat, corn, millet, and soybean cultivation across
northern China; and the monsoonal zone of rice cultivation that
stretches from India through Southeast Asia and South China to
the Korean peninsula and Japan. Agricultural landscapes
predominate in those regions, and natural vegetation is confined to
rugged terrain.
62. Since the tundra subsoil is frozen throughout the year, burrowing
animals cannot live there; and, as the tundra is partly free from
snow only during the short summer, conditions for life are poor.
Most animals, including reindeer, Arctic hares, Arctic foxes, and
wolves, live there in summer only and migrate in autumn.
Lemmings, however, stay, feeding on the herbage buried beneath
the snow. Polar bears are occasionally found throughout the year
along the coasts of the Arctic and northern Pacific oceans.
The taiga fauna is much richer than that of the tundra. The
taiga is the haunt of brown bears, wolves and foxes, gluttons (a
kind of wolverine), otters, ermines, sables, lynx, elk, forest
reindeer, hares, and several kinds of squirrels.
The animal life of the steppes differs as much from that of the
taiga as from that of the tundra. It includes many burrowing
rodents, such as jerboas, marmots, and pikas, and larger
mammals, such as numerous antelope. The steppes were the
original home of the northern cattle (Bos taurus), the horse, and
probably the Bactrian (two-humped) camel; few, if any, of those
remain as truly wild animals.
Wild sheep and goats live in the mountains and on the plateau
regions to the north of the Himalayas. Tibet is the home of the wild
yak, which is in great danger of extinction, although the
domesticated yak survives.
63. Micronesia: The region has a tropical marine climate and is part of
the Oceania eco-zone. There are five main archipelagos—the
Caroline Islands, the Gilbert Islands, the Line Islands, the Mariana
Islands, and the Marshall Islands—along with numerous outlying
islands.
64. Melanesia: A subregion of Oceania extending from New Guinea
island in the southwestern Pacific Ocean to the Arafura Sea, and
eastward to Tonga.
The region includes the four independent countries of Vanuatu,
Solomon Islands, Fiji, and Papua New Guinea, as well as the
French special collectivity of New Caledonia, and the Indonesian
region of Western New Guinea.
65. Polynesia is generally defined as the islands within the Polynesian
Triangle, although some islands inhabited by Polynesian people
are situated outside the Polynesian Triangle. Geographically, the
Polynesian Triangle is drawn by connecting the points of Hawaii,
New Zealand, and Easter Island. The other main island groups
located within the Polynesian Triangle are Samoa, Tonga, the
Cook Islands, Tuvalu, Tokelau, Niue, Wallis and Futuna, and
French Polynesia.
66. Statement 1: CORRECT—Anatolia plateau is in Turkey.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The Ustyurt Plateau is a
transboundary clay desert shared by Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan
and Kazakhstan. It is located between the Mangyshlak Peninsula,
Kara-Bogaz-Gol Depression, Aral Sea, and Amudarya.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The largest and highest plateau in the
world is the Tibetan Plateau, sometimes metaphorically described
as the “roof of the world”,
67. The Emba River in west Kazakhstan rises in the Mugodzhar Hills
and flows some 400 miles (640 km) south-west into the Caspian
Sea. Irtysh is a river in Russia, China, and Kazakhstan. It flows
through both Russia and China. So best option among them is “C”
Nizhnyaya Tunguska River is a river in Siberia, Russia, that flows
through the Irkutsk Oblast and the Krasnoyarsk Krai.
68. Statement 1: CORRECT—Soils in the tropical areas are generally
lateritic, having varying degrees of red or black color. The soils are
rich in aluminum and iron oxides, low in silica; are nearly
structureless and generally of low fertility. Most soils of South and
Southeast Asia belong to this category.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Large parts of northern Asia are
covered by podzolic soils of varying, but generally low fertility.
These soils cover the mid-to high-latitude locations in the region of
well- distributed rainfall (in coniferous forest of a taiga forest zone)
from the Urals to Kamchatka. In much of northern China and
Manchuria soils belong to the gray-brown podzolic category.
Statement 3: CORRECT—The grasslands of western Siberia,
Manchuria, and most of Anatolia plateau of Turkey are underlain
by black prairie and chernozem soils which have good texture and
are of generally high fertility.
69. Statement 1: CORRECT—A good part of the Asian surface of the
uplands is too steep for the formation of deep soils. Skeletal soils
are found in such areas, much of which are cropped by shifting
cultivation, in which the cyclical use of land provides periodic
regeneration of plant nutrients.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—In northwest China, some areas are
covered by a thin layer of wind-blown material dating from the
retreat of the ice sheet during the most recent Ice Age. This
material is known by the term loess, and adds considerably to the
natural fertility of the soil and thus to the agricultural productivity of
the area.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Surveying the overall picture of soil
distribution in Asia, it can be concluded that for its size, much of
the continent offers limited opportunities for productive agricultural
land. No more than 20% of the land surface is estimated to contain
soils suitable for agriculture and a good quarter of this percentage
contains soils of marginal value.
70. China has chiefly high-grade coal reserves. Every province has at
least one coalfield, but the largest reserves are in Shanxi and
Shaanxi in the Ordos River basin in the north.
Siberia produces more natural gas than Southwest Asia and is
a significant oil producer as well. The flanks of the Ural Mountains
have a number of large oil fields and small gas fields.
Azerbaijan and the former Soviet republics of Central Asia also
possess large deposits of oil and natural gas. Much of this is
centred in the Caspian basin, particularly in areas claimed by
Azerbaijan. The capital, Baku, has become a new world centre for
oil exploration.
Although China formerly was regarded as deficient in iron ores,
huge quantities of varying grades of ores have been discovered
that are widely distributed and often located close to coal supplies.
Regional centres of ore mining, smelting, and fabrication are
located at Anshan in Liaoning province; near Beijing; in southern
Anhui, west of Shanghai; in central China, east of Wuhan; in
southern Inner Mongolia, north of Baotou; in central western
Gansu; and on Hainan Island, off the southern coast. Large iron
ore deposits also occur near Chongqing. Iron ore in small local
volumes is widely located in Guizhou and Yunnan in the
southwest. China now ranks among the world’s major producers of
iron ore.
71.
• Southern China has exceptionally large deposits of tungsten.
Tungsten reserves in Central Asia also are important, as are
those of molybdenum.
• Manganese is found in abundance, with large reserves in
Transcaucasia, Central Asia, Siberia, and India; Chinese
reserves also are considerable.
• The largest reserves of lead and zinc in Asia are located in the
Kuznetsk Basin of Siberia and in central and eastern
Kazakhstan. China also has abundant deposits of zinc and lead
ores, and North Korea has important lead resources.
• Asia has enormous reserves of bauxite. The largest fields are
located in Kazakhstan and in south-central Siberia in the Sayan
Mountains. There also are large deposits in India, Indonesia,
Turkey, and Malaysia, as well as significant reserves in China.
72.
• Khyber Pass, Khyber also spelled Khaybar, or Khaibar, most
northerly and important of the passes between Afghanistan and
Pakistan. The pass connects Kabul with Peshawar.
• A mountain pass in the Himalayan region which connects India
and China, Nathu La is one of the most visited and popular
passes in India. It is believed to be a branch of the Silk Route,
which was an ancient route made for trading purposes between
countries.
• The Karambar Pass lies about 40 miles (60 km) west of the
Afghan-Chinese border, while to the west the Hindu Kush, strictly
considered, approaches the border between Afghanistan and
Iran without extending into Iranian territory.
• Khunjerab Pass between Pakistan and China. At over 4600m,
Khunjerab Pass is the highest paved border crossing in the world
on the famed Karakoram Highway.
73.
1. Mount Agung or Gunung Agung is a currently active volcano in
Bali, Indonesia, southeast of Mt. Batur volcano, also in Bali.
2. Barren Island is an island located in the Andaman Sea. It is the
only confirmed active volcano in South Asia, and the only active
volcano along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar.
3. Mount Pinatubo is an active stratovolcano in the Zambales
Mountains, located on the tripoint boundary of the Philippine
provinces of Zambales, Tarlac and Pampanga, all in Central
Luzon on the northern island of Luzon.
4. Mount Merapi, Gunung Merapi (literally Fire Mountain in
Indonesian and Javanese), is an active stratovolcano located
on the border between Central Java andYogyakarta provinces,
Indonesia. It is the most active volcano in Indonesia and has
erupted regularly since 1548.
74. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The Ten Degree Channel is a
channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
from each other in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands
together form the Indian Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The Military Demarcation Line (MDL),
sometimes referred to as the Armistice Line, is the land border or
demarcation line between North Korea and South Korea. On either
side of the line is the Korean demilitarised Zone (DMZ). The MDL
and DMZ were established by the Armistice at the end of the
Korean War in 1953.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—Minicoy is separated from rest of the
Lakshadweep by Ten Degree Channel
Statement 4: CORRECT—Lakshadweep group separated from
Maldives by Eight Degree Channel.
75. The five countries Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Russia, Turkmenistan
and Iran share the natural heritage of the Caspian Sea.
6
Geography of Africa
1. Which of the following is longest unbroken mountain range of

Africa?
(a) Atlas Mountains
(b) Drakensberg
(c) Virunga Mountains
(d) East African Rift Mountains
2. Which Great Lake of Africa is largest freshwater lake by volume in
Africa and second largest in World?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Malawi
(c) Lake Turkana
(d) Lake Tanganyika
3. Outflow from Great African Lakes do not drain into:
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Mediterranean Ocean
(d) Red Sea
4. Which of the following is highest peak of Africa?
(a) Mt. Toubkal
(b) Mt. Kenya
(c) Mt. Kibo
(d) Mt. Meru
1. This country has longest coastline on Africa’s mainland.
2. It has a tectonic plate named after it. Identify the country in
Africa based on the information given.
(a) Mozambique
(b) Tanzania
(c) Kenya
(d) Somalia
6. Guardafui Channel is located between sovereign territories of:
(a) Somalia and Yemen
(b) Somalia and Oman
(c) Yemen and Oman
(d) Djibouti and Yemen
7. Strait Bab-el-Mandeb is located between:
(a) Somalia in the Horn of Africa and Yemen on Arabian
Peninsula
(b) Djibouti in the Horn of Africa and Oman on Arabian Peninsula
(c) Djibouti in the Horn of Africa and Yemen on Arabian
Peninsula
(d) Eretria in the Horn of Africa and Oman on Arabian Peninsula
8. Which of the following city is capital of Madagascar?
(a) Lilongwe
(b) Yamoussoukro
(c) Yaounde
(d) Antananarivo
9. The intersection point of Equator and Prime Meridian lies in:
(a) Strait of Gibraltar
(b) Gulf of Guinea
(c) Mozambique channel
(d) Guardafui Channel
10. Straits of Tiran connect which of the following water bodies?
(a) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean
(c) Somali Sea and Gulf of Aqaba
(d) Red Sea and Gulf of Aqaba
1. Israel
2. Libya
3. Tunisia
4. Ethiopia
5. Chad
Egypt shares borders with which of above-mentioned countries?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
12. The most dominant climate system of Africa based on koppen
climate classification is:
(a) Hot desert climate
(b) Hot semi-arid climate
(c) Tropical savanna climate
(d) Tropical monsoon climate
13. Africa is a leading producer of Diamonds. Which of the following
regions of Africa produces most of African diamonds?
(a) Southern and South Eastern Africa
(b) Southern and South-Central Africa
(c) West-Central and East-Central Africa
(d) Central and East-Central Africa
14. Which of the following African river is east flowing?
(a) Ubangi
(b) Orange
(c) Zambezi
(d) Niger
15. Which of the following Ocean Currents does not meet on
coastlines of Africa?
(a) Agulhas and Canary current
(b) Benguela and Mozambique current
(c) Mozambique and Canary current
(d) Canary and Benguela current
16. Zambezi River forms a part border of which of the following
countries?
(a) Namibia and Botswana
(b) Zambia and Zimbabwe
(c) Botswana and Zambia
(d) Both A and B
17. Which of the following is the official dividing point between Indian
Ocean and Atlantic Ocean?
(a) Cape of Good Hope
(b) Cape Horn
(c) South East Cape (d) Cape Agulhas
18. Africa is home to five of the world’s top oil- producing countries.
Which of the following is Africa’s largest oil producer?
(a) Nigeria
(b) Angola
(c) Algeria
(d) Libya
19. Despite of apprehensions of many, Uranium is a key resource in
ensuring India’s energy security in coming few decades. Which
country has largest proven Uranium reserves in Africa?
(a) Niger
(b) Nigeria
(c) Namibia
(d) Algeria
20. India is highly import dependent for Phosphate, the primary ore of
phosphorous which is used in fertilizers for agriculture, and as a
component in pharma industry. Which of the following African
country has highest proven Phosphate reserves?
(a) Algeria
(b) Morocco
(c) South Africa
(d) Egypt
21. With fast changing dynamics of mobility, Electrical Vehicles (EVs)
to become ‘new horses’ for humanity for next few decades. Cobalt
is a key element of EVs’ energy house, the battery. Which of the
following African country is world leader in production of this rare
metal?
(a) Madagascar
(b) Ghana
(c) Central African Republic
(d) Democratic Republic of the Congo
22. Copper belt of Africa spreads over border of which of the following
African countries?
(a) Zambia and DR of Congo
(b) DR of Congo and Central African Republic
(c) DR of Congo and Congo
(d) Zambia and Zimbabwe
23. Which of the following deserts of Africa is a Trade Wind desert?
(a) Namib desert
(b) Kalahari desert
(c) Sahara desert
(d) Both Sahara and Kalahari
24. Which of the following country is world’s highest cocoa producer?
(a) Ghana
(b) Nigeria
(c) Cote d’Ivoire
(d) Cameroon
25. Which of the following pairs of African country and African region
is not correctly matched?
(a) Gabon : Central Africa
(b) Guinea : West Africa
(c) Tunisia: North Africa
(d) eSwatini: West Africa
26. The highest peak of Africa, Mt. Kilimanjaro is in which of the

following range?
(a) Atlas Mountains
(b) Drakensberg
(c) Virunga Mountains
(d) East African Rift Mountains
27. Which of the following are true about Tropical Savannah climatic
zone in Africa?
1. Located between 18° -36° N and S of the Equator
2. Large temperature ranges
3. Prone to droughts and tornadoes Answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Which of the following African country does not touch Thermal
Equator?
(a) DR of Congo
(b) Congo
(c) Tanzania
(d) Uganda
29. Which of the following African country/ies does not lie on Tropic of
Capricorn?
1. Madagascar
2. Mozambique
3. Zambia
4. Zimbabwe
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
30. Consider the following statements regarding Great Lakes of
Africa.
1. Lake Victoria is biggest of all Great lakes by area.
2. Area of Lake Victoria is shared by highest number of countries
of the all Great lakes.
Identify the correct statements. Answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Which of the following African countries are open to Gulf of Aden,
a major shipping route?
1. Ethiopia
2. Djibouti
3. Somalia
4. Eretria
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
32. Which of the following African cities are located on Mediterranean
coast?
1. Alexandria
2. Algiers
3. Cairo
4. Tripoli
5. Port Sudan
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
33. Which of the following African countries are land locked?
1. Ethiopia
2. eSwatini
3. Burkina Faso
4. Mali
5. Zambia
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
34. Nigeria is the largest country in Africa by population. Consider the
following statements regarding Nigeria:
1. Nigeria is the largest economy of Africa
2. It is a land locked country.
3. It shares border with Niger.
Which of the above statements are correct? Choose the right
combination from below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic
Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. It separates which of the
following territories?
(a) British and Spanish Territories from Moroccan Territory
(b) British Territory from Spanish and Moroccan Territories
(c) British and Moroccan Territories from Spanish Territory
36. Which of the following water bodies do not share border with
Africa?
1. Gulf of Aqaba
2. Gulf of Guinea
3. Gulf of Aden
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
37. Consider the following statements regarding Lake Nasser.
1. Lake Nasser is a manmade lake located in Niger.
2. Tropic of Cancer passes through Lake Nasser.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Consider the following statements regarding Lake Assal:
1. Lake Assal is a freshwater lake located in Djibouti.
2. It is the lowest point on continental Africa. Identify the correct
statements. Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements regarding African Continent.
1. It hosts two biogeographic realms which are hosted by India as
well.
2. Indian Subcontinent and African Continent were part of same
supercontinent Gondwanaland.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Namib desert on south west coast of Africa is the only cold
desert of Africa.
2. Namib desert spreads over Angola, Namibia and South Africa
only.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements regarding African Continent:
1. Congo rainforest is the second largest rainforest in the world,
only after Amazon.
2. Rain forest of Africa spreads over three countries, DR of
Congo, Congo and Equatorial Guinea.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Which of the geographical features of Africa are on Atlantic
coast?
1. Drakensberg
2. Atlas Mountains
3. Namib Desert
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Central African Republic is the only doubly land locked country
in Africa.
2. River Congo flows through Central African Republic.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Area of drainage basin of River Congo is as large as area of
India.
2. River Congo runs through capitals of both Congo and DR of
Congo.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Nigeria is the largest country by area in Africa.
2. South Africa is largest country in terms of GDP (nominal).
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. With 56 countries,African Continent has highest number of
countries of all continents.
2. African continent hosts world’s driest nonpolar place.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Which of the following pairs of countries do not share border?
1. Algeria and Chad
2. Niger and Nigeria
3. Sudan and Somalia
4. Mozambique and Botswana Answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
48. Which of the following ocean currents can be found along
coastline of Africa?
1. Humboldt current
2. Agulhas current
3. Benguela current
4. Canary current
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
49. Consider the following African countries:
1. Zambia
2. Zimbabwe
3. Tanzania
4. Kenya
East African Rift transects through which of these countries.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
50. Assertion(A): River Congo is one of the most stable rivers of the
world in terms of total discharge.
Reason(R): A river with basin both sides of equator is
comparatively more immune to seasonal variations of
precipitation.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A

1. River Orange flow through this country.
2. World’s second highest waterfall, Tugela waterfall is in this
country.
3. It is the second largest Economy in Africa. Identify the African
country based on the information given:
(a) Nigeria
(b) Namibia
(c) South Africa
(d) Algeria
52. Which of the following are reasons behind formation of Desert
Climate Zone of Africa?
1. Sub-tropical HP zone
2. West coast and Continental effect
3. Cold Canary current and Cold Benguela current
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Equator passes through which of the following countries of Africa?
1. Gabon
2. Equatorial Guiana
3. Kenya
4. Rwanda
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. It is one of the smallest countries by size in Africa
2. It has the one geographic distinction that Vatican City have.
3. Maseru is the capital of this country.
Identify the African country based on the information given.
(a) Lesotho
(b) Rwanda
(c) Gambia
(d) Benin
1. The Kalahari Desert spreads over Botswana, Namibia, Zambia
and South Africa
2. River Orange flows through Kalahari Desert.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Sahara Desert is the largest hot desert in the world and second
largest desert overall.
2. Every Maghreb country is touched by Sahara Desert.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity of Africa:
1. Africa hosts largest living terrestrial animal.
2. White rhino is endemic to Africa.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following statements regarding Africa:
1. Africa is the only continent through which both tropics and
equator passes.
2. Ethiopian Highlands is called roof of Africa. Identify the correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. Consider the following statements regarding Africa:
1. The African country of Reunion Islands and Indian
Lakshadweep has common geological origin.
2. Ethiopian Highlands were formed by similar geological factors
as Deccan Traps of India.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Identify the countries which lies at western and northern
extremities of continent Africa:
(a) Tunisia and Senegal
(b) Tunisia and Cape Verde
(c) Morocco and Senegal
(d) Tunisia and Cape Verde
61. Consider the following statements regarding the Great Green
Wall:
1. It is flagship initiative of UNCCD to combat the effects of
climatic change and desertification.
2. Once complete, the Great Green Wall will be the largest living
structure on the planet.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Which of the following Ocean Currents touch the boundaries of
African Continent?
1. Benguela current
2. Canary current
3. Gulf stream
4. Mozambique current
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Capital cities of Sudan, South Sudan and Egypt lies on banks
of River Nile.
2. White Nile, which raises in Great African Lakes, is the source
of most of the water of Nile river.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. The extreme points of Suez Canal are:
(a) Port Suez on coast of Mediterranean Sea and Port Said on
coast of Red Sea
(b) Port Suez on coast of Red Sea and Port Said on coast of
Mediterranean Sea
(c) Port Alexandria on coast of Red Sea and Port Said on coast
of Mediterranean Sea
(d) Port Suez on coast of Red Sea and Port Alexandria on Coast
of Mediterranean Sea
65. The Prime Meridian passes through which of the following African
countries?
1. Cote D’ivorie
2. Togo
3. Burkina Faso
4. Mali
5. Mauritania
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
1. Atlas Mountains spread over three different countries:
Morocco, Tunisia, Western Sahara.
2. Mt. Toubkal is highest peak of Atlas Mountains.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. River Congo is third largest river by discharge volume.
2. It is the only major river of the world which crosses equator
twice.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The highest point in Africa, Mount Kilimanjaro is in Kenya.
2. The lowest point in Africa, Lake Asal is in Ethiopia.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It shares boundary of one of the Great African Lakes
2. Its’ capital hosts UN Africa Headquarters.
3. Mombasa is the second largest city of this country.
Identify the African country based on the information given:
(a) Tanzania
(b) Uganda
(c) Mozambique
(d) Kenya
70. Consider the following statements regarding Grate Lakes of
Africa:
1. Equator passes through One of the Great lakes.
2. Victoria Waterfall feeds Victoria Lake. Identify the correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Which of the following is not an African country?
(a) Sao Tome and Principe
(b) Cape Verde
(c) Eswatini
1. It is the only contiguous transcontinental country of Africa.
2. Ninety eight percent of this country’s people live in 3% of its
territory.
(a) Morocco
(b) Egypt
(c) Madagascar
(d) Libya
1. It is highest Legume producing country of Africa on which India
often depends upon to meet domestic pulse demand during
price rise.
2. It is a coastal country with an ocean channel of the same name
adjacent to it.
(a) Mozambique
(b) Egypt
(c) Madagascar
(d) Guinea
1. It is a transition zone between Earth’s one of the most extreme
ecoclimatic zone and a grass land ecosystem.
2. Acacia is the most dominant tree species in this ecoclimatic
zone.
3. River Niger flows through this ecoclimatic zone.
Identify the ecoclimatic zone in Africa based on the information
given:
(a) Sahara
(b) Ethiopian Highlands
(c) Sahel
(d) Swahili
1. It is a coastal ecoclimatic zone in Africa protected by coral
reefs and barrier islands from severe weather.
2. The golden-rumped elephant shrew, an endangered insect-
eating rodent with a long snout, is a dominant species here.
Identify the ecoclimatic zone in Africa based on the information
given:
(a) Sothern Africa
(b) Atlas Mountains
(c) Sahel
(d) Swahili
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a)
66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d)
Explanations
1. Stretching over 1600 miles (2000 km) from Western Sahara
through Morocco and Algeria to Tunisia, the Atlas Mountains are
the longest unbroken range of mountains in Africa and separate
the Atlantic from the Sahara.
2. Lake Tanganyika is the second-oldest freshwater lake in the
world, the second largest by volume, and the second deepest, in
all cases after Lake Baikal in Siberia. It is the world’s longest
freshwater lake. The lake is shared between four countries -
Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Burundi,
and Zambia, with Tanzania (46%) and DRC (40%) possessing
much of the lake. It drains into the Congo River system and
ultimately into the Atlantic Ocean.
3.
• (Lake Tanganyika, Lake Kivu) → River Congo → Atlantic Ocean
• Lake Malawi → River Zambezi (via River Shire) → Indian Ocean
• (Lake Victoria, Lake Albert, Lake Edward) → White Nile →
Mediterranean Ocean
4. Mt. KIbo also called Kilimanjaro is the highest peak of Africa
located in East Africa Rift, Tanzania. It is a dormant volcano.
5. Somalia is located in the Horn of Africa. It is bordered by Ethiopia
to the west, the Gulf of Aden to the north, the Guardafui Channel
and Somali Sea to the east, and Kenya to the southwest. Somalia
has the longest coastline on Africa’s mainland, and its terrain
consists mainly of plateaus, plains and highlands.
6. The Guardafui Channel is an oceanic strait off the tip of the Horn
of Africa that lies between the Puntland region of Somalia and
Socotra, to the west of the Arabian Sea. Socotra is a sovereign
territory of Yemen.
7. The Bab-el-Mandeb (means “Gate of Tears”) is a strait located

between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula, and Djibouti and
Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of
Aden.
8. Madagascar (previously known as the Malagasy Republic) is an

island country in the Indian Ocean, approximately 400 kilometres
off the coast of East Africa. At 592,800 square kilometres,
Madagascar is the world’s second largest island country. Capital
city of Madagascar is Antananarivo.
9. The Gulf of Guinea is the north-eastern most part of the tropical
Atlantic Ocean between Cape Lopez in Gabon, north and west to
Cape Palmas in Liberia. The intersection of the Equator and
Prime Meridian (zero degrees latitude and longitude: 0°0/N 0°0'E)
is in the gulf.
10. The Straits of Tiran are the narrow sea passages between the
Sinai and Arabian Peninsula which separate the Gulf of Aqaba
from the Red Sea. The distance between the two peninsulas is
about 13 km. The body is named after Tiran Island located at its
entrance 5 or 6 km from the Sinai.
11. Egypt shares border with Libya, Sudan, Israel and Palestine
(Gaza strip).
12. Africa is a huge continent with diverse climates and ecosystems.

But Tropical Savanna Climate is most dominant of all.
13. The largest diamond producers in Africa are South Africa, Angola,
Botswana, Namibia and the Democratic Republic of Congo
(DRC). In this southcentral region, diamonds are mined from
kimberlite mines in South Africa, Angola and the DRC, and from
alluvial dredging mining operations in Angola, Namibia and again,
South Africa.
Africa produces roughly 45% of world’s diamonds. Approximately
half of which is produced in Botswana.
14.
• Ubangi: It is a west flowing, largest right bank tributary of Congo;
Flows mostly in CAR (Central African Republic) and DR of
Congo
• Orange: Orange is west flowing river; originates from
Drakensberg in Lesotho and flows through South Africa and
Namibia to meet Atlantic Ocean.
• Zambezi: Longest East flowing river of Africa; Mostly flows in
Zambia, Zimbabwe and Mozambique.
• Niger: Niger is a major west flowing river of Africa; Flows
through Niger, Nigeria, Mali and Gambia; Meets Atlantic Ocean.
15.
16. The Zambezi is the fourth-longest river in Africa, the longest east-
flowing river in Africa and the largest flowing into the Indian Ocean
from Africa. This river arises in Zambia and flows through eastern
Angola, along the north-eastern border of Namibia and the
northern border of Botswana, then along the border between
Zambia and Zimbabwe to Mozambique, where it crosses the
country to empty into the Indian Ocean.
17.
• Cape of Good Hop e: is a rocky headland on the Atlantic coast
of the Cape Peninsula in South Africa. A common
misconception is that the Cape of Good Hope is the southern tip
of Africa. This misconception was based on the misbelief that
the Cape was the dividing point between the Atlantic and Indian
Oceans. Contemporary geographic knowledge instead states
the southernmost point of Africa is Cape Agulhas about 150
kilometres to the east-southeast.
• Cape Horn: Southernmost point in the Tierra del Fuego islands
of South America and the official dividing point between the
Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
• South East Cape: Southernmost point of the main island of
Tasmania, roughly 4° 30' farther south than South Point,
Victoria, the most southern mainland point of Australia, on the
north side of the Bass Strait separating Tasmania from the
southeast Australian mainland
• Cape Agulhas: Southernmost point of Africa and the official
dividing point between the Atlantic and Indian oceans.
18. Nigeria is the largest oil producer in Africa, holds the largest
natural gas reserves on the continent, and was the world’s fourth-
largest exporter of liquefied natural gas.
19. Namibia has fourth highest reserves of Uranium in world only
after Australia, Kazakhstan and Canada. It is world’s fourth largest
producer of Uranium. Nigeria stands next to Namibia in proven
reserves. India has a pact with Namibia for supply of Uranium for
peaceful civilian use.
20. Morocco has 75% of world’s proven phosphate reserves. It is
world’s second largest Phosphate producer with about 13% share
next only to China.
21. Central African country DR of Congo holds worlds’ highest cobalt
reserves and a world leader in cobalt ore production. Owing
Cobalt use in EV’s Lithium ion batteries, economically DR of
Congo is projected to become ‘Saudi Arabia of EV age’. Cobalt is
also widely used in high performance alloys, as a catalyst, as a
pigmenting and colouring agent etc.
22. The Copperbelt is a natural region in Central Africa which sits on

the border region between northern Zambia and the southern
Democratic Republic of Congo. It is known for copper mining.
23. The trade winds in two belts on the equatorial sides of the Horse
Latitudes heat up as they move toward the Equator. These dry
winds dissipate cloud cover, allowing more sunlight to heat the
land. Most of the major deserts of the world lie in areas crossed
by the trade winds. The world’s largest desert, the Sahara of North
Africa, which has experienced temperatures as high as 57°C, is a
trade wind desert.
24. West African country of Ivory Coast (Cote d’Ivoire) is world’s
leading producer of Cocoa with 30% global market share. Ghana
is next position with 20% share.
25. Eswatini, also called as Swaziland is in Southern part of Africa
surrounded by Mozambique and South Africa.

26. The mountains are related to the East African Rift, and are in two
chains, the Western Rift includes the Virunga Mountains, Mitumba
Mountains, and the Rwenzori Range, while the mountains to the
east include the largest peaks in Africa: the snow-covered Mount
Kilimanjaro (5895m, 19,340 ft), and Mount Kenya (5199m, 17058
ft).
27. Tropical Savannah climate in Africa:
• Located between 15° and 20° N & S of the Equator
• Sub-tropical HP over region in winter
• Summer rainfall region prone to droughts and tornadoes
• Large temperature ranges
28. ITCZ, also known as Thermal equator, varies between Tropics. All
other countries above touch ITCZ in some part of year except
Botswana which lies out of that zone.
29.
30. • Lake Victoria is biggest of all Great lakes by area. With a surface
area of approximately 59,947 square kilometres, Lake Victoria is
Africa's largest lake by area, the world's largest tropical lake, and
the world's second largest freshwater lake by surface area after
Lake Superior in North America. The lake's area is divided among
three countries: Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda
• Area of Lake Tanganyika is shared highest number of countries
of the all Great lakes. i.e., Tanzania, Zambia, DR of Congo and
Burundi.
31.
32.
33. There are 17 landlocked countries in Africa: Botswana, Burkina

Faso, Burundi, Central African Republic, Chad, Ethiopia, Lesotho,
Malawi, Mali, Niger, Rwanda, Ethiopia, South Sudan, Swaziland
(eSwatini), Uganda, Zambia, Zimbabwe.
34.
• Nigeria is the largest economy in Africa and 20th largest
economy in world.
• In West Africa, bordering Niger in the north, Chad in the
northeast, Cameroon in the east, and Benin in the west. Its
coast in the south is located on the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic
Ocean. It is not a land locked country and opens to Gulf of
Guinea and shares border with Niger.
35.
• The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the
Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates
Gibraltar (a British Overseas Territory) and Peninsular Spain in
Europe from Morocco in Africa.
• The two continents are separated by 14.3 kilometres (8.9 miles;
7.7 nautical miles) of ocean at the Strait's narrowest point.
36.
• Gulf of Aqaba: Though Gulf of Aqaba separates Egypt’s Sinai
Peninsula from Arabian Peninsula, it cannot be considered to
have border with Africa as Sinai Peninsula is geographically
comes under Asia.
• Gulf of Guinea: Shares border with Gabon, Equatorial Guinea,
Cameron, Nigeria, Benin, Togo, Ghana of Africa
• Gulf of Aden: Shares border with Somalia and Djibouti of Africa
37. Lake Nasser is a vast reservoir in River Nile in southern Egypt
and northern Sudan. It is one of the largest man-made lakes in the
world. Tropic of cancer passer through this lake.
38. Lake Assal is a crater lake in central-western Djibouti. It is located

at the top of the Great Rift Valley, some 120 km west of Djibouti
city. Lake Assal is a saline lake that lies 155 m (509 ft) below sea
level in the Afar Triangle, making it the lowest point on land in
Africa. Lake Assal is the world’s largest salt reserve.
39.
• Africa hosts Afrotropic and Palearctic realms while India hosts
Palearctic and Indomalaya realms.
• Indian Subcontinent and African Continent were part of same
supercontinent Gondwanaland till about 550 million years ago.
40.
• The Namib is a cool coastal desert in southern Africa. Namib
stretches for more than 2000 kilometres along the Atlantic
coasts of Angola, Namibia, and South Africa, extending
southward from the Carunjamba River in Angola, through
Namibia and to the Olifants River in Western Cape, South
Africa.
• The Welwitschia plant is considered a living fossil is endemic to
Namib Desert.
41.
• The Congo rainforest is the second largest in the world and
covers a total area of 1,780,000 km. It is found in Central Africa
and also has one of the longest rivers running from within it.
• Congo rainforest: Cameroon, the Central African Republic, the
Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC),
Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon.
• The Congo rainforest is also widely recognised for its high levels
of biodiversity, characterised with more than 600 tree species
and 10,000 animal species. Some of its most famous residents
include forest elephants, gorillas, chimpanzees, okapi, and lions.
42.
• Drakensberg: Literally means Dragon Mountains; Easter part of
the Great Escapement on Indian Ocean Coast; Spreads over
South Africa and Lesotho.
• Atlas Mountains: Mountain range in Maghreb spreading over
Morroco,Algeria, Tunisia; Located along Atlantic and
Mediterranean Coast.
• Namib Desert: Spreads over Namibia, South Africa and Angloa
along Atlantic Coast.
43.
• A doubly land locked country is which can not reached from
sea/ocean without crossing at least two sovereign countries.
Central African Republic is not a doubly land locked country in
Africa. Only Liechtenstein and Uzbekistan are doubly
landlocked.
• River Congo, though drains large parts of Central African
Republic through its tributaries, do not flow through CAR.
44.
• The Congo's drainage basin covers 4,014,500 square
kilometres, an area larger than India.
• The river and its tributaries flow through the Congo Rainforest,
the second largest rain forest area in the world, second only to
the Amazon Rainforest in South America. The river also has the
second-largest flow in the world, behind the Amazon; the third-
largest drainage basin of any river, behind the Amazon and
Plate rivers; and is one of the deepest rivers in the world, at
depths greater than 220 m.
45.
• Algeria is the largest country by area in Africa. Second largest is
DR of Congo; Indian Ocean island country of Seychelles
smallest both in terms of area and population.
• Nigeria is largest African country by GDP (nominal), which also
largest country by population. South Africa is second largest.
46.
• There are 54 countries in Africa, excluding inter nationally partly
recognised Somaliland. Africa has world’s highest number of
countries.
• World’s driest non-polar place is McMurdo Dry valleys located in
Desert Atacama of South America.
47. Out of the given countries, only Niger and Nigeria share border.
48.
• Humboldt current: A cold current which flows towards north in
southern hemisphere along west coast of South America.
• Agulhas Current: A warm current which flows towards south
along East African coast.
• Benguela current: A Cold Current in southern hemisphere and
flows north along South African coast.
• Canary Current: A Cold Current in northern hemisphere and
flows south along North West African coast.
49. The EAR runs from the Afar Triple Junction in the Afar Triangle of
Ethiopia through eastern Africa, terminating in Mozambique. The
EAR transects through Ethiopia, Kenya, Uganda, Rwanda,
Burundi, Zambia, Tanzania, Malawi and Mozambique.
50. River Congo drains most of Congo, DR of Congo, Gabon, CAR,
and some parts of Angola and Cameron. It is the only major river
to cross the equator twice. Because its drainage basin includes
areas both north and south of the equator, its flow is stable, as
there is always at least one part of the river experiencing a rainy
season. (See Figure)
51. Tugela waterfall is formed by Orange River in Drakensberg range
of South Africa. South Africa is second largest economy in African
Continent after Nigeria
52.
• Sub-tropical HP zone → Subsiding air → Warm and dry → Less
cloud formation and rain
• West coast and Continental effect → Offshore areas of trade
wind and falling under the rain shadow area → scanty rain fall
• Cold Canary Current and Cold Benguela Current → stable air
over coasts → less cloud formation and rain fall
53. The equator passes through 13 countries of Africa: Ecuador,
Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the
Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya,
Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.
54. Three nations qualify as completely surrounded by another

country’s land and/or internal waters:
• The Republic of San Marino, enclaved within Italy
• Vatican City, enclaved within the city of Rome, Italy
• The Kingdom of Lesotho, enclaved within South Africa
55. The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy savanna in

Southern Africa extending for 900,000 square kilometres (350,000
sq mi), covering much of Botswana, parts of Namibia and regions
of South Africa. River Orange flows through this desert.
56.
• Sahara Desert is the largest hot desert in the world and third
largest desert overall.
• Every Maghreb country is touched by Sahara Desert.
57.
• Africa hosts largest living terrestrial animal: African Bush
Elephant
• White-rhino, which is in IUCN Near Threatened category, is
endemic to Africa.
58.
• The Ethiopian Highlands is a rugged mass of mountains in
Ethiopia, situated in the Horn region in northeast Africa. It forms
the largest continuous area of its elevation in the continent, with
little of its surface falling below 1500 m (4900 ft), while the
summits reach heights of up to 4550 m (14930 ft). It is
sometimes called the Roof of Africa due to its height and large
area.
• Africa is the only continent through which both tropics and
equator passes through.
59. The African country of Reunion Islands and Indian Lakshadweep
has common geological origin: Both were formed due to Reunion
Hotspot Volcanism. Ethiopian Highland was formed due to rift,
while Deccan Traps of India was due to hotpot volcanism.
60.
• Santo Antao in Cape Verde is the westernmost point of the
continent.
• The northernmost point of the Continent is Îles des Chiens,
Tunisia. The island is located in the Mediterranean Ocean.
61.
• The Great Green Wall is an African-led movement being
implemented by African Union with an epic ambition to grow an
8000 km natural wonder of the world across the entire width of
Africa.
• Once complete, the Great Green Wall will be the largest living
structure on the planet, three times the size of the Great Barrier
Reef.
62. See figure
63. • Capital cities of Sudan (Khartoum), South Sudan (Juba) and
Egypt (Cairo) lies on banks of River Nile.
• Though White Nile raises in Great African Lakes, Blue Nile,
which originates from Lake Tana is the source of most of the
water of Nile river.
64. Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt,
connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the
Isthmus of Suez. The canal offers watercraft a shorter journey
between the North Atlantic and northern Indian Oceans via the
Mediterranean and Red seas by avoiding the South Atlantic and
southern Indian oceans, in turn reducing the journey by
approximately 7000 kilometres. It extends from the northern
terminus of Port Said to the southern terminus of Port Tewfik at
the city of Suez.
65. The Prime Meridian passes through Algeria, Mali, Burkina Faso,
Togo and Ghana in Africa.
66.
• Atlas Mountains spread over three different countries: Morocco,
Algeria, Tunisia.
• Mt. Toubkal is highest peak of Atlas Mountains.
67.
• The Congo River, formerly known as the Zaire River under the
Mobutu regime, is the second longest river in Africa, shorter only
than the Nile, as well as the second largest river in the world by
discharge volume, following only the Amazon.
• It is the only major river to cross the equator twice.
68. The highest point in Africa is Mount Kilimanjaro, 5891.8 m (19,330
ft) in Tanzania. The lowest point is Lake Asal, 153 m (502 ft)
below sea level, in Djibouti.
69.
• Kenya lies on boundary of Lake Victoria
• Its capital hosts UN Africa Headquarters: Nairobi hosts UNEP
HQ and UN Africa Regional HQ
• Mombasa is the second largest city of Kenya.
70.
• Equator passes through Victoria Lake, one of the Great lakes
shared by Kenya, Uganda and Tanzania.
• Victoria Waterfall is formed by River Zambezi near border
between Zambia and Zimbabwe. River Kagera feeds Victoria
Lake and White Nile is primary outflow. White Nile is called as
Victoria Nile because of this.
71. All three are African Countries
• Sao Tome and Principe: Island country located in Gulf of Guinea
off western equatorial coast of Central Africa.
• Cape Verde: Cap-Vert or the Cape Verde Peninsula is a
peninsula in Senegal, and the westernmost point of the
continent of Africa.
• Eswatini: A landlocked country in Southern Africa. It is bordered
by Mozambique to its northeast and South Africa to its north,
west, and south.
72.
• Arab Republic of Egypt is a country in the north east corner of
Africa, whose territory in the Sinai Peninsula extends beyond the
continental boundary with Asia.
• Due to the extreme aridity of Egypt's climate, population centres
are concentrated along the narrow Nile Valley and Delta,
meaning that about 99% of the population uses about 5.5% of
the total land area. Ninety eight percent of Egyptians live on 3%
of the territory.
73. It is highest Legume producing country of Africa on which India
often depends upon to meet domestic pulse demand during price
rise.
Maputo is capital of Mozambique.
It is a coastal country with an ocean channel of the same name
adjacent to it.
74.
• The Sahel is a narrow band of semi-arid land that forms a
transition zone between the Sahara to the north and the
savannas to the south. It is made up of flat, barren plains that
stretch roughly 5400 kilometres (3300 miles) across Africa, from
Senegal to Sudan.
• The Sahel contains the fertile delta of the Niger, one of Africa’s
longest rivers. Unfortunately, the Sahel’s fertile land is rapidly
becoming desert as a result of drought, deforestation, and
intensive agriculture.
• Acacia, whose deep root systems are ideal for semi-arid
climates, are among the most common trees found in the Sahel.
75. The Swahili Coast stretches about 1610 kilometres along the
Indian Ocean, from Somalia to Mozambique. The nearby coral
reefs and barrier islands protect the coast from severe weather.
There is not a lot of animal life on the sandy Swahili Coast. The
golden-rumped elephant shrew, an insect- eating rodent with a
long snout, is common.
7
Geography of Europe
1. Which of the following is longest unbroken mountain range which

is completely with in Europe?
(a) Ural Mountains
(b) Caucasus Mountains
(c) Alps
(d) Scandinavian mountains
2. Which of the following lake is Europe’s largest lake in area?
(a) Lake Ladoga
(b) Lake Onega
(c) Lake Saimaa
(d) Lake Vanern
3. Which of the following continent is called ‘Peninsula of
Peninsulas’?
(a) Asia
(b) Australia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
4. Which of the following is the highest peak of Europe?
(a) Mt. Rosa
(b) Mt. Kazbek
(c) Mt. Elbrus
(d) Mt. Blanc
5. Northern most point of continental Europe is in which of the
following country?
(a) Russia
(b) Norway
(c) Sweden
(d) Iceland
6. Strait of Dover is located between:
(a) UK and France
(b) UK and Belgium
(c) Denmark and Sweden
(d) Denmark and Norway
7. Strait of Dover connects:
(a) Celtic Sea and North Sea
(b) Celtic Sea and Bay of Biscay
(c) North Sea and Bay of Biscay
(d) Irish Sea and North Sea
8. Which of the following European country is correctly matched with
its capital?
(a) Lithuania: Vilnius (b) Estonia: Riga
(c) Latvia: Tallinn (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. Andorra shares territorial border with:
(a) Switzerland and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Germany and Austria
(d) France and Spain
10. Bosporus Strait connects which of the following water bodies?
(a) Black Sea and Sea of Azov
(b) Sea of Marmara and Black Sea
(c) Sea of Azov and Sea of Marmara
(d) Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara
1. Poland
2. Austria
3. Switzerland
4. Italy
5. Belgium
Germany shares borders with which of abovementioned countries?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (d)
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
12. The most dominant climate system of Western Europe based on
Koppen Climate Classification is:
(a) Continental Climate
(b) Mediterranean Climate
(c) Oceanic Climate
(d) Polar Climate
13. Which of the following climate has least presence in Europe?
(a) Arid, desert, cold
(b) Arid, desert, hot
(c) Temperate, no dry season, warm
(d) Temperate, no dry season, warm
14. Which of the following is Europe’s longest river?
(a) Danube
(b) Dnieper
(c) Volga
(d) Rhine
15. Strait of Dardanelles connects:
(a) Aegean Sea and Sea of Marmara
(b) Sea of Marmara and Sea of Azov
(c) Black Sea and Sea of Azov
(d) Aegean Sea and Mediterranean Sea
16. Pyrenees Mountains forms border between which of the following
countries?
(a) France and Germany
(b) France and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy
(d) France and Spain
17. Which of the following European country does not experience
Mediterranean climate?
(a) Italy
(b) Albania
(c) Portugal
(d) Germany
18. The Island mass of Corsica is under sovereign control of which of
the following European nation?
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) Spain
19. Which of the following city of Europe is largest by population?
(a) Berlin
(b) London
(c) Istanbul
(d) Moscow
20. Which of the following country does not share border with
Switzerland?
(a) Austria
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) Netherlands
21. The port city of Rotterdam is located on cost of which of the
following water body?
(a) Celtic Sea
(b) North Sea
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) English Channel
22. Which of the following European country was not correctly
matched with its capital?
(a) North Macedonia: Skopje
(b) Moldova: Chisinau
(c) Slovenia: Bratislava
(d) Serbia: Belgrade
23. Jutland Peninsula is located in which part of Europe?
(a) Northern Europe (b) Southern Europe (c) Southwest Europe
(d) Southeast Europe
24. European Island nation of Malta, located in Mediterranean Sea, is
closest to which of the following mainland country?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Greece
(d) Spain
25. Which of the following country is not on Balkan peninsula?
(a) Bulgaria
(b) Albania
(c) Montenegro
(d) Czech Republic
26. Consider the following statements regarding Danube river.

1. It is the longest river of Continental Europe.
2. It originates in Black Forest, Germany and drains into Black
Sea on coast of Bulgaria.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. Which of the following are true about European Continent climate
classification?
1. Far southern Europe has a Mediterranean climate with warmer
to hot summers, less annual rainfall, and frequent sunny skies.
2. Climate of southern Europe is strongly conditioned by Gulf
Stream.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Which of the following statement is true about European
Continent?
1. Sun would never be directly above on any part of European
continent.
2. Blessed with mostly temperate climate, Europe has no Desert
and Arid climatic regions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which of the following European country does not touch Arctic
circle?
1. Finland
2. Norway
3. Sweden
4. Netherlands
5. Estonia
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
1. North Sea, one of the Europe’s highest oil producing regions is
part of Arctic Ocean.
2. Brent Crude, the popular petroleum market reference is drawn
from this region.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Which of the following European countries are open to Aegean
Sea?
1. Greece
2. Cyprus
3. Turkey
4. Albania
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
32. Which of the following European cities are located on
Mediterranean coast?
1. Barcelona
2. Rome
3. Zagreb
4. Athens
5. Madrid
Choose correct combination using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
33. Which of the following European countries are land locked?
1. Austria
2. Switzerland
3. Croatia
4. Monaco
5. Serbia
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
34. Germany is the largest country in Europe by population (for the
countries which are entirely within Europe). Consider the following
statements regarding Germany:
1. Germany is the largest economy of Europe.
2. Germany is a land locked country.
3. It shares border with Czech Republic.
Which of the above statements are correct? Choose the right
combination from below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic
Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. It separates which of the
following territories?
(a) British and Spanish Territories from Moroccan Territory
(b) British Territory from Spanish and Moroccan Territories
(c) British and Moroccan Territories from Spanish Territory
(d) None of the above.
36. Which of the following water bodies do not share border with
Europe?
1. Caspian Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Aral Sea
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
37. Consider the following statements regarding Baltic Sea:
1. A part of Baltic sea lies in Arctic circle.
2. Germany shares border with this water body. Identify the
correct statements. Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Consider the following statements regarding Gulf of Finland:
1. It is northern most arm of Baltic Sea.
2. The capital city of Latvia, Riga lies on shore of it.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements regarding continent of Europe:
1. It hosts two biogeographic realms which are hosted by India as
well.
2. Indian Subcontinent and European Continent were part of same
supercontinent Gondwanaland.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Europe is called Peninsula of Peninsulas. Consider the following
statements regarding peninsulas of Europe.
1. Iberian Peninsula, which hosts Spain and Portugal, is the
largest peninsula of Europe.
2. Balkan Peninsula is largest in terms of population.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements regarding Continent of Europe:
1. Owing to its location far away from equator, there is no
rainforest in Europe.
2. Nordic country of Norway is completely with in tundra and taiga
biomes.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Which of the geographical features of Europe are on Atlantic
coast?
1. Kola Peninsula
2. Scandinavian Highlands
3. Island of Iceland
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Liechtenstein is the only doubly land locked country in world.
2. Liechtenstein is surrounded by Austria and Switzerland.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Gulf of Bothnia is the Northern most arm of Baltic Sea.
2. Finland, Sweden and Estonia borders Gulf of Bothnia.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Ukraine is larger than Germany in area.
2. Germany is larger than Ukraine in population.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. With 51 countries, Europe has highest number of countries of
all continents.
2. Some part of sovereign territory of Kazakhstan lies in Europe.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Which of the following pairs of European countries do not share
border?
1. Hungary and Poland
2. Romania and Croatia
3. Greece and Albania
4. Switzerland and Austria Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
48. Which of the following ocean currents can be found along
coastline of Europe?
1. North Atlantic drift
2. Labrador current
3. North Equatorial current
4. Agulhas current
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
49. Consider the following European countries:
1. Slovakia
2. Croatia
3. Bulgaria
4. Ukrain
River Danube passes through or borders which of these countries.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
50. Assertion(A): Norwegian coast, despite being at same latitude as
that of northern Russia, stays ice free for most of the year.
Reason(R): Warm ocean current raises the temperature of the
coastal zones at higher latitudes that it flows along.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
51. Consider the following.

1. The Prime Meridian passes through this mountain range.
2. This mountain range forms border between two European
countries.
3. There is a European microstate completely embedded in this
mountain range.
52. When you are travelling from Moscow to Madrid, the least number
of countries you need to cross including the source country and the
destination country are
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
53. Prime meridian passes through which of the following countries of
Europe?
1. France
2. Belgium
3. Spain
4. Portugal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
1. It is one of the smallest countries by size in Europe
2. It has the one geographic distinction that Vatican City have.
3. Italian is official language of this country Identify the African
country based on the information given:
(a) Liechtenstein
(b) Monaco
(c) Andorra
(d) San Mario
1. Adriatic Sea separates Italian Peninsula from Iberian Peninsula.
2. Ionian Sea connects Adriatic to rest of Mediterranean.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Consider the following statements regarding Black Sea:
1. Europe’s longest river drains into black sea.
2. The European country with Sofia as capital shares border with
Black Sea.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity of Africa:
1. There are no global biodiversity hotspots in Europe.
2. All big cats of Europe are extinct in wild. Identify the correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following statements regarding Europe:
1. Europe is the only continent through which neither tropics nor
the equator passes.
2. Stromboli, Europe’s last erupted major volcano is in Iceland.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Corsica
2. Sardinia
3. Sicily
The above-mentioned islands are located in which of the following
marginal sea of Mediterranean?
(a) Tyrrheanian Sea
(b) Adriatic Sea
(c) Aegean Sea
(d) Ionian Sea
60. Identify the countries which lies at western and southern
extremities of continental Europe.
(a) Spain and Portugal
(b) Spain and Greece
(c) Portugal and Greece
(d) Portugal and Spain
61. Consider the following water bodies in and around Europe:
1. Kara Sea
2. White Sea
3. Barents Sea
4. Caspian Sea
Find the correct combination of these in East to West order of
occurrence.
(a) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
(b) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(c) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
(d) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
1. A landform created by glacial erosion is very common along the
coasts of this country.
2. India’s Arctic research centre is located on territory of this
country.
Identify the European country based the information given above.
(a) Sweden
(b) Denmark
(c) Russia
(d) Norway
1. Denmark
2. Sweden
3. Finland
4. Estonia
5. Latvia
Capital cities of which of the above countries do not lie on coast of
Baltic sea? Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 5 only (d) None of the
above
64. Which of the following port cities are not correctly matched with
the corresponding countries?
1. Port of Antwerp : France
2. Port of Hamburg : Germany
3. Port of Rotterdam : Denmark
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
65. Consider the following countries:
1. Czech Republic
2. Greece
3. Croatia
4. Hungary
5. North Macedonia
Arrange the countries from north to south. Answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 3 - 1 - 4 - 5 - 2
(b) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5 - 2
(c) 1 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 2
(d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 - 5
1. Continental Europe completely lies in Eastern Hemisphere.
2. No European country is completely within Arctic circle.
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Which of the following countries are not referred as Nordic
countries?
1. Iceland
2. Denmark
3. Netherlands
4. Finland
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
68. Which of the following island - country combination is correctly
matched?
1. Capri - Italy
2. Crete - Greece
3. Ibzia - France
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
1. It is one of the micronations of Europe.
2. It hosts headquarters of International Hydrographic
Organisation.
3. It opens to Mediterranean Sea.
Identify the European country based on the information given:
(a) San Mario
(b) Lichtenstein
(c) Andorra
(d) Monaco
1. It is one of the ‘low countries’ of Europe.
2. It is world’s one of the largest diamond trade centre.
below:
(a) Luxemburg
(b) Denmark
(c) Belgium
(d) Netherlands
1. Sea of Azov is enclosed by Turkey and Russia.
2. Balearic sea shares border with Spain.
Which of these statements are incorrect? Answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which of the following countries are referred as Alpine countries?
1. Slovenia
2. France
3. Italy
4. Austria
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Ural River
2. Ural Mountains
3. Caucasian Mountains
Asia and Europe are part of same continental plate but still often
referred as two different continents. Which of the above-mentioned
geographical features are considered as transcontinental with
Europe and Asia?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Caucasus mountains spread between Caspian Sea and Aral
Sea.
2. Apennines spread between Ligurian Sea and Gulf of Venice.
Which of these statements are correct? Answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Arrange the following European islands from north to south:
1. Sicily
2. Cyprus
3. Corsica
4. Sardinia
Choose the right answer from below:
(a) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2
(b) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2
(c) 3 - 1 - 4 - 2
(d) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a)
Explanations
1.
• Ural Mountains: Longest among the listed ranges 2,500 km) but
not completely within Europe; Traditional boundary of Europe
and Asia runs from coast of Arctic Ocean to River Ural and north-
western Kazakhstan.
• Caucasus Mountains: The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain
system at the intersection of Europe and Asia. Stretching
between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea, it surrounds the
eponymous Caucasus region and is home to Mount Elbrus, the
highest peak in Europe.
• Alps: The Alps are the highest and most extensive mountain
range system that lies entirely in Europe and stretching
approximately 1,200 kilometres across eight Alpine countries:
France, Switzerland, Monaco, Italy, Liechtenstein, Austria,
Germany, and Slovenia.
• Scandinavian mountains: The Scandinavian Mountains or the
Scandes is a mountain range that runs through the Scandinavian
Peninsula. Stretching at 1,700 km, it is longest mountain range of
Europe.
2.
• Lake Ladoga: Europe’s largest lake located in north-western
Russia.
• Lake Onega: Lake Onega is a lake in the northwest European
part of Russia; belongs to the basin of the Baltic Sea, Atlantic
Ocean; second largest lake in Europe after Lake Ladoga.
• Lake Saimaa: Saimaa is a lake in south-eastern Finland; It is the
largest lake in Finland, and the fourth largest natural freshwater
lake in Europe; formed by glacial melting at the end of the Ice
Age.
• Lake Vanern: Vanern is the largest lake in Sweden, the largest
lake in the European Union.
3. Europe is called peninsula of peninsulas to draw attention to the
fact that Europe is a relatively small, elongated appendage to Asia,
and that a large part of Europe is made up of peninsulas.
4.
• Mt. Rosa: The Dufourspitze is the highest peak of Monte Rosa, a
huge ice-covered mountain massif in the Alps; located in
Switzerland.
• Mt. Kazbek: Mount Kazbegi is a dormant stratovolcano and one
of the major mountains of the Caucasus located on the border of
Georgia and Russian Republic of North Ossetia-Alania. i.e not in
Europe.
• Mt. Elbrus: Mount Elbrus is a dormant volcano in the Caucasus
Mountains in Southern Russia, near the border with Georgia. It
can be considered the highest mountain in Europe, considering
that the Caucasus mountains are at the intersection of Europe
and Asia.
• Mt. Blanc: Mont Blanc is the highest mountain in the Alps and the
highest in Europe. It lies in the west of the Caucasus peaks of
Russia and Georgia.
5. Cape Nordkinn is the northernmost point of Norway. It is notable
for being the northernmost point of mainland Norway, and by
extension the northernmost point of mainland Europe.
6. The Strait of Dover or Dover Strait, historically known as the Dover
Narrows, is the strait at the narrowest part of the English Channel,
marking the boundary between the Channel and North Sea,
separating Great Britain from continental Europe.
7. The English Channel, also called simply the Channel, is an arm of
the Atlantic Ocean that separates Southern England from northern
France and links to the southern part of the North Sea by the Strait
of Dover at its northeastern end at Celtic Sea.

• Lithuania: Vilnius
• Estonia: Tallinn
• Latvia: Riga
9. Andorra is a sovereign landlocked microstate on the Iberian
Peninsula, in the eastern Pyrenees, bordered by France to the
north and Spain to the south. It is one of the six microstates of
Europe.
10. Bosporus Strait is a narrow, natural strait and an internationally
significant waterway located in northwestern Turkey. It forms part
of the continental boundary between Europe and Asia, and divides
Turkey by separating Anatolia from Thrace. It is the world’s
narrowest strait used for international navigation; the Bosporus
connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara.
11. Germany borders Denmark to the North, Poland and the Czech
Republic to the East, Austria and Switzerland to the South, France
to the southwest, and Luxembourg, Belgium, and the Netherlands
to the west.
12. Most of Western Europe has an Oceanic climate, in the Koppen

climate classification. Oceanic climates normally feature cool
summers, cool winters, and frequent overcast skies in fall, winter,
and early spring.
13.
14. River Volga is the longest river in Europe with a catchment area of
1,350,000 square kilometres. It is also Europe’s largest river in
terms of discharge and drainage basin. The river flows through
central Russia and into the Caspian Sea, and is widely regarded
as the national river of Russia. Eleven of the twenty largest cities of
Russia, including the capital, Moscow, are located in the Volga’s
drainage basin.
15. The Dardanelles is a narrow, natural strait and internationally
significant waterway in northwestern Turkey that forms part of the
continental boundary between Europe and Asia, and separates
Asian Turkey from European Turkey. One of the world’s narrowest
straits used for international navigation, the Dardanelles connects
the Sea of Marmara with the Aegean and Mediterranean Seas,
while also allowing passage to the Black Sea by extension via the
Bosphorus.
16. The Pyrenees is a range of mountains in southwest Europe that
forms a natural border between Spain and France; it completely
engulfs the micro nation of Andorra.
17. In addition to the Mediterranean Basin, the climate is also found in
most of California in the United States, in parts of Western and
South Australia, in southwestern South Africa, sections of Western
and Central Asia, and in Central Chile. Germany does not
experience Mediterranean climate.
18. Corsica is an island in the Mediterranean Sea and one of the 18

regions of France. It is located southeast of the French mainland
and west of the Italian Peninsula, with the nearest land mass being
the Italian island of Sardinia to the immediate south.
19. The largest city in Europe is Istanbul, Turkey, with a population of
14.7 million people.
20. Switzerland is a landlocked country bordered by Italy to the south,
France to the west, Germany to the north, and Austria and
Liechtenstein to the east.
21. The Port of Rotterdam is the largest port in Europe, located in the
city of Rotterdam, Netherlands. It is open to North Sea, a marginal
sea in Atlantic Ocean.
• North Macedonia: Skopje
• Moldova: Chisinau
• Slovenia: Ljubljana; Bratislava is capital city of Slovakia
• Serbia: Belgrade
23. Jutland, anciently known as the Cimbric or Cimbrian Peninsula, is
a peninsula of Northern Europe that forms the continental portion
of Denmark and part of northern Germany.
24. Southern European island country of Malta consists of an
archipelago in the Mediterranean Sea. It lies 80 km south of Italy,
284 km east of Tunisia, and 333 km north of Libya.
25. The Balkan Peninsula is bounded by the Adriatic Sea to the west,
the Mediterranean Sea (including the Ionian and Aegean seas)
and the Marmara Sea to the south and the Black Sea to the east
The following countries are on Balkan Peninsula: Entirely within
the Balkan peninsula:
• Albania
• Bosnia and Herzegovina
• Bulgaria
• Kosovo
• Montenegro
• North Macedonia
Mostly or partially within the Balkan peninsula:
• Croatia (southern mainland)
• Greece (mainland)
• Italy (Trieste and Monfalcone)
• Romania (mainland Dobruja)
• Serbia (Central Serbia)
• Slovenia (southwestern part)
• Turkey (European part)

26.
• River Volga is Europe’s longest river. Danube is second longest.
• Originating in Germany, the Danube flows southeast for 2850
km, passing through or bordering Austria, Slovakia, Hungary,
Croatia, Serbia, Romania, Bulgaria, Moldova and Ukraine before
draining into the Black Sea. Its drainage basin extends into nine
more countries. It forms delta on Romanian Black Sea coast.
27.
• Far southern Europe has a Mediterranean climate, which
features warmer to hot summers, less annual rainfall, and
frequent sunny skies.
• The climate of western Europe is strongly conditioned by the Gulf
Stream, which keeps mild air (for the latitude) over North-western
Europe in the winter months, especially in Ireland, the UK and
coastal Norway.
28.
• Sun would never be directly above on any part of European
continent as position of sun varies between Tropics and Europe
is completely out of Tropics.
• The province of Almería in Andalusia, southern Spain, is the
driest region of Europe and home to the only desert climate on
the continent.
29.
30.
• North Sea is a part of Arctic Ocean. It is the major oil producing
region of Europe; most of the production is by UK, Norway,
Swede and Netherlands.
• Brent Crude is a major trading classification of sweet light crude
oil that serves as one of the two main benchmark prices for
purchases of oil worldwide, the other being West Texas
Intermediate. This grade is described as light because of its
relatively low density, and sweet because of its low sulphur
content.
31.
32.
33. There are 17 landlocked countries in Europe: Andorra, Armenia,

Austria, Belarus, Kosovo, Czech Republic, Hungary, Kazakhstan,
Liechtenstein, Luxembourg, Macedonia, Moldova, San Marino,
Serbia, Slovakia, Switzerland and Vatican City.
34.
• Germany is a country in Central and Western Europe, lying
between the Baltic and North Seas to the north and the Alps,
Lake Constance, and the High Rhine to the south. It borders
Denmark to the north, Poland and the Czech Republic to the
east, Austria and Switzerland to the south, France to the
southwest, and Luxembourg, Belgium, and the Netherlands to
the west. It is not land locked.
• Germany is the largest economy of Europe and fifth largest in
world in PPP terms.
35.
• The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that con nects the
Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Gibraltar
(a British Overseas Territory) and Peninsular Spain in Europe
from Morocco in Africa.
• The two continents are separated by 14.3 kilometres (8.9 miles;
7.7 nautical miles) of ocean at the Strait's narrowest point.
36.
• Caspian Sea: The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body
of water, variously classed as the world's largest lake or a full-
fledged sea. It is an endorheic basin located between Europe
and Asia, to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and to the west
of the broad steppe of Central Asia → shares border with
Europe.
• Black Sea: The Black Sea is a body of water and marginal sea of
the Atlantic Ocean between Eastern Europe, the Caucasus, and
Western Asia ^ shares border with Europe.
• Aral Sea: The Aral Sea was an endorheic lake lying between
Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan → does not share borders with
Europe
37. The Baltic Sea is a mediterranean sea of the Atlantic Ocean,
enclosed by Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Latvia, Lithuania, Sweden,
northeast Germany, Poland, Russia and the North and Central
European Plain. The sea stretches from 53°N to 66°N latitude and
from 10°E to 30°E longitude.
38.
• The Gulf of Finland is the easternmost arm of the Baltic Sea. It
extends between Finland and Estonia all the way to Saint
Petersburg in Russia. Other major cities around the gulf include
Helsinki and Tallinn.
• Riga lies on shore of Gulf of Riga, southeast part of Baltic sea.
39.
• Europe hosts only Palearctic realm while India hosts Palearctic
and Indomalaya realms.
• Indian Subcontinent and African Continent were part of same
supercontinent Gondwanaland till about 550 million years ago.
While Europe, along with Asia and North America were part of
Laurasia.
40.
• The Iberian Peninsula, also known as Iberia, is located in the
southwest corner of Europe. The peninsula is principally divided
between Portugal and Spain, comprising most of their territory,
as well as Andorra, small areas of France, and the British
overseas territory of Gibraltar. With an area of approximately
596,740 square kilometres, it is both the second largest
European peninsula by area, after the Scandinavian Peninsula,
and by population, after the Balkan Peninsula.
• In Europe, Scandinavian peninsula is the largest by area and
Balkan Peninsula is the largest in term of population.
41.
• Pockets of temperate rain forests are spread in Northwestern
Europe (southern Norway to northern Iberia).
• Most of Norway is not in Arctic Circle. Though most of Norway is
in Tundra and Taiga biomes, Southwestern part of Norway is
home temperate rain forests.
• Temperate rain forests in Europe:
42.
• Kola Peninsula: The Kola Peninsula is a penin sula in the far
northwest of Russia. Constituting the bulk of the territory of
Murmansk Oblast, it lies almost completely inside the Arctic
Circle and is bordered by the Barents Sea in the north and the
White Sea in the east and southeast → It has border with Arctic
ocean only not Atlantic. (If Arctic Ocean is not a marginal sea of
Atlantic)
• Scandinavian Highlands: Borders North Sea and Norwegian
Sea, both are marginal seas of Atlantic.
• Island of Iceland: Is in North Atlantic Ocean
43.
• A doubly land locked country is which cannot be reached from
sea/ocean without crossing at least two sovereign countries.
• There are only two such countries in the world. Liechtenstein in
Europe is surrounded by two landlocked countries; Switzerland
and Austria while Uzbekistan in Asia is surrounded by five, all of
them are stan countries (ending with “stan”). They are
Afghanistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and
Turkmenistan.
44.
• The Gulf of Bothnia is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea. It
is situated between Finland's west coast and Sweden's east
coast.
45.
46.
• Europe includes 51 independent states. Russia, Kazakhstan,
Azerbaijan, Georgia, and Turkey are transcontinental countries,
partially located in both Europe and Asia.
• Armenia and Cyprus politically are considered European
countries, though geographically they are located in the West
Asia territory.
47. Out of the given pairs of countries, only Australia and Switzerland,
and Greece and Albania shares border.
48.
• Agulhas current: A warm current which flows towards south
along East African coast.
• North Atlantic drift: The North Atlantic Current, also known as
North Atlantic Drift and North Atlantic Sea Movement, is a
powerful warm western boundary current within the Atlantic
Ocean that extends the Gulf Stream northeastward.
• Labrador current: The Labrador Current is a cold current in the
North Atlantic Ocean which flows from the Arctic Ocean south
along the coast of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland,
continuing south along the east coast of Nova Scotia of North
America.
• North Equatorial current: The North Equatorial Current is a
significant Pacific and Atlantic Ocean current that flows east-to-
west between about 10°N and 20°N.
49. Originating in Germany, the Danube flows southeast for 2850 km,
passing through or bordering Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia,
Serbia, Romania, Bulgaria, Moldova and Ukraine before draining
into the Black Sea. Its drainage basin extends into nine more
countries.
50. The North Atlantic Current of the Gulf Stream, along with similar
warm air currents, helps keep Ireland and the western coast of
Great Britain a couple of degrees warmer than the east. However,
the difference is most dramatic in the western coastal islands of
Scotland. A noticeable effect of the Gulf Stream and the strong
westerly winds (driven by the warm water of the Gulf Stream) on
Europe occurs along the Norwegian coast. Northern parts of
Norway lie close to the Arctic zone, most of which is covered with
ice and snow in winter. However, almost all of Norway’s coast
remains free of ice and snow throughout the year. Weather
systems warmed by the Gulf Stream drift into Northern Europe,
also warming the climate behind the Scandinavian mountains.
51. The Pyrenees mountain range separates the Iberian Peninsula
from the rest of Europe, stretching more than 430km between
Spain and France and rising higher than 3,400m in elevation.
Andorra is a tiny sovereign state in the heart of the chain.
52.
• The path which crosses least number of coun tries is ‘Moscow
(Russia) → Belarus or Ukraine → Poland → Germany → France
→ Madrid (Spain)’
• Six countries in total including the source and destination.
53. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Prime Meridian passes through
the UK, France and Spain in Europe and Algeria, Mali, Burkina
Faso, Togo and Ghana in Africa. The only landmass crossed by
the Meridian in the Southern Hemisphere is Antarctica.
54. Three nations qualify as completely surrounded, i. e., enclaved by
another country’s land and/or internal waters:
• The Republic of San Marino, enclaved within Italy
• Vatican City, enclaved within the city of Rome, Italy
• The Kingdom of Lesotho, enclaved within South Africa
• Sofia is capital of Bulgaria. It shares border with Black Sea.
55.
• Adriatic Sea separates Italian Peninsula from Balkan Peninsula.
• The Adriatic is the northernmost arm of the Mediterranean Sea,
extending from the Strait of Otranto (where it connects to the
Ionian Sea) to the northwest and the Po Valley.
56.
• Europe’s longest river is Volga, it drains into Caspian Sea.
Europe’s second longest river, Danube drains into Black Sea.
• The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia.
57.
• Mediterranean biogeographic region is the only global
biodiversity hotspot in Europe.
• All big cats of Europe are extinct in wild.
58.
• Europe is not the only continent through which neither tropics nor
the equator passes; Antarctica also has the distinction.
• Stromboli, Europe’s last erupted major volcano is in Italy;
Stromboli is a small island in the Tyrrhenian Sea, off the north
coast of Sicily, containing one of the three active volcanoes in
Italy. It is one of the eight Aeolian Islands, a volcanic arc north of
Sicily.
59.
• The Tyrrhenian Sea is part of the Mediterranean Sea off the
western coast of Italy.
• The sea is bounded by the islands of Corsica and Sardinia (to
the west), the Italian peninsula to the east, and the island of
Sicily (to the south).
60.
• Southernmost point of Continental Europe: Punta de Tarifa,
Spain (36° 00′ 15″ N).
• Westernmost point of Continental Europe: Cabo da Roca,
Portugal (9°29′ 56.44 W).
61.
62. Himadri Station is India’s first Arctic research station located at

Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway. It is located at the International
Arctic Research base, Ny-Ålesund.
Fjord is a common landform along Norwegian Coast, which are
result of decades of glacial erosion.
63.
• Denmark: Copenhagen
• Sweden: Stockholm
• Finland: Helsinki
• Estonia: Tallinn
• Latvia: Riga
Capital cities of all of the above countries lie on shore of Baltic
Sea.
64. The above-mentioned ports are top three cargo ports of Europe;
All are on North Sea.
1. Port of Antwerp : Belgium
2. Port of Hamburg : Germany
3. Port of Rotterdam : Netherlands
65.
66.
• Continental European country of Portugal is completely within
western hemisphere i.e. west of 0° longitude.
• No European country is completely within Arctic circle.
67. The Nordic countries, or the Nordics, are a geographical and
cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic, where
they are most commonly known as Norden (literally “the North”).
The term includes Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, and
Sweden.
• Capri - Italy
• Crete - Greece
• Ibzia - Spain
69.
• Monaco is one among six microstates of Europe.
• It hosts International Hydrographic Organisation and
International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF).
• It is bordered by France on North and Mediterranean Sea on the
south.
70.
• The term Low Countries, also known as the Low Lands and
historically called the Netherlands, Flanders, or Belgica, refers to
a coastal lowland region in northwestern Europe forming the
lower basin of the Rhine-Meuse-Scheldt delta and consisting of
Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg.
• Port city of Antwerp, Belgium has been the centre of diamond
trade worldwide for more than 500 years. Eighty four per cent of
the world's raw diamonds pass through the city on the Scheldt
and 50% of all cut diamonds find their way to this city. It a key
centre of India’s raw diamond import and finished diamond
export.
71.
• The Balearic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned
between the eastern coast of Spain, the southern coast of
France, and the islands of Corsica and Sardinia.
• The Sea of Azov is an internal sea with passage to the Atlantic
Ocean going through the Black, Marmara, Aegean and
Mediterranean seas. It is connected to the Black Sea by the
Strait of Kerch.
72. The Alps are the highest and most extensive mountain range
system that lies entirely in Europe and stretching approximately
1200 kilometres across eight Alpine countries: France,
Switzerland, Monaco, Italy, Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, and
Slovenia.
73.
• Ural River: The Ural is a river flowing through Russia and
Kazakhstan in Eurasia. It originates in the southern Ural
Mountains and discharges into the Caspian Sea. At 2428
kilometres, it is the third-longest river in Europe after the Volga
and the Danube, and the 18th-longest river in Asia.
• Ural Mountains: The Ural Mountains, or simply the Urals, are a
mountain range that runs approximately from north to south
through western Russia, from the coast of the Arctic Ocean to
the Ural River and northwestern Kazakhstan. The mountain
range forms part of the conventional boundary between the
continents of Europe and Asia.
• The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain system at the
intersection of Europe and Asia, stretching between the Black
Sea and the Caspian Sea.
74.
• Caucasus mountains spread between Caspian Sea and Black
Sea.
• Apennines spread between Ligurian Sea and Gulf of Venice.
75. The correct order is
“Corsica (France) → Sardinia (Italy) → Sicily → Cyprus”
8
Geography of North America

1. World’s largest gulf is

(a) Persian Gulf (b) Gulf of Aden (c) Gulf of California (d) Gulf of
Mexico
2. Which of the following is the largest Island in the world?
(a) Green land
(b) Ireland
(c) Lakshadweep Islands
(d) Aleutian Islands
3. Baffin Bay is between
(a) Canada and USA
(b) USA (excluding Alaska) and Cuba
(c) Canada and Greenland
(d) Canada and Alaska
4. Which of the following is a continent’s lowest point?
(a) The Great valley
(b) Livermore valley
(c) Death valley
(d) Amador valley
5. The Ridge which separates North American plate from European
plate is
(a) Fiftytwo Ridge
(b) Reykjanes Ridge
(c) Ember Ridge
(d) Obsidian Ridge
(a) Canada is the second largest country in the world in area.
(b) The 490 N latitude forms the boundary between the two big
countries-USA and Canada.
(c) Mt. Mackenzie is an active volcano.
7. Saint Lawrence River flows into
(a) Gulf of Mexico
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Caribbean sea
8. Highest peak in North America is
(a) Mt. Mackenzie
(b) Mt. McKinley
(c) Mt. Elbert
(d) Mt.Rainier
9. Which of the following is the largest fresh water lake in the world?
(a) Lake Superior
(b) Lake Michigan
(c) Lake Ontario
(d) Lake Erie
10. In North America we call temperate grasslands as
(a) Pampas
(b) Steppes
(c) Prairies
(d) Downs
11. Brooking effect is where
(a) Checto Bar Fire occurs.
(b) katabatic wind that affects the southern coast of Oregon.
(c) Both A and B
12. Tropical cyclones in North Atlantic are called as
(a) Willy willies
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Typhoons
13. Lake Nicaragua is in
(a) Guatemala
(b) Honduras
(c) Costarica
14. Tropic of cancer passes through
(a) Mexico only
(b) Mexico, Hawaii
(c) Mexico, Guatemala, Belize
(d) Mexico, Belize
15. Which of the following place is/are important for Uranium reserves
in North America?
(a) Wyoming
(b) Colorado
(c) New Mexico
(d) All the above
16. Mt. St. Elias is in
(a) Alaskan range
(b) Rocky mountains
(c) Appalachian mountains
17. River Colorado passes through
(a) Canada
(b) USA
(c) Mexico
(d) Both B and C
18. Lake Great Bear is in
(a) Canada
(b) USA
(c) Mexico
(d) Honduras
19. Lincoln sea is on which side of Greenland?
(a) North
(b) East
(c) South
(d) West
20. Point Hope is in
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Mexico
(d) Cuba
21. Rocky Mountains are located in
(a) Western North America
(b) Eastern North America
(c) Northen North America
(d) Southern North America
22. North America is connected through which South American
country?
(a) Venezuela
(b) Ecuador
(c) Colombia
(d) Brazil
23. Worester and Fall river are specialised for
(a) Footwear machinery
(b) Woollen textiles
(c) Cotton textiles
24. Dallas region is important for Industries of
(a) Oil refineries
(b) Chemical plants
(c) Synthetic rubber factory
25. Bay of Pigs is located in
(a) USA
(b) Mexico
(c) Jamaica
(d Cuba

(1) Isthmus of
(i) Greenland-Iceland
Panama
(ii) Alaska- Asia (2) Denmark Strait
(iii) North America- South
(3) Bering Strait
America
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
1. The portions of the orogenic belts next to the continental interior
are composed mainly of Metamorphic rocks indigenous to North
America.
2. The parts closer to the modern oceans are more diverse and
include rock masses that originated inside the continent.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
28. Arrange the below islands of Canada from left to right?
1. Baffin Islands
2. Banks Islands
3. Victoria Islands Select the correct option
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,1
(c) 1,3,2
(d) 3,2,1
1. The North American tundra’s temperature rises above freezing
for a short period every summer.
2. The Pacific Northwest area has the highest average rainfall in
North America.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
30. Which of the following is/are correct regarding southern coasts of
North America?
1. The warmth and the long growing season allows subtropical
crops such as cotton and peanuts to be grown.
2. Since the landmass is intensely heated, frequent thunderstorms
dot the landscape in this region, especially in early summer.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
31. Which of the following is/are correct regarding south-west of North
America?
1. In the American Southwest a Mediterranean type of climate is
found.
2. Summers are dry and winters are mild.
3. Rains are insufficient for growing crops during the summer.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
32. About one-third of North America, including the high Arctic
latitudes, has a dry climate. Chief dry areas lie in the American
Southwest because
1. Mid latitude High-pressure belt
2. Continental Air mass
3. Rain shadow effect Select the correct option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Boreal forest extends from the Aleutian Islands through Alaska
and northern Canada to the island of Newfoundland.
2. The boreal forest essentially is the domain of spruce and
balsam fir.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
34. Which of the following are known for Laurentian mixed forest?
1. St. Lawrence
2. The upper Mississippi-Ohio
3. Central lowland Select the correct option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The Eastern Upland forest covers much of the central and
southern Appalachians.
2. Polar continental air is pronounced, while Elevation modifies the
tropical maritime winds.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
36. Arrange the below places from south to north?
1. Rocky Mountains
2. Brooks Range
3. Sierra Madre
4. Alaska Range
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 4-1-2-3
(d) 4-2-3-1
1. The North American Plate has a Divergence with the Pacific
Plate, dividing California at the San Andreas Fault.
2. The Pacific Plate moves northwest with respect to the North
American Plate.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Major plates Boundary
(i) North American plate-Pacific plate (1)
near California Convergent
(ii) North American plate-Pacific plate (2)
near Alaska Divergent
(3)
(iii) North American plate-Eurasian plate
Transform
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(i) Chinook (1) San Fransisco
(ii) Diablo (2) Rocky mountains
(iii) Hawk (3) Chicago
(i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Eastern part of North America (1) Salad Bowl
(ii) Central valley of California (2) Tobacco
(iii) American south (3) Corn Belt
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
1. The mechanisation of farming and intensive farming have been
major themes in US history.
2. Agricultural activity is particularly concentrated in the Great
plains.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Temperate cyclones are associated with drizzle in North
America.
2. They are usually distributed over USA, Canada, belt extending
from Iceland to Barents Sea
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
43. Which of the following countries share land border with Mexico?
1. Guatamela
2. Honduras
3. Belize
4. Panama
(a) 1,2
(b) 2,4
(c) 1,3
(d) 1,3,4
(i) Blue Mountains (1) Jamaica
(ii) Sierra Maestra (2) Cuba
(iii) Duerte peak (3) Dominican Republic
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
45. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Lesser Antilles?
1. Stretching from Saint Kitts to Grenada, the mountainous inner
arc consists of volcanic cones, all are active.
2. The outer arc-running from Anguilla to Barbados-is made up of
low, flat islands whose limestone surfaces overlie older volcanic
or crystalline rocks.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
46. Which of the following is/are part of Great plains?
1. Ouachita Mountains of northwestern Arkansas.
2. Ozark Plateau of Missouri.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
47. Which of the following are Tributaries of Mississipi river?
1. Missouri river
2. Ohio river
3. Arkansas
4. Colorado
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
48. Which of the following North American countries are surrounded
by Caribbean sea?
1. El-Salvador
2. Cuba
3. Dominican Republic
4. Guatemala
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
49. Which of the following ports are located on western part of North
America?
1. Vancouver port
2. Manzanillo port
3. Los Angeles port Select the correct option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
50. Arrange the following places from North to south
1. Miami
2. Boston
3. Houston
4. New york
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 2-4-3-1
(d) 4-2-1-3
51. Which of the following is/are correct regarding North America?

1. Its geological structure is built around a stable platform of
Precambrian rock called the Laurentian Shield.
2. To the north of the shield rose the ancient Appalachian
Mountains.
3. To the west rose the younger and considerably taller
Cordilleras, which occupy nearly one-third of the continent’s
land area.
4. In between these two mountain belts are the generally flat
regions of the Great Plains in the west.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. The Ouachita Orogen is formed when the south-facing margin
of North America collided with South America.
2. Appalachian Orogen is formed when the southeast-facing
margin collided with northwestern Africa.
3. The Caledonian Orogen is formed when the northeast-facing
margin collided with northwestern Europe
4. The Franklinian Orogen is formed when the Arctic margin
collided with crust that now underlies the Barents shelf off
northern Europe and Alaska north of the Brooks Range.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
53. Which of the following comes under Cordilleras?
1. High Rocky Mountains, continuing north into the Brooks Range
of Alaska.
2. The Coast Mountains, extending north into the Alaska Range
3. A structurally complex outer island arc, running from Vancouver
Island to the Aleutian Islands.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The Colorado Plateau is a massive feature with a series of
relatively fold and Faulted lands.
2. Its slow rate of uplift was matched by the steady down cutting of
the Colorado River and its tributaries, producing the Grand
Canyon.
3. Westward rise the mountains of the Sierra Nevada are flat
bedded table lands.
Select the correct option (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
55. Which of the following lakes separates parts of USA from
Canada?
1. Lake Winnipeg
2. Lake Superior
3. Lake ontario
4. Lake Erie
Select the correct option (a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. On the southeast coasts of the United States, the warm
temperate zone extends to the Mississippi River
2. Over the Gulf Coast; the zone is strongly influenced by the cold,
moist tropical air mass that originates over the Gulf of Mexico.
3. Tropical air spreads north in February and dominates the region
until November, when polar continental air occasionally invades.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
North America Climate
(i) South-West (1) Warm Temperate
(ii) Central (2) Mediterranean
(iii) South-East (3) Tropical humid
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Douglas fir (1) California
(ii) Western hemlock (2) British Columbia
(iii) Sitka spruce (3) Alaska
(i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
59. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Laurentian mixed
forest?
1. Lying in the warm-summer region of the cool temperate zone.
2. It consists mainly of grass lands.
3. Huge-crowned, large-leaved trees are predominant.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Chipmunks (1) Laurentian Mixed forest
(ii) Mountain lion (2) The boreal forest
(iii) White fish (3) The Cordilleran forest
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
61. Which of the following are major Rivers of North America?
1. River Mackenzie
2. River Rio Grande
3. River Arkansas
4. River Columbia Select the correct option
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
62. Which of the following is/are?
1. The world famous Niagara Falls is located between Lake Erie
and Lake Huron.
2. Colorado plateau is bisected by the Colorado River and the
Grand Canyon.
3. Niagara Falls comprises of three waterfalls: the Horseshoe
Falls, the American Falls and the Bridal Veil Falls.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
63. Which of the following are correct regarding North America?
1. Major Food Crops are Wheat and Maize.
2. Major Cash Crop is Cotton.
3. Georges Bank near Nova Scotia are extensive fishing grounds
in North America.
4. Cuba is called as the ‘Sugar Bowl of the World’.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. World’s largest industrial region is on the western part of North
America along Pacific Ocean.
2. Cuba is famous for Banana production.
3. The Yellow stone National Park is world’s largest national park.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(1) Manufacturing of Synthetic
(i) Detroit
Rubber
(ii) Akron (2) Software Industry
(iii) San
(3) Manufacturing of Motor cars
Francisco
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
66. Which of the following islands does not belong to North America?
1. Society Islands
2. Easter Islands
3. Hawaiian Islands
4. Line Islands
(a) 1,2
(b) 1,2,4
(c) 2,4
(d) 1,4
(1) Warm current-Atlantic
(i) Alaskan current
Ocean
(ii) Californian
(2) Cold current-Atlantic Ocean
current
(3) Warm current-Pacific
(iii) Labrador current
Ocean
(iv) Antilles current (4) Cold current-Pacific Ocean
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4
(i) Athabasca (1) Iron
(ii) Kingston (2) Crude oil
(iii) Mesabi Range (3) Bauxite
(iv) Arkansas (4) Coal
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(c) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-4
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(i) Mauna Loa (1) Active stratovolcano
(ii) Mount Rainier (2) Caldera
(iii) Mount saint Helens (3) Forms an Island
(iv) Yellow stone (4) Active Volcano
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
70. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Cocos plate-Between central America and Eurasian plate
2. North American plate-Western Atlantic floor separated from
south American plate along Caribbean islands.
3. Pacific plate-Major plate Select the correct option
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
71. Arrange the deserts of North America from North to South?
1. Mohave Desert
2. Sonoran Desert
3. Great Basin Desert
4. Chihuahuan Desert Select the correct option
(a) 3-1-2-4
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 1-2-4-3
(d) 4-2-1-3
72. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Chinook Winds?
1. These are fohn winds in the interior West of North America,
where the Canadian Prairies and Great Plains meet various
mountain ranges
2. The Blackfoot people term this wind “Snow Eater”
3. Chinook”, originally meant a warming wind from the ocean into
the interior regions of the Pacific Northeast of the USA.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
73. Which of the following is/are correctly paired?
1. Williwaw-strong, violent wind occurring in the Strait of Magellan,
the Aleutian Islands, and the coastal fjords of Southeast Alaska
2. Wreckhouse-strong winds blowing across the Great Lakes in
autumn
3. Witch of November-strong downslope winds off the Long Range
Mountains in south-western Newfoundland
(a) 1only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. North American monsoon, a seasonal reversal of wind affects
Central America.
2. It is characterised by winds that blow northerly off the Pacific
Ocean during warmer months and southerly from the land
during cooler months of the year
3. Consistent winds characteristic of true monsoons are
established on gulf coast of USA.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
75. Which of the following is/are countries of North America?
1. Antigua
2. Dominica
3. Costa Rica
4. Puerto Rico
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b)
56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d)
Explanations
1. A gulf is a large body of water, sometimes with a narrow
mouth, that is almost completely surrounded by land. The
world’s largest gulf is the Gulf of Mexico.
2. Mainland North America is shaped roughly like a triangle, with
its base in the north and its apex in the south; associated with
the continent is Greenland, the largest island in the world.
3. Baffin Bay exists between Canada and Greenland.
4. Death Valley in California, at 282 feet (86 metres) below sea
level, is its lowest.
5. The rift subsequently moved to the east of Greenland, forming
the Reykjanes Ridge that now separates the North American
plate from the European plate.
6.
1. Canada is second largest country in the world in area (after
Russia).
2. The 49°N latitude forms the boundary between the two big
countries-USA and Canada.
3. Mt. Mackenzie is the highest peak of North America, situated in
Alaska. It is an active volcano.
7. Saint Lawrence River flows into Atlantic Ocean.
8. Mount McKinley (also known as Denali) is the highest mountain
on the North American continent. Its summit is 20,237 feet
(6168 meters) above sea level. It is located in the USA, in the
state of Alaska.
9. Lake Superior is the largest fresh water lake in the world.
10. In North America temperate grasslands are called prairies. Major
grasslands in North America are the Great Plains of the Midwest,
The Palouse Prairie of eastern Washington State, and other
grasslands in the southwest.
11. The Brookings effect is a katabatic wind that affects the southern
coast of Oregon.
Studies have shown that the north-to-south orientation of the
Chetco River mouth and the town of Brookings plays a large role in
the high temperatures recorded, and the reason the effect is
localised. During most of the year, a sea breeze sets up along the
coastline with prevailing surface winds from the northwest.
12. North Atlantic Ocean: Atlantic hurricane
This region includes the North Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea,
and the Gulf of Mexico. Tropical cyclone formation here varies
widely from year to year, ranging from one to over 25 per year.
13. Lake Nicaragua or Cocibolca or Granada is a freshwater lake in
Nicaragua.
14. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the following countries in
North America:
• United States of America (Hawaii)
• Mexico
• Bahamas
15. The states with the largest known uranium ore reserves (not
counting byproduct uranium from phosphate) are (in order)
Wyoming, New Mexico, and Colorado.
Until the early 1980s, there were active uranium mines in Arizona,
Colorado, New Mexico, Oregon, South Dakota, Texas, Utah,
Washington and Wyoming.
16. Mt. St. Elias is in Alaskan range.
17. River Colorado passes through USA, Mexico and discharge into
gulf of California.
18. Lake Great Bear is in Canada.
19. Lincoln sea is there on North side of Greenland.
20. Point Hope is in Alaska, USA.
21. The Rocky Mountains, also known as the Rockies, are a major
mountain range located in western North America.
22. North America is connected to South America: Panama to
Colombia.
23. Two towns, Boston and Beverly, are specialised in footwear
machinery and the former is a shoemaking centre. The traditional
textile towns are Lowell and Providence for woollen textiles; and
New Bedford, Worcester and Fall River for cotton textiles; but
these now produce mainly high-quality goods. Mass production is
now more economic, farther south.
24. Eastern Texas:
The industrial development of this region is based on oil, as a
source of fuel and as a raw material. The main centres of this
region are cities of Dallas and Houston. This region is also rich in
sulphur, rock salt and phosphate rock. This makes oil refining and
chemical industries the most important in the region. Their
situations on the coast have additional advantage of
transportation.
The capital available by the oil industry helps in industrial
development. Dallas has more than 12 oil refineries, chemical
plants, synthetic rubber factory as well as steel milling and
manufacture of mining equipment and consumer products. Dallas
also has clothing and fashion industry and Fort Worth is famous for
aircraft and aerospace industries.
25. Bay of Pigs is in Cuba.

26. To the northeast Greenland is separated from Iceland by the
Denmark Strait, and to the northwest Alaska is separated from the
Asian mainland by the much narrower Bering Strait. North
America’s only land connection with South America is at the
narrow Isthmus of Panama.
27. The portions of the orogenic belts next to the continental interior
are composed mainly of folded sedimentary rocks indigenous to
North America. The parts closer to the modern oceans are more
diverse and include rock masses that originated outside the
continent. A striking observation from paleogeographic
reconstructions is that the present-day ocean basins opened along
lines near the lines of closure of the preceding Paleozoic oceans.
28.
29. Statement 1: CORRECT—The North American tundra has
temperature rises above freezing for a short period every summer.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The Pacific Northwest area has the
highest average rainfall in North America.
30. Tropical air spreads north in February and dominates the region
until November, when polar continental air occasionally invades.
Winters are mild, with January means of 40 to 54°F (4 to 12°C).
July averages are tropical, with highs exceeding 80°F (28°C). The
warmth and the long growing season allow subtropical crops such
as cotton and peanuts (groundnuts) to be grown. Rainfall is ample
(40 to 60 inches [1000 to 1500 mm]) and benefits from the
presence of the Colorado and Texas low-pressure systems and
from thunderstorms that flare up on warm afternoons in the tropical
maritime air. Since the landmass is intensely heated, frequent
thunderstorms dot the landscape in this region, especially in early
summer. Hurricanes are an annual hazard along the Gulf of
Mexico and up the lower Mississippi valley.
found. Summers are dry there, because tropical continental air is
dominant. July with 70 to 80°F (21 to 27°C) are typical, with bright,
sunny skies. Winters are mild (45 to 50°F [7 to 10°C]) and
somewhat wet, with polar Pacific airs swinging south and bringing
occasional heavy rain. Frost and snowfall are rare but may occur
when polar continental air thrusts through to the coast. Los
Angeles has a record low temperature of only 23°F (- 5°C). Annual
rainfall totals of 15 to 30 inches (380 to 760 mm), along with high
evaporation rates, often are insufficient for growing crops during
the summer; supplemental irrigation is necessary.
32. About one-third of North America, including the high Arctic
latitudes, has a dry climate. Chief dry areas lie in the American
Southwest, where a combination of the midlatitude high-pressure
belt, the tropical continental air mass, and rain shadow effects
behind the high Sierra Nevada has led to lack of rainfall. Summer
winds blow from the continent outward, discounting the effect of
Pacific subtropical air.
33. One of the greatest sweeps of forest in the world, the boreal forest
(or taiga) extends in a vast and virtually unbroken sheet of green
eastward from the Aleutian Islands through Alaska and northern
Canada to the island of Newfoundland. Its conifers are much
shorter than those of the Pacific Coast but grow in denser,
sometimes almost impenetrable, stands. The boreal forest
essentially is the domain of spruce and balsam fir, with various
species of pine becoming significant in the west and jack pine and
tamarack in the east; interspersed among the conifers are such
deciduous species as white birch and aspen
34. The Laurentian mixed forest occurs in the Great Lakes-St.
Lawrence, the upper Mississippi-Ohio, and the New England
lowland regions.
35. The Eastern Upland forest: Also known as the Acadian forest in
Canada, the Eastern Upland forest covers much of the central and
northern Appalachians and New England; there, polar continental
air is pronounced, while elevation modifies the tropical maritime
winds. The growing season ranges from 90 to 120 days, and
winter cold brings subzero temperatures.
36.
37. The North American Plate has a transform boundary with the
Pacific Plate, dividing California at the San Andreas Fault. Here,
the Pacific Plate moves northwest with respect to the North
American Plate. Much like in our cookie model, the plates get stuck
and, rather than moving smoothly and continuously, they push past
each other in short bursts that we feel as earthquakes.
38.
1. The North American Plate has a transform boundary with the
Pacific Plate, dividing California at the San Andreas Fault. Here,
the Pacific Plate moves northwest with respect to the North
American Plate. Much like in our cookie model, the plates get
stuck and, rather than moving smoothly and continuously, they
push past each other in short bursts that we feel as
earthquakes.
2. Near Alaska, the North American Plate meets the Pacific Plate
in a convergent boundary, meaning the plates are coming
together. Here, the Pacific Plate sinks under the North American
Plate in a process called subduction. As the Pacific Plate
subducts, some pieces of the crust scrape off onto the North
American Plate. However, most of the dense sinking plate gets
pulled into the mantle where it melts into the surrounding
material. This helps create volcanoes inland from the
subduction zone that marks the border between the two plates.
3. In the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, the North American Plate
borders the Eurasian Plate. The two plates move apart from
each other at this divergent boundary. As they pull apart, the
mantle material beneath rises to create new crust on the ocean
floor. The continually rising mantle material created the Mid-
Atlantic Ridge, an underwater chain of mountains.
39.
• Chinook (warm dry westerly off the Rocky Mountains)
• Diablo (hot, dry, offshore wind from the northeast in the San
Francisco bay)
• The Hawk (cold winter wind in Chicago)
40. The eastern, wetter half is a major corn and soybean producing
region known as the Corn Belt, while the western, drier half is
known as the Wheat Belt for its high rate of wheat production. The
Central Valley of California, produces fruits, vegetables, and nuts,
and is known as the Salad Bowl. The American South has
historically been a large producer of cotton, tobacco, and rice, but
it has declined in agricultural production over the past century.
41. Statement 1: CORRECT—The mechanisation of farming and
intensive farming have been major themes in US. history, including
John Deere’s steel plow, Cyrus McCormick’s mechanical reaper,
Eli Whitney’s cotton gin, and the widespread success of the
Fordson tractor and the combine harvester. Modern agriculture in
the US ranges from hobby farms and small-scale producers to
large commercial farms covering thousands of acres of cropland or
rangeland.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Although agricultural activity occurs in
every state in the union, it is particularly concentrated in the Great
Plains, a vast expanse of flat, arable land in the center of the
nation in the region west of the Great Lakes and east of the Rocky
Mountains.
42. Temperate cyclones are associated with blizzards in North
America and western disturbances in India. They are usually
distributed over USA, Canada, belt extending from Iceland to
Barents Sea continuing over Russia and Siberia, Mediterranean
basin extending even up to India in winters. Thus, in a way
temperate cyclones play an important role in global heat transfer.
43. Mexico is bordered by USA, Guatemala, and Belize and it shares
maritime borders with Cuba and Honduras.
44. The shape and alignment of the Greater Antilles are determined
by an ancient chain of folded and faulted mountains that in
Cretaceous times extended from Central America through the
Caribbean. Running west-east, this system is now mostly
submerged by the Atlantic and the Caribbean, but remnants of it
are visible in the Blue Mountains of Jamaica and in the Sierra de
los Órganos and the Sierra Maestra in Cuba. Duarte Peak, in the
Dominican Republic, another component of this range, rises to
10,417 feet (3175 metres) and is the highest point in the
Caribbean.
45. Trending north-south(West Indies), another mostly submerged
chain of mountains forms the double arc of small islands that make
up the Lesser Antilles. Stretching from Saint Kitts to Grenada, the
mountainous inner arc consists of volcanic cones, some still active.
The outer arc-running from Anguilla to Barbados-is made up of
low, flat islands whose limestone surfaces overlie older volcanic or
crystalline rocks.
46. Great Plains: The Great Plains of North America slope east from
the Rockies and extend to the edge of the Canadian Shield and
the western edges of the Appalachians. The land is generally
smooth with large treeless areas and shallow river valleys. Minor
hills and mountains are found in the Ozark Plateau of Missouri,
and in the Boston Mountains and Ouachita Mountains of
northwestern Arkansas and eastern Oklahoma. Sandhills and
buttes cover parts of the north central US in Nebraska.
47. The major tributaries are the Arkansas, Illinois, Missouri, Ohio and
Red rivers. Given their flow volumes, major Ohio River tributaries
like the Allegheny, Tennessee, and Wabash rivers are considered
important tributaries to the Mississippi system.
48. Caribbean sea is bordered by Venezuela, Colombia and Panama
to the south, Central American countries (Costa Rica,Nicaragua,
Guatemala, Honduras and Belize) on the west; with the Greater
Antilles (Cuba, Jamaica, the Dominican Republic and Puerto Rico)
on the north and the Lesser Antilles on the east.
49. See figure on next page
50. Houston is near New Orleans.
(See figure on page no. 8.161)

51. North America contains some of the oldest rocks on Earth. Its
geological structure is built around a stable platform of
Precambrian rock called the Canadian (Laurentian) Shield. To the
southeast of the shield rose the ancient Appalachian Mountains;
and to the west rose the younger and considerably taller
Cordilleras, which occupy nearly one-third of the continent’s land
area. In between these two mountain belts are the generally flat
regions of the Great Plains in the west and the Central Lowlands in
the east.
52. Paleozoic orogenic belts:
Erosional remnants of ancient mountain ranges occur along the
eastern, northern, and southern margins of the continent. The
mountains were formed mainly between 400 and 300 million years
ago, when North America collided with other continents to form the
ancient supercontinent of Pangaea. The Ouachita Orogen
(mountain chain) formed when the south- facing margin of North
America collided with South America, the Appalachian Orogen
when the southeast-facing margin collided with northwestern
Africa, the Caledonian Orogen when the northeast- facing margin
collided with northwestern Europe, and the Franklinian Orogen
when the Arctic margin collided with crust that now underlies the
Barents shelf off northern Europe and Alaska north of the Brooks
Range.
53. In Canada the Cordilleras consist of six well-marked zones: (1) the
10,000 to 12,000 foot (3000- to 3700- metre) high Rocky
Mountains, continuing north into the Brooks Range of Alaska, (2)
the Rocky Mountain Trench, a profound fault feature forming the
headwaters of the Columbia, Fraser, Peace, and Yukon rivers, (3)
the interior uplands and old fold mountains from the Selkirk and
Okanogan ranges in the south to the Cassiar Mountains and the
Yukon Plateau in the north, mostly lying at elevations of about
2400 feet (700 metres) but with ridges above 8000 feet (2400
metres), (4) the Coast Mountains, extending north into the Alaska
Range and including lofty volcanoes in the north, (5) the Inside
Passage from Puget Sound to Alaska, which is possibly a
downfaulted zone flooded by the sea, and (6) a structurally
complex outer island arc, running from Vancouver Island to the
Aleutian Islands. The magnificent scenery of the northern Rocky
Mountains, including U-shaped valleys often extending westward
into sea-drowned fjords, has resulted from frequent glaciation, and
some areas still nurse sizable glaciers.
54. The Colorado Plateau is a massive feature with a series of
relatively flat-bedded tablelands, made steplike by faulting action
and intruded by domes of igneous rocks. Its slow rate of uplift was
matched by the steady downcutting of the Colorado River and its
tributaries, producing the Grand Canyon-one of the most
spectacular gorges in the world. Westward rise the mountains of
the Sierra Nevada, which reach to nearly 15,000 feet (4500
metres), are intensively folded and faulted, and continue north in
the Cascade Range, which is marked by some of North America’s
most beautiful volcanic cones.
55.
56. On the southeast coasts of the United States, the warm temperate
zone extends to the Mississippi River and over the Gulf Coast; the
zone is strongly influenced by the warm, moist tropical air mass
that originates over the Gulf of Mexico. The long frost-free season
exceeds 200 days. Tropical air spreads north in February and
dominates the region until November, when polar continental air
occasionally invades. Winters are mild, with January means of 40
to 54°F (4 to 12°C). July averages are tropical, with highs
exceeding 80°F (28°C).
found. Summers are dry there, because tropical continental air is
dominant.
Central America, with its tropical humid climate, has no real winter;
even the coldest month averages above 64°F (18°C).
On the southeast coasts of the United States, the warm temperate
zone extends to the Mississippi River and over the Gulf Coast.
58. A long growing season, moderate temperatures, and a heavy,
constant supply of moisture have combined to foster the tallest and
largest trees found in North America. Redwood and western cedar
along the north coast of California give way to Douglas fir and
western hemlock from Oregon to British Columbia and Sitka
spruce in Alaska.
59. The Laurentian mixed forest:
Lying in the warm-summer region of the cool temperate zone, the
Laurentian mixed forest occurs in the Great Lakes-St. Lawrence,
the upper MississippiOhio, and the New England lowland regions.
It consists mainly of deciduous hardwoods-maple, beech, oak,
hickory, elm, ash, and birch-but also has a good deal of coniferous
softwood, including pine and the eastern hemlock. White pine and
white and red oak once were abundant but have largely been cut
for timber. American elm, which formerly was dominant in the
moister soils, has been greatly reduced nearly everywhere by
Dutch elm disease. The long, hot, humid days of summer, when
tropical gulf air predominates, lead to huge-crowned, large-leaved
trees, which shed their cover with the return of winter and
continental polar air masses.
60. The Cordilleran forest: Species include elk and deer in the fir-
spruce forests, antelope in the open parkland, and goats high up in
the alpine pastures. Preying on these are the mountain lion and
the occasional pack of wolves.
The boreal forest: Whitefish are caught in great numbers in Great
Slave Lake, but because of pollution they are much less prevalent
in the Great Lakes than they once were.
The Laurentian mixed forest: Squirrels and chipmunks are still
common, but wild mink and marten have become rare.
61. Major Rivers: River Frazer, River Mackenzie, River Churchill,
River St. Lawrence, River Mississippi, River Missouri, River Red,
River Rio Grande, River Colorado, River Columbia, River Yukon,
River Ohio and River Arkansas.
62. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The world famous Niagara Falls is
located between Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Colorado plateau is the largest plateau
located in North America. It is bisected by the Colorado River and
the Grand Canyon.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Niagara Falls comprises of three
waterfalls: the Horseshoe Falls, the American Falls and the Bridal
Veil Falls.
63.
1. Grand Bank near Newfoundland and Georges Bank near Nova
Scotia are extensive fishing grounds in North America.
2. Major Food Crops: Wheat and Maize
3. Major Cash Crops: Cotton
4. The temperate grassland in North America is called ‘prairies’.
Maize is called corn here. It is also called ‘Corn Belt’.
5. Biodiversity Hotspots of the World
6. Cuba is the major producer of Sugarcane and hence called the
‘Sugar Bowl of the World’.
64. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The largest industrial region of USA
is spread over the region from the River Mississippi to the Atlantic
Ocean. It is considered as the world’s largest industrial region.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Jamaica is famous for Banana
production.
Statement 3: INCORRECT—The Wood Buffalo National Park is
world’s largest national park located in Alberta province of Canada.
65.
1. Detroit is famous for manufacturing of Motor Cars.
2. Akron is the biggest centre of the world in the manufacturing of
synthetic rubber and tyres.
3. The famous ‘Silicon Valley’ is in San Francisco which is famous
for software and computer industry.
66.
1. Society Islands- New Zealand
2. Easter Islands- Chile
3. Hawaiian Islands- USA
4. Line Islands- USA
67.
68. The Athabasca tar sands, in the Canadian province of Alberta, are
the world’s largest reservoir of heavy crude oil.
In 2008, a massive spill resulted in 1.1 billion gallons of coal
slurry being released near Kingston, Tennessee. The spill
damaged homes and entered into the Emory and Clinch Rivers,
killing large fish populations and threatening water supplies.
Iron ore was mined from nine active mines and three
reclamation operations in Michigan, Minnesota, and Utah. Most of
the iron ore was mined in northern Minnesota’s Mesabi Range.
Bauxite mining in the United States
• Arkansas
• Eufaula, Alabama
• Andersonville, Georgia
• Spottswood, Virginia
69.
• Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of
Hawaii in the US state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean. It is the
largest subaerial volcano.
• Mount Rainier stands as an icon in the Washington landscape. It
is an active volcano.
• Mount St. Helens is an active stratovolcano located in Skamania
County, Washington, in the Pacific Northwest region of the
United States.
• The Yellowstone Caldera is a volcanic caldera and supervolcano
in Yellowstone National Park in the Western United States.
70. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Cocos plate- Between central
America and Pacific plate
Statement 2: CORRECT—North American platewestern Atlantic
floor separated from south American plate along Caribbean
islands.
Statement 3: CORRECT—Pacific plate is a Major plate
72. Chinook winds or simply Chinooks, are fohn winds in the interior
West of North America, where the Canadian Prairies and Great
Plains meet various mountain ranges, although the original usage
is in reference to wet, warm coastal winds in the Pacific Northwest.
The Blackfoot people term this wind “Snow Eater”; however,
the more commonly used term “Chinook” originates from the
language spoken by the eponymous people in the region where
the usage was first derived (the Chinook people lived near the
ocean, along the lower Columbia River). The reference to a wind
or weather system, simply “a Chinook”, originally meant a warming
wind from the ocean into the interior regions of the Pacific
Northwest of the USA.
73. Local winds:
• Williwaw (strong, violent wind occurring in the Strait of Magellan,
the Aleutian Islands, and the coastal fjords of Southeast Alaska)
• Witch of November, or November Witch (strong winds blowing
across the Great Lakes in autumn)
• Wreckhouse (strong downslope winds off the Long Range
Mountains in southwestern Newfoundland)
74. North American monsoon, a seasonal reversal of wind affecting
Central America. It is characterised by winds that blow northerly off
the Pacific Ocean during warmer months and southerly from the
land during cooler months of the year. Although the Gulf Coast of
the United States is prone to weather patterns with monsoonal
tendencies, consistent winds characteristic of true monsoons are
not established there.
In Central America a true monsoonal cycle occurs over a small
area facing the Pacific Ocean between 5° and 12° N. Not only is
there a complete seasonal reversal of the wind, but the rainfall
regime is typically monsoonal.
9
Geography of South America

1. Which of the following are called as Donkey’s belly in Peru?

(a) Atacama desert
(b) Snow covered mountain peaks
(c) Thick Fog Covered along coasts
(d) Cumulonimbus clouds
2. Lake Titicaca is in
(a) Peru
(b) Bolivia
(c) Brazil
(d) Both (a) and (b)
3. Shallow soils consisting of imperfectly weathered rock fragments
are called as
(a) Grumosols
(b) Planosols
(c) Lithisols
(d) Brunizems
4. What are Regosols?
(a) Acidic soils with a bleached upper horizon, or layer, that are
low in lime.
(b) Deep, dark-coloured prairie soils, developed from wind-
deposited loess.
(c) Deposited by lakes, and containing much nutrient matter, but
often shallow and subject to seasonal oxygen deficiency.
(d) Azonal soils consisting mainly of imperfectly consolidated
material and having a complex morphology.
5. Magellan strait is between
(a) Northwest Colombia and Northeast Colombia
(b) Brazil and French Guiana
(c) Bolivia and Peru
(d) Argentina and Chile
6. Which of the following city experiences Mediterranean type of
climate?
(a) La Paz
(b) Lima
(c) Santiago
(d) Buenos Aires
7. The only South American country which shares maritime borders
with Pacific ocean and Caribbean sea is
(a) Ecuador
(b) Venezuela
(c) Colombia
(d) Guyana
8. Plateau of Mato Grosso is in
(a) Argentina
(b) Chile
(c) Brazil
9. Trans Andean railways goes through
(a) Pico El Aguila
(b) Uspallata pass
(c) Paso Derecho
(d) Paso Huahum
10. Which of the following is a largest desert in South America?
(a) Atacama desert
(b) Patagonia desert
(c) Sahara desert
(d) Thar desert
11. Angel falls is located in
(a) Colombia
(b) Ecuador
(c) Guyana
(d) Venezuela
12. Which of the following is the lowest point in South America?
(a) The Salt Lake Laguna
(b) Lake Titicaca
(c) Lake Patos
(d) Van Blommestein Lake
13. Which of the following are coordinates of South America?
(a) 8.7832° S, 55.4915° W
(b) 8.7832° S, 34.5085° E
(c) 8.7832° S, 34.5085° W
(d) 34.0479° S, 100.6197° W
14. Large deposits of Nitrates are found in
(a) Brazilian highlands
(b) Guiana highlands
(c) Atacama desert (d) Pampas
15. Potatoes originated in
(a) Brazilian Highlands
(b) Guiana Highlands
(c) High Andes (d) Cordilleras
16. Largest oil reserves of South America is in
(a) Colombia
(b) Brazil
(c) Venezuela
(d) Peru
17. Which of the following divide North America and South America?
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Isthmus of Panama (d) Cordilleras
18. Which of following is the highest active volcano in South
America?
(a) Mt Cotopaxi
(b) Mt Chimborazo
(c) Mt Aconcagua
(d) Mt Merapi
19. Which of the following is not a port in South America?
(a) Santos
(b) Cartagena
(c) Callao
(d) Miami
20. Which country has longest coastline in South America?
(a) Chile
(b) Brazil
(c) Argentina
(d) Peru
21. Which of the following country is completely above equator line?
(a) Colombia
(b) Ecuador
(c) Venezuela
(d) All the above
22. The position of the Amazon river length in the world
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
23. How many independent countries are there in South America?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
24. Famous tourist attraction-Machu Picchu is in
(a) Brazil
(b) Peru
(c) Chile
(d) Argentina
25. Which place in South America is called as ‘Cape Horn’?
(a) Falkland Island
(b) Margarita island
(c) Island of Tierra del Fuego
(d) Santa Ines Island
26. Which of the following is/are reasons for the formation of Atacama
desert?
1. The cold Peru (Humboldt) Current, flowing northward along the
coast.
2. The western part of the South Pacific anticyclone.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. As the westerlies rise over the Andes, most of their moisture is
released in orographic precipitation.
2. While on the lee side a typical rain shadow develops over the
vast desert and semi-desert region of Atacama.
3. Vertical climatic zones are particularly well- defined in the
Andes.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Tropical wet-dry climate exists in the Orinoco basin, on the
Brazilian Highlands, and in part of western Ecuador.
2. Temperatures are still high and annual variations small, but
daily temperature extremes are greater.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
29. Which of the following exhibit Temperate climate?
1. Paraguay
2. Bolivia
3. Peru
4. Chile
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
30. In South America, Cold climates occur in
1. Southern most parts of Argentina
2. High Andes
3. From central Peru to Bolivia and Chile Select the correct
option:
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Llanos (1) Brazil
(ii) Pampas (2) Venezuela
(iii) Campos (3) Argentina
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
32. Which of the following is/are correct regarding South Brazilian
Forests?
1. They occupy vast expanses from the border of the Amazonian
rainforest to the marshes of the upper Paraguay River.
2. The typical landscape is a grassland strewn with tall trees.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Sub-antarctic rainforests grow in southern Chile at low and
moderate elevation.
2. A dense undergrowth of shrubs, lianas, bamboos, ferns,
mosses, and epiphytes grow in the northern districts.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
34. Equator passes through which countries of South America?
1. Ecuador
2. Colombia
3. Peru
4. Brazil
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,2,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
35. Which of the following is/are landlocked countries in South
America?
1. Bolivia
2. Uruguay
3. Paraguay
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
36. Which of the following is/are part of Lithium triangle?
1. Argentina
2. Brazil
3. Chile
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
37. Which of the following are mountains of South America?
1. Aconcagua
2. Ojos del Salado
3. Mercedario
4. Whitney
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
38. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Brunizems?
1. They are deep, dark-coloured prairie soils, developed from
wind-deposited loess.
2. These soils are not fertile.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. In the Andes, along the slopes, Eutrophic soils are abound.
2. In the inter- Andean valleys Lithosols can be found.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(i) Eastern mid-latitude plains (1) Cattle grazing
(ii) Eastern and south-east Brazil (2) Cereal grains
(iii) Interior Plateaus (3) Coffee
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
41. Which of the following is/are correctly paired where huge rift
valleys are formed?
1. The valley of the Magdalena River- between the Central and
the Occidental ranges.
2. The valley of the Cauca River- between the Oriental and the
Central ranges Select the correct option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
42. Which of the following are said to be Andean states?
1. Argentina
2. Chile
3. Venezuela
4. Guyana
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
43. Which of the following are correct regarding Andes?
1. The Andes have been deeply carved by glaciers, particularly in
the north.
2. Constituting a huge ice cap with long terminal tongues running
into piedmont lakes or into the sea.
3. The Andes are studded with numerous volcanoes that are part
of the Circum-Pacific volcanic chain.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
44. Amazon Rainforest spreads over
1. Peru
2. Colombia
3. Venezuela
4. Ecuador
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
45. Arrange the following from east to west?
1. Caracas
2. Bogota
3. George town
4. Paramaribo
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 2-4-3-1
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 4-3-1-2
46. Which of the following are reasons for the formation of
Patagonian desert?
1. It is in the rain shadow of the Andes
2. Falkland current
3. Brazil current Select the correct option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Nazca (1) Between South America and Pacific
plate plate
(ii) South (2) With western Atlantic floor separated
American from the south American plate along the
plate Caribbean islands
(iii) North (3) With western Atlantic floor separated
American from the North American plate along the
plate Caribbean islands
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3 (b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1 (d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
(i) Brazil (1) Bauxite
(ii) Guiana Highlands (2) Emaralds
(iii) Muzo mines (3) Diamonds
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3 (b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1 (d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
49. Which of the following are correctly paired?
1. Limestone - Uruguay
2. Marble - Colombia
3. Graphite - Brazil Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
50. Which of the following are Indigenous tribes of South America?
1. Yanomami
2. Aymara
3. Chachapoyas
4. Masai
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
51. Which of the following are Principal factors controlling the

features of South America’s climate?
1. The subtropical high-pressure air masses over the South
Atlantic and South Pacific oceans and their seasonal shifts in
position.
2. Presence of cold ocean currents along the continent’s western
side.
3. On the Atlantic coast, warm currents are predominant.
4. Presence of Andes Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
52. Which of the following is/are reasons for precipitation in South
America?
1. The trade winds of both hemispheres converge between the
subtropical anticyclones of the Northern and Southern
hemispheres in that low-pressure region
2. Shifting ITCZ
3. El- Nino
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The tropical rainy, or rainforest, type occurs on the Pacific
coast of Colombia.
2. The Choco region is one of the wettest areas in the world.
3. In the Amazon region, rains do not fall evenly over the basin.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. Patagonia and north-western Argentina constitute the largest
of the interior arid regions.
2. The annual range in average monthly temperatures in
Patagonia, greatest in South America.
3. The coast of Peru will be with no sunshine for at least six
months of the year.
4. A warm coastal desert extends from northeastern Colombia to
Venezuela.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
55. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Caatinga?
1. Also called as Black forests.
2. Generally stunted, somewhat sparse, and often thorny
vegetation.
3. Can be seen in dry interior of North-eastern Brazil
4. Trees, leafless for long periods and able to resist drought.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
56. Which of the following is/are correct regarding mountain
vegetation of South America?
1. In the wet northern Andes in Colombia and Ecuador, Alpine
meadows called páramo consist of grasses and other
herbaceous plants.
2. In the south, páramo vegetation merges with that of the high
plateaus, notably the tola, a tough wind-resistant shrub.
3. Vegetation extends to the limit of temporary snow but becomes
plenty of snow at higher elevations, where soil is often barren.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
57. Tropic of capricorn passes through which countries of South
America?
1. Paraguay
2. Uruguay
3. Chile
4. Argentina
5. Peru
(a) 1,2,5
(b) 2,3,5
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
58. Which of the following are sharing borders with Paraguay?
1. Brazil
2. Bolivia
3. Uruguay
4. Argentina
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,2,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. Amazon River discharges into Pacific Ocean.
2. Largest river by discharge volume of water ir the world.
3. Flows along Brazil, Paraguay and Bolivia.
4. Important Tributaries are Maranon, Ucayali etc.
(a) 1,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,4
(i) Peru (1) Sao Francisco
(ii) Bolivia (2) Ucayali
(iii) Brazil (3) Parana
(iv) Paraguay (4) Madeira
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
Island South America
(i) Galapagos Island (1) South
(ii) Easter Island (2) North-west
(iii) Falkland Island (3) West
(iv) Shetland Island (4) South-East
(a) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(i) Red-yellow latosols (1) Argentina
(ii) Brunizems (2) North-east Brazil
(iii) Pampean loess (3) Uruguay
(iv) Regosols (4) Ecuador
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
63. Which of the following is/are correct regarding soils in south
America?
1. Grumosols - soils with a high content of expanding clays.
2. Planosols - a type of soil found in humid climates in which
soluble salts and minerals are leached out of the upper layers
and are cemented or compacted at a lower level.
3. Gleys - clayey soils in which the substrate is bluish gray,
generally sticky, and often structureless because of excessive
moisture.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1,2,3 only
64. Which of the following are Fertile soils?
1. Regosols
2. Planosols
3. Chestnut soils
4. Brunizems
5. Pampean soil
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 3,4,5
(d) 1,2,3,4,5
65. Which of the following are reasons behind rain that falls only 100
miles east of the Pacific may flow to the Atlantic, 2500 miles
away?
1. The geologically young cordilleras of the Andes extend along
the entire continent from north to south.
2. Ancient Guiana and Brazilian highlands, which are much lower
in elevation and slope gently to the east.
3. The basins of the Orinoco, Amazon, and Paraguay-Parana
rivers and the plains of the Pampas separate the highlands
from one another.
4. The major drainage divide is far to the west along the crest of
the Andes.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
66. Which of the following are correct regarding Brazil current?
1. In the South Atlantic Ocean, the south equatorial current,
flowing from east to west, splits into two branches near Cape
de Sao Roque.
2. The south flowing Brazil current swings eastward at about
latitude 35°S due to easterlies.
3. A small branch of West Wind Drift splits and flows between
Argentinian coast and Falkland Islands.
4. Falkland cold current mixes with warm Brazil current at the
southern tip of Brazil.
(a) 1,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
67. Which of the following are effects of El-Nino?
1. An El Nino is associated with warm and very wet weather
months in April-October along the coasts of northern Peru and
Ecuador.
2. El Niño reduces the upwelling of cold water.
3. Walker cell reverses and warm water piles up on west coast of
South America.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(1) Guiana highlands National
(i) Nahuel Huapi
park
(ii) Manu National (2) Peru park
(iii) Canaima
(3) Argentina park
National
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(i) Tierra del Fuego (1) Manganese
(ii) Mount Bolivar (2) Oil
(iii) Amapa (3) Iron Ore
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2, (ii)-3, (iii)-1
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-3, (iii)-2
Highest Peak Country
(i) Pico da Neblina (1) Guyana
(ii) Mount Roraima (2) Venezuela
(iii) Julianatop (3) Brazil
(iv) Pico Bolivar (4) Suriname
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(i) Hua Hum pass (1) Between Chile and Bolivia
(ii) Chungara-
(2) Peru
Tambo Quemado
(3) Between Argentina and
(iii) Ticlio pass
Chilean capital Santiago
(4) Between Chile and
(iv) Uspallata pass
Argentina
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
72. Which of the following are tributaries of Amazon river?
1. Madeira
2. Purus
3. Jurua
4. Salado
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
73. Arrange the following peaks from north to south.
1. Mt Aconcagua
2. Mt San Valentin
3. Mt Coropuna
4. Mt Cotopaxi
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 3-1-2-4
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-4-2-3
(i) Soyabean (1) Valparaiso
(ii) Beef export (2) Brazil
(iii) Coffee (3) Colombia
(iv) Viti culture (4) Pampas
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(i) Atacama (1) Platinum
(ii) Cordillera Occidental of Colombia (2) Copper
(iii) Amazon Basin (3) Silver
(iv) Cerre de pasco (4) Gold
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
76. Which of the following are correct regarding the soil erosion in
South America?
1. Mountain forests are cleared for cattle grazing and cultivation.
2. Soil damage has been less severe in areas of relatively flat
terrain.
3. More of the presently arable land has been severely damaged
or ruined by poor land management.
Select the correct option.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (c)
66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d)
76. (d)
Explanations
1. Some newcomers are now turning to the climatic phenomenon
known locally as the “donkey’s belly” - the thick, white sea fog that
blankets coastal parts of the city for up to nine months of the year
- as a source of water.
2. Titicaca is a large, deep lake in the Andes on the border of Bolivia
and Peru, often called the “highest navigable lake” in the world.
3. Lithosols- shallow soils consisting of imperfectly weathered rock
fragments.
4. Regosols- Azonal soils consisting mainly of imperfectly
consolidated material and having a complex morphology. About
one-fifth of the continent is covered by arid soils of various types
in which agriculture is risky without irrigation.
5. The Strait of Magellan, also called the Straits of Magellan, is a
navigable sea route in southern Chile separating mainland South
America to the north and Tierra del Fuego to the south. The strait
is considered the most important natural passage between the
Atlantic and Pacific oceans. It has been traversed by explorers
and others throughout modern history. It connects Argentina and
Chile.
6. Santiago experiences Mediterranean type of climate.
7. The only South American country which shares maritime borders
with Pacific ocean and Caribbean sea is Colombia.
8. The Mato Grosso Plateau (Planalto do Mato Grosso) is a plateau
in central Brazil occupying most of the state of Mato Grosso. It
contains mostly savanna and woodland.
9. The Transandine Railway which operated from Mendoza in
Argentina, across the Andes mountain range via the Uspallata
Pass, to Santa Rosa de Los Andes in Chile, a distance of 248 km.
10. Patagonia desert is largest desert in South America.
11. Angel Falls is a waterfall in Venezuela. It is the world’s highest
uninterrupted waterfall.
12. The salt lake Laguna del Carbon is regarded as the lowest point
in the entire continent of South America.
13. Coordinates of South America: 8.7832° S, 55.4915° W.
14. The Atacama Desert of northern Chile has large deposits of
nitrates, which were used for fertilizers and in the munitions
industry until they were largely replaced by synthetic fertilizers
and atmospheric nitrogen.
15. The potato, which originated in the high Andes, became a dietary
staple of many European nations.
16. Venezuela is one of the top 10 largest oil reserves containing
country in the world and top among South American countries.
17. Isthmus of Panama divides North America and South America.
18. Highest active volcano in South America is Mt Cotopaxi.
19.
20. Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world, and its coastline
extends southward for 4655 statute miles from French Guiana to
Uruguay on the Atlantic. From north to south, Chile extends 4270
km (2653 mi), yet is only 350 km (217 mi) at its widest point, and
averages just 177 km (110 mi) east to west.
21. Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are the only
South American countries which lies completely above equator.
22. Amazon is said to be the second longest river after Nile.
23. Independent countries:
Argentina, Bolivia, Brazil, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana,
Paraguay, Peru, Suriname, Uruguay and Venezuela.
List of dependent territories of South America in alphabetical
order
Falkland Islands (UK), French Guiana (France), South Georgia
and the South Sandwich Islands
24. The famous tourist attraction Machu Picchu is in Peru.
25. The island of Tierra del Fuego lies in the extreme south of South
America and the southernmost tip of this island is called the ‘Cape
Horn’.

26. The eastern part of the South Pacific anticyclone influences the
climate of most of South America’s west coast, causing stable,
subsiding air conditions that yield minimal precipitation. The cold
Peru (Humboldt) Current, flowing northward along the coast from
southern Chile to the Equator, cools and further stabilises the
Pacific air that drifts over the continent. One of the world’s driest
regions, the Atacama Desert along the northern coast of Chile,
results from those conditions.
27. As the westerlies rise over the Andes, most of their moisture is
released in orographic precipitation, while on the lee side a typical
rain shadow develops over the vast desert and semi-desert region
of Patagonia. Vertical climatic zones are particularly well-defined
in the Andes, ranging from humid to warm at the base or foothills;
temperate and semi-humid at mid-level; cool and dry in the
highlands; and cold to freezing in the glacial summit areas.
28. The tropical wet-dry, or savanna (grassy parkland), type-is
characterised by high temperatures (all monthly means above 64
°F, or 18 °C) but receives less precipitation and experiences a
prolonged dry season. That type of climate is found on the fringes
of the tropical-rainy belt, in the Orinoco basin, on the Brazilian
Highlands, and in part of western Ecuador. Temperatures are still
high and annual variations small, but daily temperature extremes
are greater, typically ranging from a low of 65 °F (18 °C) to a high
of 95 °F (35 °C).
29. The temperate climates have a greater range of temperatures
than the tropical climates and may include extreme climatic
variations. Those climates, characterised by lower winter
temperatures, are in south of the Tropic of Capricorn (in
Paraguay, parts of Bolivia, Brazil, Argentina, and Chile) and in the
mid-level elevations of the Andes.
30. Areas where average annual temperatures are less than 50 °F
(10 °C) are characterised as cold climates. Those occur in the
southernmost parts of Argentina and Chile and in the high Andes
above about 11,500 feet (3500 metres). Mean temperatures are
relatively low throughout the year, but daily variations are wide.
There is a marked difference in humidity between the northern
and southern parts of the upper Andean zone. In Colombia and
Ecuador the climate at such elevations is cool and damp.
Temperatures, always low, may on the average vary daily from 54
°F (12 °C) during the daytime to 28 °F (-2 °C) at night.
Precipitation generally is high and well distributed throughout
much of the year, although most of the Ecuadorian Andes have a
dry period from June to August. Clouds and mist are dense in
much of the region, and sunlight penetrates only for short periods.
From central Peru to Bolivia and Chile, temperatures are still
lower. Near Lake Titicaca, the average annual temperature is only
about 34 to 36 °F (1 to 2 °C).
31. Tropical savannas are found mostly in the Llanos of Venezuela
and north-eastern Colombia. Those vast plains are covered with
grasses and sedges, but tree clusters (mainly palms) also grow,
especially along streams.
The flat or softly rolling plains called Pampas, which constitute the
greater part of eastern Argentina, are covered with grasses.
The campo rupestre (“rupestrian grassland”) is a discontinuous
montane subtropical ecoregion occurring across three different
biomes in Brazil: Cerrado, Atlantic Forest and Caatinga.
32. South Brazilian forests:
Those parklike forests, sometimes very dense but interspersed
with savanna, occupy vast expanses from the border of the
Amazonian rainforest to the marshes of the upper Paraguay
River. The typical landscape is a grassland strewn with smaller
trees. In effect, it includes a mosaic of associations, from
hygrophilous (living or growing in moist places) to xerophilous
(adapted to dry conditions) forests and even desert.
33. Subantarctic rainforests
Temperate rainforests-similar to those found in British Columbia,
Canada, and in the northwestern United States-grow in southern
Chile at low and moderate elevations, thanks to abundant rainfall.
The most typical trees belong to the genus Nothofagus (beech
trees found in the cooler parts of the Southern Hemisphere), the
northern species of which are evergreen and the southern species
deciduous. Various conifers, notably the alerce and araucarias,
mingle with the leafy trees. A dense undergrowth of shrubs,
lianas, bamboos, ferns, mosses, and epiphytes grow in the
northern districts but disappear toward latitude 49° S. In southern
Chilean Patagonia, forests consist of twisted, creeping trees
merging into a kind of heath.
34. The equator passes through three countries in South America.
They are Ecuador, Colombia and Brazil.
35. Bolivia and Paraguay are the only countries which are landlocked
in South America.
36. With the impending advent of the widespread use of electric cars,
trucks plus the millions of rechargeable consumer electronic
devices that utilise lithium ion batteries, it is no wonder that
numerous exploration companies have turned their attention to
the vast Lithium Triangle in Argentina, Chile and Bolivia. It has
been estimated that South America’s Lithium Triangle hosts about
54% of the world’s lithium resources.
37.
38. Fertile soils, therefore, extend over only about ten percent of the
surface of South America. The most important of these are
brunizems, deep, dark- coloured prairie soils, developed from
wind-deposited loess.
39. In the Andes, slopes are often steep, and lithosols (shallow soils
consisting of imperfectly weathered rock fragments) abound,
accounting for another ten percent of the continent’s surface. In
the inter-Andean valleys and on some of the foothills,
nevertheless, eutrophic soils (deposited by lakes, and containing
much nutrient matter, but often shallow and subject to seasonal
oxygen deficiency) can be found.
40. The agricultural development of South America closely reflects
the distribution of soils according to their fertility. It is mostly
confined to the eastern mid-latitude plains, in which is
concentrated the production of cereal grains and cattle grazing; to
the subtropical and temperate parts of the Andes, from Colombia
to Chile, where grazing takes place and a variety of crops are
cultivated; and to eastern and southeastern Brazil, where coffee,
cacao, soybeans, and sugarcane are grown, while the interior
plateaus are devoted to cattle grazing.
41. In Colombia, the Andes-which trend generally to the north and
south-form three distinct ranges: the Cordilleras Oriental, Central
and Occidental. The valley of the Magdalena River, between the
Oriental and the Central ranges, and the valley of the Cauca iver,
between the Central and the Occidental ranges, are huge rift
valleys formed by faulting rather than by erosion. An aerial view of
the Andes in Colombia shows, within relatively short distances, a
succession of hot lowlands interspersed with high ranges with
snowcapped peaks.
42. The Andes Mountains extend over seven countries: Argentina,
Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Venezuela, known
as Andean States. The Andes mountain range is the highest
mountain range outside of Asia.
43. Farther to the south-along the border between Chile and
Argentina-the Andes form a single but lofty chain with many of the
system’s highest peaks, including Mount Aconcagua; south of
Aconcagua, elevations gradually diminish. In southern Chile part
of the cordillera descends beneath the sea, forming innumerable
islands with steep slopes. The Andes have been deeply carved by
glaciers, particularly in the south. Ice masses still occupy some
1900 square miles (4900 square kilometres), constituting a huge
ice cap with long terminal tongues running into piedmont lakes or
into the sea. The Andes are studded with numerous volcanoes
that are part of the Circum- Pacific volcanic chain, often called the
Ring of Fire. Earthquakes are frequent.
44. The majority of the forest is contained within Brazil, with 60% of
the rainforest, followed by Peru with 13%, Colombia with 10%,
and with minor amounts in Venezuela, Ecuador, Bolivia, Guyana,
Suriname and French Guiana.
45. Paramaribo, Georgetown, Caracas, Bogota are capitals of
Suriname, Guyana, Venezuela, Colombia respectively
46. Patagonia desert is a cold desert. As it is on the rain shadow area
of Andes as well as Falkland cold current makes it a dry place.
47.
1. Nazca plate- Between South America and Pacific plate
2. South American plate- With western Atlantic floor separated
from the North American plate along the Caribbean islands
3. North American plate- With western Atlantic floor separated
from the south American plate along the Caribbean islands
48.
1. The ancient bedrocks of the Brazilian Highlands, especially in
the states of Minas Gerais and Goiás, are rich in precious and
semiprecious stones, including diamonds.
2. Bauxite reserves are present in Guian highlands.
3. Colombia is famous for its emeralds, found primarily in the
Muzo mines of the Cordillera Oriental.
49. Limestone is quarried in Ecuador, Brazil, Chile, Argentina, and
Colombia, while Uruguay and Colombia are significant producers
of marble. Brazil has the continent’s only significant deposits of
graphite.
50. The Yanomami are the largest relatively isolated tribe in South
America. They live in the rainforests and mountains of northern
Brazil and southern Venezuela.
Andes
• Andean Hunting-Collecting Tradition, Argentina, 11, 000 to 4000
CE.
• Awa-Kwaiker, northern Ecuador, southern Colombia.
• Aymara, Bolivia, Chile, Peru.
• Cañari, Ecuador.
• Capulí culture, Ecuador, 800 to1500 CE.
• Cerro Narrio (Chaullabamba) (Precolumbia culture)
• Chachapoyas, Amazonas, Peru.
• Chachilla (Cayapas)

51. Three principal factors control the features of South America’s
climate. The first and most important of them are the subtropical
high-pressure air masses over the South Atlantic and South
Pacific oceans and their seasonal shifts in position, which
determine both large-scale patterns of wind circulation and the
location of the rain-bearing intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ).
The second is the presence of cold ocean currents along the
continent’s western side, which affect both air temperatures and
precipitation along the Pacific coast; on the Atlantic coast, warm
currents are predominant. Finally, the orographic barrier of the
Andes produces a vast rain shadow over much of the southern
tier of the continent.
52. The ITCZ is responsible for the seasonal character of
precipitation in South America’s extensive tropical wet-dry climatic
zone. The trade winds of both hemispheres converge between the
subtropical anticyclones of the Northern and Southern
hemispheres in that low-pressure region. A migrating zone of
unstable atmospheric conditions results, bringing periods of
prolonged, abundant precipitation.
During El-Nino event, rain fall along western coast of South
America.
53. Among the tropical climates, the tropical rainy, or rainforest, type
occurs on the Pacific coast of Colombia, in the Amazon basin, on
the coast of the Guianas, and on part of the coast of Brazil. The
average daily temperature is about 86 °F (30 °C), with monthly
and annual variations of less than about 5 °F (3 °C). Heavy
rainfall, well-distributed throughout the year, averages about 100
inches (2500 mm) annually in Belem (Brazil), about 110 inches
(2800 mm) in Iquitos (Peru), and 70 inches (1800 mm) in Manaus
(Brazil). The Choco region of Colombia-one of the wettest areas
in the world receives in excess of 400 inches (10,200 mm), and it
rains more than 300 days per year. In the Amazon region, rains
do not fall evenly over the basin. The southern part receives most
of its rainfall during the Southern Hemisphere summer (October to
April), while the northern part has its rainy season during the
Northern Hemisphere summer (May to September). The “dry”
season is neither lengthy nor noticeable; humidity is always high.
54. Warm and cold deserts and certain coastal and interior regions
are classified as arid climates. Patagonia and northwestern
Argentina constitute the largest of the interior arid regions. Rainfall
is low, only about 4 inches (100 mm) in San Juan in the north and
about 7 inches (180 mm) farther south in Neuquen. The annual
range in average monthly temperatures in Patagonia-the greatest
in South America-is more than 36°F (20°C), the result of warm
summers and cold winters. The Atacama Desert, a narrow strip
along the Pacific coast between latitudes 5° and 31°S, is a coastal
desert. The cold seas associated with the Peru Current and the
proximity of the high Andes produce an inversion of normal
atmospheric temperatures, as air in contact with the water cools
more rapidly than the upper strata of air. The result is a nearly
continuous layer of stratus clouds about 1200 feet thick, lying at
elevations varying between about 1000 and 3000 feet, that
prevents air near the ground from being warmed. Temperatures,
consequently, are relatively low. The coast of Peru thus is the
cloudiest-and one of the driest-deserts in the world, with no
sunshine for at least six months of the year. It almost never rains,
except under abnormal circumstances, but condensation of fog
provides a limited amount of moisture. A warm coastal desert
extends from northeastern Colombia to Venezuela, covering a
zone where rainfall is scarce and droughts are prolonged.
55. Caatinga (white forest) refers to the generally stunted, somewhat
sparse, and often thorny vegetation of the dry interior of north-
eastern Brazil. Trees, leafless for long periods and able to resist
drought, also are a characteristic, particularly in the basin of the
Sao Francisco River. Dominant species are leguminous trees.
56. Mountain vegetation: The upper zones have a peculiar vegetation
that touches the snow line. In the wet northern Andes in Colombia
and Ecuador, Alpine meadows called páramo consist of grasses
and other herbaceous plants, often with bright flowers; those are
surmounted by taller plants, especially the showy frailejones
(Espeletia), which grow 15 to 20 feet (4.5 to 6 metres) high and
are crowned by large bouquets of long hairy leaves.
In the south, páramo vegetation merges with that of the high
plateaus, notably the tola, a tough wind- resistant shrub, in the
Altiplano of southeastern Peru and western Bolivia. Typical
vegetation consists of rough grasses, between which grow a
variety of herbaceous, cushion, and rosette plants, shrubs, and
cacti. Vegetation extends to the limit of permanent snow but
becomes scarce at higher elevations, where soil is often barren.
57. The line passes through Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, Brazil.
58. Paraguay borders on three substantially larger countries: Bolivia,
Brazil, and Argentina.
59. The Amazon River in South America is the largest river by
discharge volume of water in the world and discharges into
Atlantic ocean.
Spreads over Brazil, Colombia, Peru.
Important Tributaries are : Left: Marañón, Napo,
Japurá/Caquetá, Rio Negro/Guainía, Putumayo, Trombetas Right:
Ucayali, Javary, Juruá, Purús, Madeira, Tapajós, Xingu
60.
1. The Sao Francisco is a river in Brazil.
2. The Ucayali River is the main headstream of the Amazon
River. It rises about 110 km (68 mi) north of Lake Titicaca, in
the Arequipa region of Peru.
3. The Madeira River traces along for 2100 miles through Brazil
and Bolivia, and is one of the most important tributaries of the
Amazon.
4. The Paraná River is a river in south Central South America,
running through Brazil, Paraguay and Argentina.
61. Galapagos Island- North-West Easter Island- West Falkland
Island- South-East Shetland Island- South-East
62. Fertile soils extend over only about ten percent of the surface of
South America. The most important of these are brunizems (deep,
dark-coloured prairie soils, developed from wind-deposited loess),
chestnut soils, and ferruginous tropical soils. On the low coastal
ranges, in the foothills of the western Andes, and on the nearby
plains and terraces of Colombia and Ecuador, the soils consist
mainly of red-yellow latosols, podzols, and alluvial soils. Soils in
southern Brazil and Uruguay consist of brunizems, reddish prairie
soils, and planosols. The Argentine Pampas, the largest fertile
area on the continent, is uniformly covered with the so-called
pampean loess, which is calcareous, rich in minerals, and mixed
with volcanic sediment.Less rich soils are found in the uplands of
northeastern and central Brazil, consisting mainly of sandy
regosols in the north and red latosols in the south.
63. About ten percent of the total area are poorly drained, the soils
being either gleys (clayey soils in which the substrate is bluish
gray, generally sticky, and often structureless because of
excessive moisture), groundwater laterites, grumosols (soils with
a high content of expanding clays), or planosols (a type of soil
found in humid climates in which soluble salts and minerals are
leached out of the upper layers and are cemented or compacted
at a lower level).
64. Fertile soils, therefore, extend over only about ten percent of the
surface of South America. The most important of these are
brunizems, chestnut soils, and ferruginous tropical soils. The
Argentine Pampas, the largest fertile area on the continent, is
uniformly covered with the so-called pampean loess, which is
calcareous, rich in minerals, and mixed with volcanic sediment.
65. South America has two major mountain systems of contrasting
nature. Bordering the Pacific Ocean to the west, the geologically
young cordilleras of the Andes extend along the entire continent
from north to south. Stretching along the continent’s northern and
eastern sides are the ancient Guiana and Brazilian highlands,
which are much lower in elevation and slope gently to the west;
farther south are the Patagonian plateaus. Lowlands-the basins of
the Orinoco, Amazon, and Paraguay-Paraná rivers and the plains
of the Pampasseparate the highlands from one another. Taken as
a whole, the relief of the continent shows a great imbalance: the
major drainage divide is far to the west along the crest of the
Andes. Thus, rain that falls only 100 miles (160 kilometres) east of
the Pacific may flow to the Atlantic, 2500 miles away.
66. Brazil current
• In the South Atlantic Ocean, the south equatorial current,
flowing from east to west, splits into two branches near Cape de
Sao Roque (Brazil).
• The northern branch joins the north equatorial current (a part of
it flows in Anatilles Current and other into Gulf of Mexico),
whereas the southern branch turns southward and flows along
the South American coast as the warm Brazil current.
• The south flowing Brazil current swings eastward at about
latitude 35°S (due to westerlies) to join the West Wind Drift
flowing from west to east.
• A small branch of West Wind Drift splits and flows between
Argentinian coast and Falkland Islands and this current is called
as Falkland cold current.
• It mixes with warm Brazil current at the southern tip of Brazil.
67. As El Niño’s warm pool feeds thunderstorms above, it creates
increased rainfall across the east-central and eastern Pacific
Ocean, including several portions of the South American west
coast. The effects of El Niño in South America are direct and
stronger than in North America. An El Niño is associated with
warm and very wet weather months in April-October along the
coasts of northern Peru and Ecuador, causing major flooding
whenever the event is strong or extreme. The effects during the
months of February, March, and April may become critical along
the west coast of South America, El Niño reduces the upwelling
of cold, nutrient-rich water that sustains large fish populations,
which in turn sustain abundant sea birds, whose droppings
support the fertilizer industry. The reduction in upwelling leads to
fish kills off the shore of Peru.
68. Nature reserves, established to protect animals in their habitat,
are now found in most South American countries. Argentina
pioneered wildlife protection on the continent by creating Nahuel
Huapí National Park. At Iguagu Falls-located on the Iguagu River
on the border between Brazil and Argentina, just before the
confluence of the Iguagu and Paraná rivers-two national parks,
one in each country, protect wildlife and the surrounding
rainforest. Manu National Park in southeastern Peru protects one
of the richest collections of plant and animal life in the Amazon
basin, including more than 1000 species of birds. Venezuela’s
effort to protect habitats led to the establishment (1962) of
Canaima National Park in the Guiana Highlands, which with an
area of nearly 11,600 square miles is the largest park on the
continent.
69. Argentina and Chile share significant oil deposits bordering the
Strait of Magellan in Patagonia and Tierra del Fuego.
South America contains about one-fifth of the world’s iron ore
reserves. The most important beds are located in Brazil and
Venezuela, supplying domestic iron and steel industries as well as
significant exports. The great majority of the continent’s reserves
are in the Brazilian states of Minas Gerais, Pará, and Mato
Grosso do Sul, where lodes of magnetite and hematite ores
contain up to 50 to 65% iron content. In Venezuela, sites like
Mount Bolívar and El Pao in the Sierra de Imataca at the base of
the Guiana Highlands have reserves of ore containing a high
percentage of iron.
Among ferroalloys, manganese occurs in sedimentary forms in
the Brazilian states of Amapá and Minas Gerais, as well as in
highland Bolivia. It is also found in much lesser quantities in
Argentina, Chile, Ecuador, and Uruguay.
70.
1. Pico da Neblina is the highest peak in Brazil, 2995.3 metres
(9827 ft) above sea level.
2. Mount Roraima lies on the Guiana Shield in the southeastern
corner of Venezuela’s 30,000 square-kilometre (12,000 square-
mile) Canaima National Park forming the highest peak of
Guyana’s Highland Range.
3. Julianatop is the highest mountain in Suriname at 1280
metres (4199 ft). It is located in the Sipaliwini District.
4. Bolívar Peak, also called Pico Bolívar or La Columna,
mountain in Sierra Nevada National Park, northwestern
Venezuela. Rising 16,332 feet (4978 metres), it is the highest
mountain in the Cordillera de Merida and in Venezuela.
71.
1. Hua Hum Pass is an international mountain pass in the Andes
between Chile and Argentina.
2. Chungara-Tambo Quemado is a mountain pass through the
Cordillera Occidental of the Andes along the border between
Chile and Bolivia.
3. Ticlio (or Anticona) is a mountain pass and the highest point of
the central road of Peru (km 120), in the Andes mountains,
reaching a height of 4818 metres (15,807 ft)
4. The Uspallata Pass, Bermejo Pass or Cumbre Pass, is an
Andean pass which provides a route between the wine-growing
region around the Argentine city of Mendoza, the Chilean city
Los Andes and Santiago the Chilean capital situated in the
central Chilean valley.
72.
• Left tributaries: Marañón, Napo, Japurá/Caquetá, Rio
Negro/Guainía, Putumayo, Trombetas
• Right tributaries: Ucayali, Javary, Juruá, Purús, Madeira,
Tapajós, Xingu
73. Mt. Cotopaxi- Ecuador
Mt. Coropuna- Peru
Mt. Aconcagua- Chile
Mt. San Valentin- South Chile
74.
1. Soybeans have become an increasingly lucrative crop in the
Pampas.
2. Brazil is the world’s third-largest beef exporter (behind only
Australia and the United States). Argentina is also an important
beef exporter.
3. Coffee is mainly produced in Colombia.
4. Viti culture is prevalent in Valparaiso.
75. Atacama houses the world’s largest deposits of copper. Brazil is
South America’s leading gold producer, with deposits in the
Amazon basin accounting for much of the output. Peru has
historically been one of the world’s main silver exporters, primarily
from mines extending from Cerro de Pasco to Huancayo in the
Andes, but production has decreased since the early 1970s.
Ecuadorean silver is located primarily in the Andes, while
Colombia, Argentina, and Bolivia also exploit this metal in their
highland areas. Platinum is found in the Cordillera Occidental of
Colombia as well as in smaller quantities in association with the
copper-mining activities of central Peru.
76. Soil erosion has ravaged a large part of the continent. According
to some estimates, in several countries half or more of the
presently arable land has been severely damaged or ruined by
poor land high yields of wheat is now abandoned. Mountain
management. In the Andes, land that once produced forests are
still cleared for cattle grazing and cultivation, which greatly
accelerates erosion and ruins the soil of the region for years
thereafter. Soil damage has been less severe in areas of relatively
flat terrain. Campaigns for soil conservation or restoration have
been implemented in most countries. “South America” ©
Emmanuel BUCHOT, Encarta.
10
Geography of Australia
1. Name the line that passes through the middle of the Australian
continent?
(a) Tropic of Cancer (b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Equator
(d) 0 Degree longitude
2. Which of the following is the largest city of Australia?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Sydney
(c) Adelaide
(d) Brisbane
3. Who discovered Australia in 1770?
(a) Vasco de Gama (b) Matthew Flinders
(c) Stephen Hawkins (d) James Cook
4. Choose the number of time zones in Australia?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
5. ‘Laughing Jacks’ of Australia is a
(a) Kangaroo
(b) Kookaburra
(c) Koala
(d) Emu
6. Name the highest peak in Australia?
(a) Mt. Townsend
(b) Mawson Peak
(c) Mt. Kosciusko
(d) Mt. Cook
7. Which of the following is the oldest continent?
(a) Africa
(b) Australia
(c) Europe
(d) Asia
8. Which of the following is the longest river in Australia?
(a) Nile River
(b) Mississippi River
(c) Murray River
(d) Thames River
9. The large, sandstone situated in centre of Australia:
(a) The Rock of Ages (b) Twelve Apostles
(c) Uluru(Ayers Rock) (d) The Pinnacles
10. Which of the following Continent has no active volcanic regions?
(a) North America
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
11. The national gemstone of Australia is
(a) Ruby
(b) Opal
(c) Sapphire
(d) Diamond
12. The world’s largest coral reef system
(a) Belize Barrier Reef
(b) Great Barrier Reef
(c) New Caledonian Barrier Reef
(d) Amazon Reef
13. Which of the following is not an Australian State?
(a) Tasmania
(b) Madrid
(c) Queensland
(d) Victoria
14. Which of the following is mined at Coober Pedy in South
Australia?
(a) Ruby
(b) Sapphire
(c) Opal
(d) Diamond
15. Tasmania is separated from Australia by
(a) Davis Strait
(b) Maliku Kandu
(c) Strait of Gibraltar
(d) Bass Strait
16. Which of the following river does not belong to Australia?
(a) Darling
(b) Murray
(c) Murrum Bidgee
(d) Danube
17. The Great Victoria is the largest desert belonging to
(a) Europe
(b) South America
(c) Australia
(d) North America
18. Kimberley in Australia is famous for
(a) Mica
(b) Gold
(c) Diamond
(d) Iron
19. Adelaide is located in
(a) Western Australia (b) South Australia
(c) New South Wales (d) Northern Territory
20. Which of the following is the cool ocean current?
(a) Western Australia Current
(b) East Australia Current
(c) Both
(d) None
21. WHYALLA is a major centre for
(a) Iron and Steel industry
(b) Ruby
(c) Opal
(d) Sapphire
22. Which of the following comments Mediterranean Climate in
Australia.
(a) SE Australia (b) SW Australia
(c) Northern Australia (d) Both (a) and (b)
23. Which of the following regions constitutes artesian basin.
(a) North Australia (b) SE Australia
(c) Western Australia (d) Central Australia
24. Western Australia is dry because of which Current?
(a) Leeuwin Current
(b) Western Australia Current
(c) Eastern Australia Current
(d) Benguela Current
25. The Highest water falls in Australia
(a) Krimml Waterfalls (b) Myra
(c) Wildenstiner (d) Gollinger
26. Choose the incorrect option:

1. The Capital of Western Australia is Canberra
2. Perth city in Australia is situated on Swan River
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
27. Choose the correct one:
1. Tanami Desert is located in Southern Australia.
2. Simpson Desert is the largest desert of Australia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
28. Which of the following are tributaries of River Murray?
1. Murrumbidgee
2. Mitta Mitta
3. Goulburn
(a) 1,2
(b) 1,3
(c) 2,3
(d) 1,2,3
29. Choose the incorrect statement/s.
1. West Australian Current is cold current.
2. East Australian Current is warm current.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
30. Choose the incorrect statement:
1. Timor Sea is to the east of Australia.
2. Coral Sea is to the northeast of Australia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Great Dividing Range is also known as Eastern Highland.
2. It is an example of block fault mountain.
3. It is a major source of minerals, water and hydel-power.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
1. Fremantle is known for iron ore reserves.
2. Pilbara is the largest port of western Australia.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Australia lies between Indian and Pacific Ocean.
2. It currently has no active volcanism.
3. It is the only continent that is also a country.
4. Australia is the lowest, flattest, and oldest continental landmass
on Earth.
(a) 1,2,3 only
(b) 2,3,4 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. Highest peak in Australia is Mount Kosciuszko.
2. Mount Wycheproof is the world’s smallest mountain.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) All of the above
1. The Brigalow Belt is a wide band of acacia wooded grassland
that runs between tropical rainforest of the coast and the semi
arid interior of Tasmania.
2. Lake Eyre is the salt lake of central South Australia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
36. The three Murray states which signed the River Murray Agreement
are:
(a) New South Wales, Victoria and South Australia
(b) Victoria, New South Wales and Tasmania
(c) South Australia, Tasmania and Victoria
(d) South Australia, New South Wales and Queensland
37. The world’s largest coral reef “GREAT BARRIER REEF” is located
in
(a) Queensland
(b) Western Australia
(c) New South Wales
(d) South Australia
(i) Western Plateau (1) Nullarbor Plain
(ii) The Eastern alluvial Plains (2) Brigalow Belt
(iii) The South Australian
(3) Eyre Peninsula
Highlands
(4) Lake Eyre
(iv) The Eastern Highlands
Basin
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-4, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(c) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
39. In which part of the state is Lake Disaapointment located?
(a) Western Australia (b) Northern territory (c) South Australia (d)
New South Wales
40. Arrange the following lakes from north to south:
1. Lake Lefroy
2. Lake Carey
3. Lake Cowan
4. Lake Dundas
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 2-1-4-3
41. Choose the incorrect statements:
1. Investigator Strait separates Gulf of Spencer and Gulf of
St.Vincent.
2. Investigator Strait is located on the south of Australia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None
42. Which of the following is correct?
1. Sydney is home to the iconic Opera House.
2. It is the capital of New South Wales.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above (d) Both (a) and (b)
43. Which Australian state is home for Daintree rainforest?
(a) Victoria
(b) New South Wales
(c) Queensland
(d) Tasmania
44. Choose the incorrect one.
1. Murphy’s Haystacks are inselberg rock formations located at
Mortana.
2. It is situated in between Streaky Bay and Port Kenn.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None
45. Choose the correct option:
1. Port Jackson is located in Sydney.
2. Port Jackson is natural harbour of Sydney.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None of the above
1. West coast trough will have larger impact on rainfall than the
easterly trough.
2. Nullarbor Plain is a part of southern Australia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
47. Choose the correct option:
1. Rum Jungle is a located on the East Branch of the Darling
River.
2. It is the site of Uranium deposit.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) None
48. Which of the following is a World Heritage Site in the Gascoyne
region of Western Australia? (a) Collier Bay
(b) Shark Bay
(c) Brunswick Bay
(d) Hervey Bay
49. Which of the following are rivers of Australia?
1. Darling river
2. Murrumbidgee river
3. Paroo River
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
50. Which of the following is/are correct regarding correlation between
Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and Australia’s monsoon?
1. Positive IOD - More rains in Australia
2. Negative IOD - Less than average rainfall in North-western part
of Australia
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
51. Which of the following are largest seaports of Australia?

1. Seaport of Brisbane
2. Seaport of Tauranga
3. Seaport of Melbourne
4. Seaport of Fremantle Select the correct option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
(i) New Caledonia (1) North of Australia
(ii) Great Australian Bight (2) North-east of Australia
(iii) Arafura sea (3) North-west of Australia
(iv) Timor sea (4) South of Australia
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-2, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
53. Which of the following are correct regarding Australia?
1. The largest area of oldest rocks is the Western Shield.
2. The youngest rocks are found in the growing fold belt of the
Banda arcs and in New Guinea.
3. The modern fold belts are separated from Australia by a “moat”
and a wide shelf.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
1. The chain of very high plateaus in Australia is called Great
Dividing Range.
2. Downs-Grassland in Australia is called as ‘Parkland of
Australia’.
3. Kangaroo in Australia is called ‘Laughing Jacks’.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
(i) Victoria river (1) Queensland
(ii) Flinders river (2) Western Australia
(iii) South Esk river (3) Northern Territory
(iv) Gascoyne river (4) Tasmania
(a) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1
(b) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-2
56. Which of the following are potential effects of El Nino on Australia?
1. Decreased alpine snow depths
2. Warmer temperatures
3. Increased frost risk
4. Increased fire danger in southeast Australia Select the correct
option:
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
57. The air above Antarctica is suddenly getting warmer. What does it
mean for Australia?
1. Bring above-average spring temperatures.
2. Bring above-average rainfall across large parts of New South
Wales and southern Queensland.
3. Sudden stratospheric warming takes place.
4. Shift of the Southern Ocean westerly winds towards the
Equator.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
58. Which of the following are correct regarding Australian monsoon?
1. The northern Australian monsoon season generally lasts from
July to October.
2. It is associated with the inflow of moist west to northwesterly
winds into the monsoon trough.
3. Produces convective cloud and heavy rainfall over northern
Australia.
4. These moisture-laden winds originate from the Pacific Ocean
and southern American waters.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3
(c) 1,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
59. Which of the following are correct regarding role of Indian Ocean
Dipole (IOD) on Australia?
1. Warmer than average sea surface temperatures can provide
more moisture for frontal systems and lows crossing Australia.
2. IOD generally coincide with the summer crop growing season.
3. Events usually start around May or June.
4. It peaks between August and October.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
60. Which of the following are correct regarding impact of Blocking
highs on Australia?
1. Blocking highs disrupt the flow of low pressure systems across
southern Australia.
2. These highs essentially “block” the west to east progression of
weather systems across southern Australia.
3. As frontal systems approach the blocking high, they become
more violent.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
61. Which of the following are correct regarding Cut-off lows?
1. Cut-off lows bring enhanced rainfall to parts of Northern
Australia.
2. A cut-off low may develop when a low pressure system forms
on an active cold front.
3. Alternatively, they may form in an unstable easterly flow on the
northern flank of a slow- moving or blocking high.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
62. Which of the following are correct regarding Easterly Trough?
1. Easterly, or inland, troughs bring rainfall to central and inland
parts of eastern Australia.
2. Easterly troughs are a dominant feature of the synoptic pattern
over Australia during the Winter months.
3. The trough is located on the lee side of the Great Dividing
Range.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
63. Which of the following are correct regarding frontal systems?
1. Australia can be affected by both warm fronts and cold fronts,
however cold fronts are more common and have a greater
impact on the Australian region.
2. Frontal systems bring rainfall to southern Australia.
3. Stationary fronts and occluded fronts, both of these are much
less common in the Australian region.
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,3 only
(d) 1,2,3
64. Which of the following are correct regarding Madden-Julian
Oscillation?
1. The Madden-Julian Oscillation is associated with weekly to
monthly periods of enhanced and suppressed rainfall over parts
of Australia.
2. The MJO can be characterised as an eastward moving “pulse”
of cloud and rainfall near the equator that occurs throughout the
summer.
3. MJO effects are most evident over the Indian Ocean and
western equatorial Pacific.
4. Tropical cyclones are also more likely to develop in association
with certain phases of a strong MJO event.
(a) 1,2
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
65. Which of the following are correct regarding Northwest
cloudbands?
1. Northwest cloudbands bring rain to much of northwestern
Australia and lowers rainfall activity over central and
southeastern Australia.
2. Northwest cloudbands are formed when warm, moist tropical air
originating over the Indian Ocean moves poleward.
3. Northwest cloudbands can also interact with cold fronts and cut-
off lows over southeastern Australia.
4. When Indian Ocean sea surface temperatures to the northwest
of Australia are warmer than average, northwest cloudbands
may become more frequent and produce heavier rainfall.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
66. Arrange the following from north to south.
1. Great Sandy desert
2. Great Victoria desert
3. Gibson desert
4. Tanami desert Select the correct option
(a) 1-3-4-2
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 4-1-3-2
67. Arrange the following from South to North.
1. Canberra
2. Melbourne
3. Brisbane
4. Sydney
(a) 1-2-4-3
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 4-1-3-2
(d) 2-1-4-3
68. Arrange the following Ranges from West to East.
1. Flinders Ranges
2. New England Ranges
3. Barrier Ranges
4. Darling Ranges Select the correct option:
(a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) 3-4-2-1
69. Which of the following are correct regarding Southern Annual
mode (SAM)?
1. The Southern Annular Mode can result in enhanced rainfall in
regions of southern Australia.
2. It is also known as the Antarctic Oscillation (AAO).
3. The SAM refers to the north/south movement of the strong
westerly winds that dominate the middle to higher latitudes of
the Southern Hemisphere.
4. It is also associated with the storm systems and cold fronts that
move from west to east.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
70. Which of the following are correct regarding Sub-tropical Ridge?
1. The sub-tropical ridge brings wet and unstable conditions to
large parts of Australia.
2. The sub-tropical ridge runs across a belt of high pressure that
encircles the globe in the middle latitudes.
3. During the warmer half of the year in southern Australia
(November to April), the subtropical ridge is generally located to
the south of the continent.
4. High pressure systems generally move eastwards along the
ridge.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
71. Which of the following are correct regarding Trade winds?
1. The strength of the Trade Winds has an effect upon the rainfall
across northern Australia.
2. The Trade Winds are the east to southeasterly winds which
blow across much of the southern hemisphere tropics, affecting
tropical to subtropical areas of Australia.
3. They are associated with enhanced rainfall to tropical and sub-
tropical areas of the east coast.
4. The Trade Winds are strongest during the winter months.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. Tropical depressions may bring heavy rainfall to affected parts
of northern Australia.
2. Tropical depressions are associated with occasional
thunderstorms, fresh to strong and gusty winds and heavy rain,
often leading to flooding of affected areas.
3. Tropical cyclones affect all of northern Australia, with the
northwest of Western Australia between Broome and Exmouth
being the most cyclone prone part of Australia’s coastline.
4. The Australian cyclone season officially runs from April to
November.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
73. Which of the following are correct regarding Upper level Trough?
1. Upper level troughs can bring enhanced rainfall to Australia.
2. An upper level trough is a trough of High pressure which has
formed in the upper levels of the atmosphere.
3. Upper level troughs can result in the formation of a cloudbands.
4. Upper level troughs can aid in the development of surface level
features, such as frontal systems.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
74. Which of the following are correct regarding ocean currents along
Australia?
1. Indonesian throughflow is a system of currents that carries
water eastward from the Indian ocean to the Pacific Ocean
through the deep passages and straits of the Indonesian
Archipelago.
2. The Leeuwin Current then flows Eastward across the Great
Australian Bight.
3. The East Australian Current is usually stronger in summer.
4. The Antarctic Circumpolar Current comprises the world’s
longest ocean current.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
1. Across the north coast of Australia the ocean areas have lower
salinity.
2. The salinity of the ocean regions south of the tropics and above
the Southern Ocean is higher.
3. South of the continent the salinity of the Southern Ocean is
lower.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,2,3
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d)
46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d)
56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b)
66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c)
Explanations
1. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of the
Australian continent.
2. Sydney is the state capital of New South Wales and the most
populous city in Australia and Oceania. Located on Australia’s east
coast, the metropolis surrounds the world’s largest natural harbour
and sprawls about 70 km (43.5 mi) on its periphery towards the
Blue Mountains to the west, Hawkesbury to the north and
Macarthur to the south. Sydney is made up of 658 suburbs, 40
local government areas and 15 contiguous regions. Residents of
the city are known as “Sydneysiders”. As on June 2016, Sydney’s
estimated population was 5,029,768.
3. Australia was discovered for the first time in 1770, by James
Cooke. He landed near the Sydney harbour.
4. There are three main time zones in Australia. It is equal to
Greenwich Meantime plus 10 hours (GMT +10).
5. Kookaburra and Lyre Bird are unique creatures found in Australia.
The former can laugh and later is a great mimi. Kookaburra is also
called ‘Laughing Jacks’.
6. Mt. Kosciusko is the highest peak in Australia. Mt. Townsend ranks
as second.
7. Earth’s oldest known piece of continental crust dates to the era of
the moon’s formation. Australia holds the oldest continental crust
on Earth, researchers have confirmed, hills some 4.4 billion years
old.
8. The River Murray is Australia’s longest river. It is 2508 km long,
spanning New South Wales, Victoria and South Australia.
9. Uluru, also known as Ayers Rock, is a large sandstone formation
situated in central Australia approximately 335 km from Alice
Springs.
10. Australia is situated in the middle of the tectonic plate, and
therefore currently has no active volcanism.
11. Australia’s national gemstone is the opal, a stone famous across
the world for its brilliant colours. In Indigenous stories, a rainbow
created the colours of the opal when it touched the earth. Opal,
also known to Indigenous people as the fire of the desert, is a
powerful symbol of Australia’s arid interior.
12. The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system
composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching
for over 2,300 km over an area of approximately 344,400 square
km. The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of
Queensland, Australia.
13. Madrid, Spain’s central capital is a city of elegant boulevards.
14. Coober Pedy is sometimes referred to as the “opal capital of the
world” because of the quantity of precious opals that are mined
there.
15. Tasmania is separated from mainland Australia by Bass Strait.
Davis Strait is a northern arm of the Labrador Sea. It lies between
mid-western Greenland and Nunavut, Canada’s Baffin Island. To
Maliku Kandu and Mamale Kandu Divehi are the traditional names
of the broad Minicoy Channel between Minicoy and
Ihavandippolhu in the north of the Maldives The Strait of Gibraltar
is probably the world’s most famous strait. It connects the Atlantic
Ocean on its west with the Mediterranean Sea on its east.
16. The Danube is Europe’s second longest river, after the Volga. It is
located in Central and Eastern Europe. Rivers Darling, Murray,
Murrum Bidgee are the rivers of Australia.
17. The Great Victoria Desert, an interim Australian bioregion, is a
sparsely populated desert area in Western Australia and South
Australia.
18. The Kimberley region, in northern Western Australia, has been a
prolific source of diamonds since the 1980s. Western Australia is
particularly famous for its production of coloured diamonds and
has become the primary source of pink diamonds for the world’s
markets.
19. Adelaide is the most populous city and capital of the Australian
state of South Australia (SA). The fifth largest city in the country is
located in the southern area of the Adelaide Plains on the
southeastern coast of Australia at a natural harbor of St Vincent
Gulf, with Fleurieu Peninsula to the south. The city has a
population of about 1.32 million residents
20. The West Australian Current (or the Western Australian Current),
is a cool surface current of the Southern Ocean and Southern
Indian Ocean
21. WHYALLA is a major centre for Iron and Steel industry.
22. This is under the influence of westerly winds & get rainfall during
winters.
23. This region has a hard rock below the surface and accumulation of
water.
25. The Krimml Waterfalls with a total height of 380 m (1,247 ft), are
the highest Waterfall in Australia.

26. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Perth is the Capital of WESTERN
Australia.
Statement 2: CORRECT—Perth city in Australia is situated on
Swan River.
27. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The Tanami Desert is a desert in
northern Australia, situated in the Northern Territory.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The Great Victoria Desert is
Australia’s largest desert.
28. Murray River principal tributaries are the Darling, Murrumbidgee,
Mitta Mitta, Ovens, Goulburn, Campaspe, and Loddon rivers.
29. Statement 1: CORRECT—The West Australian Current (or the
Western Australian Current), is a cool surface current of the
Southern Ocean and Southern Indian Ocean.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The East Australian Current, made
famous by the Disney movie Finding Nemo, is a large scale flow of
water that runs south along the east coast of Australia. It sweeps
warm tropical waters from the Coral Sea southwards to interact
with the cool temperate waters of the Tasman Sea.
30. Statement 1: INCORRECT—The Timor Sea is a relatively shallow
sea bounded to the north by the island of Timor, to the east by the
Arafura Sea, to the south by Australia.
Statement 2: CORRECT—The Coral Sea is a marginal sea of the
South Pacific off the northeast coast of Australia, and classified as
an interim Australian bioregion. The Coral Sea extends 2000 km
down the Australian northeast coast.
31. The Great Dividing Range, or the Eastern Highlands, is Australia’s
largest mountain range. The mountains and plateaus, which
consist of limestones, sandstone, quartzite, schists and dolomite,
have been created by faulting and folding processes is an example
of block fault mountain.
32. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Fremantle is a major Australian port
city in Western Australia, located at the mouth of the Swan River.
Fremantle Harbour serves as the port of Perth, the state capital.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—The Pilbara is a large, dry, thinly
populated region in the north of Western Australia. It is known for
its Aboriginal peoples; its ancient landscapes; the red earth; its
vast mineral deposits, in particular iron ore; and as a global
biodiversity hotspot for subterranean fauna.
33. Australia is a continent and an island located in Oceania between
the Indian Ocean and the South Pacific Ocean. Australia is
situated in the middle of the tectonic plate, and therefore currently
has no active volcanism Australia is the lowest, flattest, and oldest
continental landmass on Earth and it has had a relatively stable
geological history
34. Australia’s highest peak is Mount Kosciuszko at 2228 metres
(7310 ft), which is relatively low in comparison to the highest
mountains on other continents. The smallest mountain in the world
is the little known Mount Wycheproof at 141 feet above the
surrounding terrain. However, the mountain stands 486 feet above
the sea level. The mountain is located in Terrick Terrick Range in
Australia. The range is in the small town of Wycheproof, Victoria.
35. The Brigalow Belt is a wide band of acacia wooded grassland that
runs between tropical rainforest of the coast and the semi-arid
interior of Queensland, Australia. Lake Eyre, also called Kati
Thanda-Lake Eyre, great salt lake in central South Australia, with a
total area of 4,281 square miles (11,088 square km). It lies in the
southwestern corner of the Great Artesian Basin, a closed inland
basin about 440,150 square miles (1,140,000 sq. km) in area that
is drained only by intermittent streams.
36. In 1915, the three Murray states - New South Wales, Victoria, and
South Australia - signed the River Murray Agreement which
proposed the construction of storage reservoirs in the river’s
headwaters as well as at Lake Victoria near the South Australian
border. Along the intervening stretch of the river a series of locks
and weirs were built. These were originally proposed to support
navigation even in times of low water, but river borne transport was
already declining due to improved highway and railway systems.
37. The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system
composed of over 2900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching
for over 2300 km (1,400 mi) over an area of approximately 344,400
sq. km (133,000 sq mi). The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off
the coast of Queensland of Australia.
38. The Australian continental landmass consists of six distinct
landform divisions. These are: The Eastern Highlands-including
the Great Dividing Range, the fertile Brigalow Belt strip of
grassland behind the east coast, and the Eastern Uplands The
Eastern alluvial Plains and Lowlands-the Murray Darling basin
covers the southern part; also includes parts of the Lake Eyre
Basin and extends to the Gulf of Carpentaria The South Australian
Highlands-including the Flinders Range, Eyre Peninsula, and
Yorke Peninsula The Western Plateau-including the Nullarbor Plain
The Central Deserts Northern Plateau and Basins— including the
Top End.
39. Lake Disappointment, or Kumpupintil/Kumpupirntily in the Western
Desert Language, is an endorheic salt lake located in the Pilbara
region of Western Australia.
40. Carey - Lefroy - Cowan - Dundas
41. Investigator Strait separates Gulf of Spencer and Gulf of
St.Vincent. It is located on the south of Australia.
42. Sydney, capital of New South Wales and one of Australia’s largest
cities, is best known for its har- bourfront Sydney Opera House,
with a distinctive sail-like design.
43. The Daintree Rainforest is a region on the northeast coast of
Queensland, Australia, north of Mossman and Cairns. At around
1,200 square km, the Daintree is a part of the largest continuous
area of tropical rainforest on the Australian continent.
44. Murphy’s Haystacks are inselberg rock formations located at
Mortana, between Streaky Bay and Port Kenny on the Eyre
Peninsula in South Australia.
45. Port Jackson, consisting of the waters of Sydney Harbour, Middle
Harbour, North Harbour and the Lane Cove and Parramatta
Rivers, is the ria or natural harbour of Sydney, New South Wales,
Australia. The harbour is an inlet of the Tasman Sea. It is the
location of the Sydney Opera House and Sydney Harbour Bridge.
46. A trough system is also present near the west coast of Western
Australia during the summer months (known as the west coast
trough), however this trough does not have as large an impact on
rainfall as the easterly trough. The Nullarbor Plain is part of the
area of flat, almost treeless, arid or semi-arid country of southern
Australia, located on the Great Australian Bight coast with the
Great Victoria Desert to its north.
47. Rum Jungle is a locality in the Northern Territory of Australia
located about 105 km south of Darwin on the East Branch of the
Finniss River. It is the site of a uranium deposit, found in 1949,
which has been mined.
48. Shark Bay is a World Heritage Site in the Gascoyne region of
Western Australia. The 23,000 sq. kilometres area is located
approximately 800 km north of Perth, on the westernmost point of
the Australian continent.
49.
50. Statement 1: INCORRECT—Positive IOD phase:
Westerly winds weaken along the equator allowing warm water to
shift towards Africa. Changes in the winds also allow cool water to
rise up from the deep ocean in the east. This sets up a
temperature difference across the tropical Indian Ocean with
cooler than normal water in the east and warmer than normal
water in the west. Generally this means there is less moisture than
normal in the atmosphere to the northwest of Australia. This
changes the path of weather systems coming from Australia’s
west, often resulting in less rainfall and higher than normal
temperatures over parts of Australia during winter and spring.
Statement 2: INCORRECT—Negative IOD phase:
Westerly winds intensify along the equator, allowing warmer waters
to concentrate near Australia. This sets up a temperature
difference across the tropical Indian Ocean, with warmer than
normal water in the east and cooler than normal water in the west.
A negative IOD typically results in above-average winter-spring
rainfall over parts of southern Australia as the warmer waters off
northwest Australia provide more available moisture to weather
systems crossing the country.

51. The biggest seaports in Australia:
• Seaport of Brisbane - currently it is the third busiest port in
Australia and the fastest growing container port.
• Seaport of Fremantle
• Seaport of Melbourne
• Seaport of Sydney
52.
53. The largest area of oldest rocks is the Western Shield, comprising
the western half of the continent, which has been eroded to a low
relief. The youngest rocks are found in the growing fold belt of the
Banda arcs and in New Guinea at the boundary between the
Indian-Australian plate and the Eurasian and Pacific plates. The
modern fold belts are separated from Australia by a “moat” (the
Timor Trough) and a wide shelf (the Timor and Arafura seas).
54.
1. In the eastern part of Australia a high land is found which runs
parallel to the coast. This chain of very high plateaus is called
Great Dividing Range.
2. Downs-Grassland in Australia is called as ‘Parkland of
Australia.
3. Kookaburra in Australia is called ‘Laughing Jacks’.
55.
56. Potential effects of El Niño on Australia include:

• Reduced rainfall
• Warmer temperatures
• Shift in temperature extremes
• Increased frost risk
• Reduced tropical cyclone numbers
• Later monsoon onset
• Increased fire danger in southeast Australia
• Decreased alpine snow depths
57. The air above Antarctica is suddenly getting warmer - here’s
what it means for Australia
1. Record warm temperatures above Antarctica over the coming
weeks are likely to bring aboveaverage spring temperatures
and below-average rainfall across large parts of New South
Wales and southern Queensland.
2. The warming began in the last week of August, when
temperatures in the stratosphere high above the South Pole
began rapidly heating in a phenomenon called “sudden
stratospheric warming”.
3. In the coming weeks the warming is forecast to intensify, and its
effects will extend downward to Earth’s surface, affecting much
of eastern Australia over the coming months.
4. Impacts from this stratospheric warming are likely to reach
Earth’s surface in the next month and possibly extend through
to January.
5. Apart from warming the Antarctic region, the most notable effect
will be a shift of the Southern Ocean westerly winds towards the
Equator.
6. For regions directly in the path of the strongest westerlies,
which includes western Tasmania, New Zealand’s South Island,
and Patagonia in South America, this generally results in more
storminess and rainfall, and colder temperatures.
7. But for subtropical Australia, which largely sits north of the main
belt of westerlies, the shift results in reduced rainfall, clearer
skies, and warmer temperatures.
58. The northern Australian monsoon season generally lasts from
December to March. It is associated with the inflow of moist west
to northwesterly winds into the monsoon trough, producing
convective cloud and heavy rainfall over northern Australia. These
moisture-laden winds originate from the Indian Ocean and
southern Asian waters. The north Australian wet season
encompasses the monsoon months but can extend several months
on either side.
59. Sea surface temperatures
Indian Ocean sea surface temperatures impact rainfall and
temperature patterns over Australia. Warmer than average sea
surface temperatures can provide more moisture for frontal
systems and lows crossing Australia.
Indian Ocean Dipole
Sustained changes in the difference between sea surface
temperatures of the tropical western and eastern Indian Ocean are
known as the Indian Ocean Dipole or IOD. The IOD is one of the
key drivers of Australia’s climate and can have a significant impact
on agriculture. This is because events generally coincide with the
winter crop growing season. The IOD has three phases: neutral,
positive and negative. Events usually start around May or June,
peak between August and October and then rapidly decay when
the monsoon arrives in the southern hemisphere around the end of
spring.
60. Blocking highs disrupt the flow of low pressure systems across
southern Australia
What are they?
Blocking highs are strong high pressure systems which have
formed further south than usual and remain near stationary for an
extended period of time. These highs essentially “block” the west
to east progression of weather systems across southern Australia.
Blocking highs are often, although not always, associated with a
cut-off low which may form to the north of the blocking high, the
two systems creating a blocking pattern. As frontal systems
approach the blocking high, they slow down, weaken and tend to
slip to the south of the high pressure system.
61. Cut-off lows bring enhanced rainfall to parts of southern Australia.
What are they?
Cut-off lows are low pressure systems which have broken away, or
are cut-off, from the main belt of low pressure which lies to the
south of Australia. They can be at any level in the atmosphere, and
therefore may not show on the surface charts.
A cut-off low may develop when a low pressure system forms on
an active cold front. Alternatively, they may form in an unstable
easterly flow on the northern flank of a slow-moving or blocking
high. This dual system is sometimes referred to as a blocking pair.
East Coast Lows are a form of intense cut-off low which are visible
on surface charts.
62. Easterly, or inland, troughs bring rainfall to central and inland parts
of eastern Australia.
What are they?
Easterly troughs are a dominant feature of the synoptic pattern
over Australia during the summer months. The trough is located on
the lee side (inland side) of the Great Dividing Range, forming a
boundary between the moist air near the coast and dry air inland. It
extends through central Queensland and central New South
Wales, sometimes extending right down into northern Victoria. It is
partly formed by the intense heating of the land during the summer
months, but the topography of the region also plays a role.
63. Frontal systems bring rainfall to southern Australia.
What are they?
Australia can be affected by both warm fronts and cold fronts,
however cold fronts are more common and have a greater impact
on the Australian region. A cold front is formed when cold dense
air advances equatorwards, causing warm air to be forced aloft
over its sloping surface. A warm front is formed when warm air of
lower density moves polewards, sliding over the sloping surface
formed by a colder air mass.
Stationary fronts are simply fronts which remain very slow-
moving or near stationary. Another type of front is the occluded
front. Both of these are much less common in the Australian
region.
Frontal systems affect all of southern Australia. They can occur
at any time of year, however they have the greatest impact during
the winter months. Fronts generally move across southern
Australia from west to east, and can be in the Australian region
from a couple of days to a week.
64. The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):
• The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is a global-scale feature
of the tropical atmosphere.
• The MJO is the major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to
monthly timescales. The MJO can be characterised as an
eastward moving "pulse" of cloud and rainfall near the equator
that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days. However, the signal of
the MJO in the tropical atmosphere is not always present.
• MJO effects are most evident over the Indian Ocean and western
equatorial Pacific. It influences the timing, development and
strength of the major global monsoon patterns, including the
Indian and Australian monsoons.
• Tropical cyclones are also more likely to develop in association
with certain phases of a strong MJO event.
• The MJO is associated with variations in wind, cloudiness, and
rainfall. Most tropical rainfall comes from tall thunderstorms
which have very cold tops. Thunderstorms that have cold tops
emit only low levels of longwave radiation. Therefore, the MJO
can be monitored by using satellite measurements of outgoing
longwave radiation (OLR) to identify areas of cloudiness (low
OLR) within the tropics.
65. Northwest cloudbands bring rain to much of northwestern,
central and southeastern Australia.
What are they?
A northwest cloudband is an extensive layer of cloud which can
stretch from northwest to southeast Australia.
Northwest cloudbands are formed when warm, moist tropical
air originating over the Indian Ocean moves poleward (generally
southeastward), and is forced to rise over colder air in the mid-
latitudes. This typically occurs when tropical air to the northwest of
Australia moves poleward on the western flank of a high pressure
system over eastern Australia.
Northwest cloudbands can also interact with cold fronts and
cut-off lows over southeastern Australia to produce very heavy
rainfall.
Northwest cloudbands may have links with the Indian Ocean
Dipole. When Indian Ocean sea surface temperatures to the
northwest of Australia are warmer than average, northwest
cloudbands may become more frequent and produce heavier
rainfall.
66. Tanami desert- Great sandy desert- Gibson desert- Great Victoria
desert.
(See Figure on next page)
67. All cities lies on eastern Australia.
From south to north: Melbourne-Canberra-Sydney- Brisbane
(See Figure on page no. 193)
68. All ranges lies on southern Australia
From west to east: Darling Ranges- Flinders RangesBarrier
Ranges- New England Ranges
69. The Southern Annular Mode can result in enhanced rainfall in
regions of southern Australia.
What is it?
The Southern Annular Mode, or SAM, also known as the Antarctic
Oscillation (AAO), is a mode of variability which can affect rainfall
in southern Australia. The SAM refers to the north/south movement
of the strong westerly winds that dominate the middle to higher
latitudes of the Southern Hemisphere. The belt of strong westerly
winds in the Southern Hemisphere is also associated with the
storm systems and cold fronts that move from west to east.
During a “positive” SAM event, the belt of strong westerly winds
contracts towards the south pole. This results in weaker than
normal westerly winds and higher pressure over southern
Australia. Conversely, a “negative” SAM event reflects an
equatorward expansion of the belt of strong westerly winds. This
shift in the westerly winds results in more storm systems and lower
pressure over southern Australia.
It is interesting to note that there appears to be an increasing
trend in the SAM. During the summer and autumn months
(December through to May) the SAM shows an increasing
tendency to remain in a positive phase, with westerly winds
contracted towards the south pole.
70. The sub-tropical ridge brings dry and stable conditions to large
parts of Australia.
What is it?
The sub-tropical ridge runs across a belt of high pressure that
encircles the globe in the middle latitudes. It is part of the global
circulation of the atmosphere.
The position of the sub-tropical ridge plays an important part in
the way the weather in Australia varies from season to season.
During the warmer half of the year in southern Australia
(November to April), the sub-tropical ridge is generally located to
the south of the continent. High pressure systems (also called
anticyclones), which are associated with stable and dry conditions,
generally move eastwards along the ridge.
In autumn, the sub-tropical ridge moves northward and remains
over the Australian continent for most of the colder half of the year
in southern Australia (May to October). Conditions along the ridge,
under the influence of the high pressure systems dry and
descending air, tend to be stable and drier.
71. The strength of the Trade Winds has an effect upon the rainfall
across northern Australia.
What are they?
The Trade Winds are the east to southeasterly winds which blow
across much of the southern hemisphere tropics, affecting tropical
to subtropical areas of Australia.
The Trade Winds affect much of northern and parts of eastern
Australia. They collect moisture as they move eastward over the
tropical Pacific Ocean towards the east coast of Australia and are
associated with enhanced rainfall to tropical and sub-tropical areas
of the east coast.
The Trade Winds are strongest during the winter months (dry
season in the tropics). During this time, when the Australian
monsoon has receded to the northern hemisphere, the Trade
Winds blow east/ southeastward across the continent, drying out
as they move over inland northern Australia and the top end. At
this time of the year, the Trade Winds bring more stable (drier)
conditions to these areas of the country.
The Trade Winds blow all year round as they are a part of the
general circulation of the atmosphere. However, they are strongest
in the winter months when they have the greatest affect on
conditions (generally dry and stable) over inland northern Australia
and the top end. In the summer months, the sub-tropical ridge
moves south, the Trade Winds weaken and the monsoon returns
to northern Australia.
72.
1. Tropical depressions may bring heavy rainfall to affected
parts of northern Australia. Tropical depressions are moderate-
strength low pressure systems which occur in the tropics, often
in association with the monsoon trough.
How do they affect Australia?
Tropical depressions are associated with occasional
thunderstorms, fresh to strong and gusty winds and heavy rain,
often leading to flooding of affected areas.
2. Tropical cyclones affect all of northern Australia, with the
northwest of Western Australia between Broome and Exmouth
being the most cyclone prone part of Australia’s coastline.
The Australian cyclone season officially runs from November to
April, although very few have occurred in November.
73. Upper level troughs can bring enhanced rainfall to Australia.
What are they?
An upper level trough is a trough of low pressure which has formed
in the upper levels of the atmosphere, and hence cannot be seen
on surface level charts.
Upper level troughs can occur at any time, in any region of
Australia. They generally last from between a few days to a couple
of weeks and typically move from west to east.
How do they affect Australia?
Upper level troughs can result in the formation of a cloudbands,
which will often result in widespread rainfall near and to the east of
the trough. Upper level troughs can also aid in the development of
surface level features, such as frontal systems, thereby enhancing
their effect. The presence of an upper level trough in a favourable
position may result in the development of a cut-off low, which in
turn will enhance rainfall over the affected region.
74. The Indonesian Throughflow
As the name suggests the Indonesian Throughflow is a system of
currents that carries water westward from the Pacific to the Indian
Ocean through the deep passages and straits of the Indonesian
Archipelago.
This is the only place in the world where warm, equatorial
waters flow from one ocean to another. This warm tropical water
influences the character of the Leeuwin Current.
The Leeuwin Current
Begins around mid-way along the Western Australian coast and
flows down the coast and around the bottom of Western Australia.
The Leeuwin Current then flows Eastward across the Great
Australian Bight and reaches as far as the west coast of Tasmania
as the Zeehan Current.
The East Australian Current
This current moves southward from near Fraser Island in
Queensland to the eastern coast of Tasmania.
The East Australian Current is usually stronger in summer,
when it reaches further south, often bringing with it northern
tropical species such as tuna and even large sea turtles following
the current into Bass Strait.
The East Australian Current is a Western Boundary current and
is renowned for shedding eddies off the Queensland and New
South Wales coasts.
The Antarctic Circumpolar Current
The Antarctic Circumpolar Current moves perpetually eastward
chasing and joining itself and at 21,000 km in length, it comprises
the world’s longest ocean current, carrying an estimated 165
million to 182 million cubic metres of water every second (a unit
also called a “Sverdrup”) from west to east, more than 100 times
the flow of all the rivers on Earth. transporting 130 million cubic m
of water per second (4.6x109 cu ft/s) 100 times the flow of all the
world’s rivers. It extends from the sea surface to the bottom of the
ocean, and encircles Antarctica.
75. Salinity of Australian Waters
• Across the north coast of Australia the ocean areas have lower
salinity due to fresh water input from high rainfall compared to
the ocean areas surrounding most of Australia.
• The salinity of the ocean regions south of the tropics and above
the Southern Ocean is higher due to high evaporation and low
rainfall. Note that theses are the average annual salinity's, and
as such, varies over differing time scales from site to site.
• In the coastal regions of Australia (not shown on the map) the
salinity differs from the ocean regions and is generally higher.
• To the south of the continent the salinity of the Southern Ocean
is lower. This is due to lower levels of evaporation and the input
of fresh water from melting sea ice.
PART-II:
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
11
Indian Geography - Physical

Setting of India
1. The atmosphere is mainly heated by the:

(a) Short wave solar radiation
(b) Reflected solar radiation
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(d) Short wave solar radiation
2. Oxygen is present till what height from the surface of the earth?
(a) 80 km
(b) 90 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 120 km
3. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The position of the earth farthest from the sun is called
aphelion.
2. The position of the earth to the sun is called perihelion.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. Which of the following is/are true?
1. Over low pressure area the air will converge and rise.
2. Over high pressure area the air will subside from above and
diverge at the surface.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
5. Ideal condition for dew formation is:
(a) low relative humidity
(b) clear sky
(c) dew point being same as freezing point
(d) high absolute humidity
(a) Leeward slopes of the mountains receive greater rainfall
(b) Leeward slopes remain rainless and dry
(c) Rain-shadow area forms on the windward side
(d) Orographic rain fall is also known as the relief rain
7. Where the Mediterranean climate can be found?
(a) South western Australia
(b) New York
(c) North India
(d) Russia
8. Which of the following are not the green house gases?
(a) O3
(b) CH4
(c) Water vapour
(d) Helium
9. Which part of the ocean floor shows the 1° gradient in its slope?
(a) Continental Slope (b) Continental Shelf (c) Deep sea plain (d)
Oceanic deeps
10. Which of the below is not a mega biodiversity centre?
(a) Mexico
(b) Congo
(c) Columbia
(d) South Africa
11. Who postulated the continental drift theory?
(a) Abraham Ortelius
(b) Antonio Pellegrini
(c) Alfred Wegener
(d) Bullard
12. What is the slowest rate of tectonic plate movement determined
by the scientists?
(a) 1 cm/year
(b) 2 cm/year
(c) 2.5 cm/year
(d) 1.5 cm/year
13. What is the study of rocks called?
(a) Petrology
(b) Lithology
(c) Rock geology (d) Paleo magnetology
14. Which of the below are not the igneous rocks?
(a) Gabbro
(b) Pegmatite
(c) Basalt
(d) Geyserite
15. Exfoliation of the rocks will occur
(a) with temperature changes
(b) due to pressure changes
(c) due to gravitational forces
(d) due to volcanic eruption
16. How long the sun traverses the longitudes and latitudes per hour?
(a) 15°
(b) 20°
(c) 5°
(d) 10°
17. The world is divided into how many major time zones?
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30
18. What is the Indian standard meridian?
(a) 82°30’ E
(b) 82°30’ W
(c) 85°30’ E
(d) 85°30’W
19. Which is the main factor for depleting the soil resource base in
India?
(a) Soil erosin
(b) Soil degradation
(c) Soil destruction
(d) Weathering
20. Sheet and gully erosions are which type of erosions?
(a) Wind erosion (b) Water erosion (c) Steep slope erosion(d)
Artificial erosion
21. Which of the below are given are correctly matched?
(i) Wind erosion (1) Salt soils
(ii) Over irrigation (2) Arid regions
(iii) Water erosion (3) Steep slopes
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 2
22. Which soils are the self ploughing soils?
(a) Laterite soils (b) Alluvial soils
(c) Black soils
(d) Arid soils
23. Which of the following are true?
1. Climate is the momentary state of the atmosphere
2. Weather is the average of the weather conditions over a longer
period of time?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The boundary line separating one drainage basin from the
other is known as the watershed.
2. A river drains the water collected from a specific area, which is
called its ‘catchment area’.
3. An area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a
drainage basin.
(a) 1, 2
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1 , 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
25. Which river is known as “ Sorrow of Bihar”?
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Chambal
(c) Koel
(d) Kosi
26. Which river is known as Singi Khamban?
(a) Indus
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga
(d) Yamuna
27. Where the tropical evergreen forests are found in India?
(a) Western ghats
(b) Deccan plateau
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) North Punjab
28. Which of the following statements are true regarding the montane
forests?
1. The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from
the tropical to the tundra.
2. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
29. Simlipal biosphere reserve is in which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) Sikkim
(c) Assam
(d) Madhya pradesh
30. Which biosphere of India is included in the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO?
(a) Dibru-Saikhowa biosphere reserve
(b) Dehang Debang biosphere reserve
(c) Pachmarhi biosphere reserve
(d) Kachch biosphere reserve

1. The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as
convection.
2. The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is
called conduction.
3. Heating of air masses through the contact is called advection.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3
32. How was the lithosphere evolved?
(a) Due to the gradual increase in the density
(b) Due to collision of the dumbel shaped body
(c) With the escape of the primordial atmosphere
(d) Due to solar winds
1. Water vapour decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Stability and instability in the air of earth’s atmosphere is
maintained by the earth’s gravity
Which of the above statements is/are not true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Ozone absorbs a part of terrestrial radiation and reflects back
some part of it towards the earth’s surface.
2. CO2 prevents the solar radiation from reaching the surface of
the earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
35. Which factors below facilitates the condition of temperature
inversion?
(a) Long night in summer
(b) Long night in winter
(c) Cloudy skies
(d) Warm breezes from the ocean
1. The pressure on earth decreases with height.
2. Variation in pressure is the primary cause of air motion.
3. Air expands when heated and gets compressed when cooled.
This results in variations in the atmospheric pressure.
(a) 1, 2
(b) 1, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3
1. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient
force.
2. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar.
3. The higher the pressure gradient force the larger is the
deflection in the direction of wind.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2,3
(d) 1, 2, 3
38. Condensation occurs when.
(a) the air mass losses its heat
(b) when the dew point reaches its freezing point
(c) the volume of air mass increases
(d) moistre is removed from the air mass
39. What is the difference between the tundra climate and the ice cap
climate?
(a) Low growing plants can be seen in both the climates
(b) Permafrost can be seen in tundra climate
(c) Rain fall occurs in ice cap climate
(d) Both are same there are no as such differences
40. Where can we find fossil fuels?
(a) Continental shelf (b) Continental slope
(c) Deep sleep plains (d) Sea shores
41. Which of the following effects ocean salinity?
1. It depends mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
2. Freezing and thawing of ice.
3. Wind.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, 2
42. Which of the below given are true regarding the concept of sea
floor spreading?
(a) The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very
thick.
(b) The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake
occurrences while in the midoceanic ridge areas, the quake
foci have shallow depths.
(c) The ocean crust rocks are much older than the continental
rocks.
(d) The age of the rocks decreases as one moves away from the
crest.
43. Find out the correct statement from the below:
(a) A biome includes plant and animal community only
(b) Primary consumers include plants and plant eating animals
(c) Grazing food chain ends with the carnivores as the last level
consumers
(d) The study of the life forms (biotic) and their interaction with
each other is the science of ecology.
44. Which of the following is not true regarding the plate tectonic
theory?
1. Tectonic plates move horizontally over the lithosphere as rigid
units.
2. All the continents initially existed as a super continent in the
form of Pangaea.
3. The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a
subduction zone.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All the above
45. Which of the below is not the reason for the mass movement of
rocks?
(a) Occurrence of earthquakes, explosions or machinery
(b) Excessive natural seepage
(c) Indiscriminate removal of natural vegetation.
(d) Heavy constructions on the lands
46. Which river is the major right bank tributary of Brahmaputra in
Tibet?
(a) Tsangpo
(b) Rango Tsangpo
(c) Chemayungdung
(d) Kameng
47. Through which states of India, the Indian standard meridian
passes?
(a) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkand, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkand, Chhatisgarh, Andhra Pradesh
(c) UttarPradesh,MadhyaPradesh,Chhatisgarh, Odisha, Andhra
Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh
48. Who classified the soils in India as per the United States
Department of Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
(b) National Bureau of Soil Survey and the Land Use Planning
(c) Central Soil Conservation Board
(d) Agency for soil erosions of India
49. In which soils, humus is removed fast by bacteria?
(a) Saline soils
(b) Arid soils
(c) Laterite soils
(d) Yellow soils
50. Which of the below given factors determines the climate of India?
1. Himalayas
2. Soils
3. Relief
4. Jet streams
5. Latitude
(a) 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 5
(c) 1,3, 4, 5
(d) 1,2 ,4 ,5
1. The Himalayan rivers perennial in nature.
2. Besides deep gorges, these rivers also form V-shaped valleys,
rapids and waterfalls in their mountainous course.
3. The course of these rivers is highly tortous, but over the plains
they display a strong meandering tendency and shift their
courses frequently.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 , 3 only
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1,2, 3
52. Which area was acted as the water divide between the Indus and
Ganga drainage systems?
(a) Potwar plateau (b) Malda gap (c) Meghalaya plateau (d)
Buner plateau
53. Where will the Indus forms a gorge after crossing the ladakh
range?
(a) Gilgit
(b) Spiti
(c) Zaskar
(d) Zozila
54. Which of the below are not the Himalayan tribu- teries of the river
Indus?
(a) Shyok
(b) Hunza
(c) Nubra
(d) Ravi
55. River Ganga originates from
(a) Gangotri
(b) Deva prayag
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Alaknanda
56. The Ganga river doesn’t flow in which state?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Jharkand
57. Which of the below is the largest south bank tributary of Ganga?
(a) Ramganga
(b) Damodar
(c) Son
(d) Kosi
58. Which of the following rivers are present in Kerala?
(a) Bharathapuzha
(b) Periyar
(c) Pamba
(d) Mandovi
59. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The Peninsular drainage system is younger than the
Himalayan one.
2. Peninsular rivers are broad, largely-graded shallow valleys,
and the rivers are in mature state.
3. The Western Ghats running close to the western coast act as
the water divide between the major Peninsular rivers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3,
(d) 3 only
60. Which river is the major right bank tributary of brhmaputhra in
tibet
(a) Tsangpo
(b) Rango tsangpo
(c) Chemayungdung (d) Kameng
61. Arrange the following steps of formation of stars in the correct

order:
1. Formation of localised lumps of gas
2. Accumulation of vast hydrogen gas
3. Formation denser gaseous bodies
4. Formation of nebula
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
(i) Big bang theory (1) Hoyle
(ii) Nebular hypothesis (2) Immanuel kant
(iii) Steady state theory (3) James jeans
(4) Alexander
(iv) Binary theory
friedman
(v) Expanding universe
(5) Hubble
hypothesis
(a) (i)-(4), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3), (v)-(5)
(b) (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4), (v)-(5)
(c) (i)-(4), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(5), (v)-(3)
(d) (i)-(1), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(5), (iv)-(3), (v)-(2)
63. Arrange the following stages of planet formation in the order of
their occurance:
1. Rotating disc of gas and dust
2. Condensation of gas cloud
3. Formation of gas lumps
4. Formation of gas core
5. Accretion of small rounded objects
6. Formation of planetesimals
(a) 2 3 4 1 6 5
(b) 3 4 2 1 5 6
(c) 2 3 4 1 5 6
(d) 3 4 1 2 6 5
1. Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases
with increasing altitude.
2. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of
the atmosphere.
3. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in
subtropical and temperate regions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 3 only
1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the poles.
2. All weather and climatic changes occur till the lower
startosphere.
3. Mesosphere contains electrically charged particles and the
temperature starts increasing with the height from this layer.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
66. The amount and the intensity of insolation of the sun received by
the earth doesn’t vary depending on
(a) rotation of the earth
(b) revolution of the earth
(c) inclination of the earth’s axis
(d) lenth of the day
67. Which of the following factors effects the wind movement?
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Revolution of the Earth
3. Pressure gradient
4. The frictional force
(a) 2, 4
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
68. Which of the below given statements is/are true regarding the
extra tropical cyclones?
1. In the northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the south and
cold air from the north of the front.
2. It circulates in clockwise direction.
3. Precipitation occurs in the sky ahead of the warm front when
cumulus clouds develop on it.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1, 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
1. Water vapour varies from 0-4 % by volume of the atmosphere.
2. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the
atmosphere is known as the absolute humidity. It is constant all
over the earth.
3. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on
its temperature.
(a) 1,2
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
(i) Cirrus (1) Shapeless with high density
(ii) Cumulus (2) Feathery appearance
(iii) Stratus (3) Covers large portion of the sky
(iv) Nimbus (4) Cotton wool appearance
(a) (i)-(2), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(1)
(b) (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
(c) (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3)
(d) (i)-(4), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1)
71. Which of the below is/are true regarding the tropical humid
climates?
1. Tropical wet climate - high uniform temperatures and the
annual range of temperature is negligible.
2. Tropical monsoon climate - heavy rain fall, winters are wet.
3. Tropical dry and wet climate - wet season is longer and the dry
season is shorter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
(1) Subsidence and inversion of
(i) Dry climate
temperature do not produce rainfall
(ii) Subtropical (2) Rain are short intense and
steppe thundershowers occurs
(iii) Warm
(3) These climates have warm
temperate
summers with mild winters.
climate
Choose the correct match from the above given:
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii), (iii)
(1) Underwater mountains that rise
(i) Guyots
hundreds or thousands of feet
(ii) Atoll (2) Undersea mountain flat top
(iii) (3) A steep-sided valley cut into the
Seamount seabed of the continental slope
(iv) (4) Low islands found in the tropical
Submarine oceans consisting of coral reefs
Canyons surrounding a central depression.
(a) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(1)
(b) (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
(c) (i)-(2), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3)
(d) (i)-(1), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(2)
74. Which water body has highest salinity?
(a) Lake van
(b) Dead sea
(c) Great salt lake (d) Don juan pond
1. The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing latitude is
generally 1°C per latitude.
2. Decrease of temperature with the increasing depth is not
uniform throughout.
3. The average temperature of surface water of the oceans is
about 27°C and it gradually decreases from the equator
towards the poles.
4. The oceans in the northern hemisphere record relatively higher
temperature than in the southern hemisphere.
(a) 1, 2
(b) 1,2, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1,2 ,3
1. Ocean currents are the continuous flow of huge amount of
water in a definite direction and water moves ahead from one
place to another through the ocean currents.
2. The waves are the horizontal motion of water and the water in
the waves does not move, but the wave trains move ahead.
3. Slow and steady waves are fairly young ones and are probably
formed by local wind, steep and waves originate from far away
places, possibly from another hemisphere.
(a) 1 , 2
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
1. On the surface of the earth, nearest the moon, pull or the
attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal
force.
2. On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less
and the gravitational force is more.
3. On the surface of the earth, the horizontal tide generating
forces are less important than the vertical forces in generating
the tidal bulges.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
78. Which of the below is not true regarding the ocean currents?
(a) Near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in
level than in the middle latitudes.
(b) The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move
to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the
southern hemisphere.
(c) Heat, friction, gravity, centrifugal forces are the leading forces
for the movement of the ocean currents.
(d) Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity
and in the same way cold water is denser than warm water.
(i) River (1) Surfaces marking old valley floor or
terraces floodplain levels
(ii) Pot (2) Large and deep holes at the base of
holes waterfalls
(iii)
(3) More or less circular depressions over
Plunge
the rocky beds of hill streams
pools
(a) (i)-(3), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(2)
(b) (i)-(1), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(2)
(c) (i)-(3), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(1)
(d) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(1)
80. Which of the given is/are true?
1. Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like features
composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and
sand.
2. Esker is a sinuous ridge found after the ice melts.
3. Outwash plain are the plains at the foot of the glacial
mountains.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1,2
(d) 1, 2, 3
81. Which of the following is /are true?
1. The rotation of the earth causes bulging at the poles.
2. Earth’s equatorial radius is less than the polar radius.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
82. What is the time at Sulawesi located at 120° east longitude when
the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12.00 noon.
(a) 4am
(b) 6pm
(c) 8am
(d) 8pm
83. Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayas:
1. They have fast flowing youthful rivers.
2. Various landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids,
waterfalls are present in Himalayas.
3. They are covered by ice cover and have very cool weather.
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 3
1. Decline in soil fertility by declining its nutritional status and by
lowering its depth is called the soil erosion.
2. Destruction of the soil cover is simply known as soil
degradation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
85. Find out the correct statements from the below given:
1. Gully erosion can not be easily noticed.
2. Sheet erosion takes place on level lands.
3. Ravines are seen in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal etc.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
86. Which of the below given statements is/are true?
1. Horizon C is the top most layer of the soil profile and it
contains organic matter which is useful for the growth of plants.
2. Horizon A contains mineral matter, water and nutrients.
3. Horizon A layer is the first stage in the soil formation process.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
87. Which of the below given statements is true?
(a) Urvara soils are sterile soils.
(b) Usara soils are fertile soils.
(c) Inceptisols are the freely draining soils.
(d) Ultisols are less weathered soils.
1. The saline soils have more saltnitrogen, and calcium. It
contains less magnesium and sodium, hence, they are infertile
in nature.
2. Arid soils though they are present in the areas of high
temperature they contain enough humus as ‘Kankar’ layer
formed inside the soil restricts the infiltration of water.
3. The red soil is in a reddish colour due to the presence of iron in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it
occurs in dehydrated form.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
89. How does the Himalayan mountains influence the Indian
monsoonal climatic differences?
1. Himalayas trap the monsoon winds, forcing them to shed their
moisture within the subcontinent.
2. They also trap the cold chilly winds originating from the arctic
circle and hence the North India has harsh winters.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
90. Why the Bay of Bengal branch of monsoonal winds hit the West
Bengal instead of the Myanmar coast?
(a) Due to deflection by the arakan hills.
(b) External forces on the monsoonal winds.
(c) Because of the shape of the coastal line of Myanmar.
(d) Due low pressure in the West Bengal.
91. What changes will occur in the Indian subcontinent with the inflow
of the western cyclones?
(a) The western cyclones originated over the Mediterranean sea
are brought into India by westerly jet streams.
(b) The western cyclones originated over the Mediterranean sea
are brought into India by easterly jet streams.
(c) The western cyclones originated over the Red sea are
brought into India by westerly jet streams.
(d) The western cyclones originated over the Red sea are
brought into India by easterly jet streams.
1. ITCZ is a low pressure zone located at the equator.
2. Shift of ITCZ towards the north and north west causes south
west monsoon.
3. In winter the trade winds will blow towards the equator during
the monsoonal season.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3
93. Indus river flows through only one place in India. Name that area.
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) J & K
94. The tributary of the Indus river, Jhelum originates?
(a) Verinag
(b) Pakisthan
(c) Keylong
(d) Rohtang
(i) Devaprayag (1) Mandakini
(ii) Vishnu prayag (2) Bhagirathi meets Alaknanda
(iii) Kama prayag (3) Alaknanda meets Joshimath
(iv) Rudra prayag (4) Pindar
(a) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(1)
(b) (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
(c) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(4)
(d) (i)-(3), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(1)
96. Which of the following events are not the part of the evolution of
peninsular drainage sysytem?
(a) Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula leading to
its submergence below the sea during the early tertiary
period.
(b) Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the
Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the
consequent trough faulting.
(c) Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from northwest to the
southeastern direction.
(d) Occupance of eastern coast with eastern ghats.
97. What is meant by break in the monsoonal period?
(a) If rain fails to occur for 1 or more weaks
(b) If rain fails to occur for 1 day
(c) If rain fails to occur for 2 days
(d) Switching pattern of rain
98. Kangtu mountain peaks belongs to which mountain ranges?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh Himalayas
(b) Sikkim Himalayas
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Kasi Hills
99. Which one of the following facts was not considered by those
while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?
(a) Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges.
(b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in
rocks of ocean floor.
(c) Distribution of fossils in different continents.
(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b)
56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (a)
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d)
76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b)
86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)
96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (d)
Explanations
1. The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short
wavelengths. The energy received by the earth is known as
incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.
On an average the earth receives 1.94 calories per sq. cm per
minute at the top of its atmosphere.
2. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the
atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible
quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and
water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the
earth.
Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere
found between 10 and 50 km above the earth’s surface and acts
as a filter.
3. During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the
sun (152 million km) on 4 July. This position of the earth is called
aphelion. On 3 January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147
million km). This position is called perihelion.
4. The wind circulation at the earth’s surface around low and high on
many occasions is closely related to the wind circulation at higher
level. Generally, over low pressure area the air will converge and
rise. Over high pressure area the air will subside from above and
diverge at the surface. Apart from convergence, some eddies,
convection currents, orographic uplift and uplift along fronts cause
the rising of air, which is essential for the formation of clouds and
precipitation.
5. When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on
cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the
surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is
known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky,
calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the
formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the
freezing point.
6. Orographic Rain
When the saturated air mass comes across a mountain, it is
forced to ascend and as it rises, it expands; the temperature falls,
and the moisture is condensed. The chief characteristic of this
sort of rain is that the windward slopes receive greater rainfall.
After giving rain on the windward side, when these winds reach
the other slope, they descend, and their temperature rises. Then
their capacity to take in moisture increases and hence, these
leeward slopes remain rainless and dry. The area situated on the
leeward side, which gets less rainfall is known as the rain-shadow
area. It is also known as the relief rain.
7. Mediterranean climate occurs around Mediterranean sea, along
the west coast of continents in subtropical latitudes between
30°-40° latitudes e.g. - Central California, Central Chile, along the
coast in south eastern and south western Australia.
Mediterranean climate is a dry summer climate characterised
by dry summers and mild, wet winters. The climate receives its
name from the Mediterranean Basin, where this climate type is
most common. Mediterranean climate zones are typically located
along the western sides of continents, between roughly 30 and 45
degrees north and south of the equator. The main cause of
Mediterranean, or dry summer climate, is the subtropical ridge
which extends northwards during the summer and migrates south
during the winter due to increasing north-south temperature
differences.
Areas with this climate are where the so-called “Mediterranean
trinity” of agricultural products have traditionally developed:
wheat, vine and olive.
8. The primary GHGs of concern today are carbon dioxide (CO2),
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O)
and ozone (O3). Some other gases such as nitric oxide (NO) and
carbon monoxide (CO) easily react with GHGs and affect their
concentration in the atmosphere.
9. The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent
occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest
part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf
break.
10. There are some countries which are situated in the tropical
region; they possess a large number of the world’s species
diversity. They are called mega diversity centres. There are 12
such countries, namely Mexico, Columbia, Ecuador, Peru, Brazil,
Democratic Republic of Congo, Madagascar, China, India,
Malaysia, Indonesia and Australia in which these centres are
located.
11. Abraham Ortelius, a Dutch map maker, first proposed such a
possibility as early as 1596. Antonio Pellegrini drew a map
showing the three continents together.
However, it was Alfred Wegener—a German meteorologist
who put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of “the
continental drift theory” in 1912. This was regarding the
distribution of the oceans and the continents.
12. The strips of normal and reverse magnetic field that parallel the
mid-oceanic ridges help scientists determine the rates of plate
movement. These rates vary considerably. The Arctic Ridge has
the slowest rate (less than 2.5 cm/yr), and the East Pacific Rise
near Easter Island, in the South Pacific about 3,400 km west of
Chile, has the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/yr).
13. Petrology is science of rocks. A petrologist studies rocks in all
their aspects vis., mineral composition, texture, structure, origin,
occurrence, alteration and relationship with other rocks.
14. Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. Texture depends
upon size and arrangement of grains or other physical conditions
of the materials. If molten material is cooled slowly at great
depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the
surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate
conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains
making up igneous rocks. Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt,
volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous
rocks.
15. Exfoliation is the peeling away of sheets of rock.
It is a result but not a process. Flaking off of more or less curved
sheets of shells from over rocks or bedrock results in smooth and
rounded surfaces Exfoliation can occur due to expansion and
contraction induced by temperature changes. Exfoliation domes
and tors result due to unloading and thermal expansion
respectively.
16. The sun traverses 150 of longitudes per hour or one degree of
longitude in every four minutes of time. It may further be noted
that the time decreases when we move from west to east and
increases with our westward movement.
17. The world is divided into 24 time zones.
The 180° line of longitude is approximately where the
International Date Line passes. The time at this longitude is
exactly 12 hours from the 00 longitude, irrespective of one travels
westward or eastward from the Prime Meridian.
The countries with large east west span may choose more
than one standard meridian to get more than one time zone such
as Russia, Canada and the United States of America.
18. There is a general understanding among the countries of the
world to select the standard meridian in multiples of 7°30’ of
longitude. That is why 82°30’ E has been selected as the
‘standard meridian’ of India. Indian Standard Time is ahead of
Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours and 30 minutes.
There are some countries where there are more than one
standard meridian due to their vast east-to- west extent. For
example, the USA has seven time zones.
19. Soil degradation is the main factor leading to the depleting soil
resource base in India. The degree of soil degradation varies from
place to place according to the topography, wind velocity and
amount of the rainfall.
Soil erosion is the displacement of the upper layer of soil, it is
one form of soil degradation. This natural process is caused by
the dynamic activity of erosive agents, that is, water, ice, snow,
air, plants, animals, and humans.
Weathering describes the breaking down or dissolving of rocks
and minerals on the surface of the Earth. Water, ice, acids, salts,
plants, animals, and changes in temperature are all agents of
weathering.
20. Sheet and gully erosions are types of water erosion. Both these
are harmful in declining the soil fertility. Water erosion is a more
serious and occurs extensively in different parts of India. The
country is losing nearly about 8000 hectares of land due to the
water erosion.
21. Wind erosion is significant in arid and semi-arid regions. In
regions with heavy rainfall and steep slopes, erosion by running
water is more significant. Large area of arable land in the irrigated
zones of India is becoming saline because of over irrigation. The
salt lodged in the lower profiles of the soil comes up to the surface
and destroys its fertility.
22. The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried.
So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks. Thus,
there create a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Due of this character of
slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the
moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially,
the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.
23. Weather is the momentary state of the atmosphere while climate
refers to the average of the weather conditions over a longer
period of time. Weather changes quickly, may be within a day or
week but climate changes imperceptively and may be noted after
50 years or even more.
24. The catchments of large rivers are called river basins while those
of small rivulets and rills are often referred to as watersheds.
There is, however, a slight difference between a river basin and a
watershed. Watersheds are small in area while the basins cover
larger areas.
25. River Kosi, also known as the ‘sorrow of Bihar’, has been
notorious for frequently changing its course. The Kosi brings huge
quantity of sediments from its upper reaches and deposits it in the
plains. The course gets blocked, and consequently, the river
changes its course.
It drains the northern slopes of the Himalayas in Tibet and the
southern slopes in Nepal. From a major confluence of tributaries
north of the Chatra Gorge onwards, the Koshi River is also known
as Saptakoshi for its seven upper tributaries. These include the
Tamor River originating from the Kanchenjunga area in the east
and Arun River and Sun Koshi from Tibet. The Sun Koshi’s
tributaries from east to west are Dudh Koshi, Bhote Koshi,
Tamakoshi River, Likhu Khola and Indravati. The Saptakoshi
crosses into northern Bihar where it branches into distributaries
before joining the Ganges near Kursela in Katihar district.
26. The Indus river originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the
Tibetan region in the Kailash Mansarovar range near the
Mansarovar Lake. In Tibet it is known as ‘Singi Khamban or Lion’s
mouth.
The Indus river follows a long and straight course in Ladakh,
running between the Ladakh and the Zaskar ranges.
It forms a gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir. After
crossing the Himalayas, it turns into south-west and enters
Pakistan near Chillar in the Dardistan region. It flows roughly
southwards until it drains into the Arabian Sea near Karachi after
forming a huge delta.
Indus River System of the Zaskar river, Suru river, Soan river,
Jhelum river, Chenab river, Ravi river, Beas river, Satluj river,
Panjnad river as its major left-bank tributaries. The Shyok river,
Gilgit river, Hunza river, Swat river, Kunnar river, Kurram river and
Kabul river are its major right-bank tributaries.
27. These forests are found in the western slope of the Western
Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an
annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature
above 22°C.
The tropical evergreen forests usually occur in areas receiving
more than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of 15 to 30
degrees Celsius. They occupy about seven per cent of the earth’s
land surface and habours more than half of the world’s plants and
animals. They are found mostly near the equator.
Rainforest these forests are dense and multi-layered. They
harbour many types of plants and animals. The trees are
evergreen as there is no period of drought. They are mostly tall
and hardwood type. Leaves are broad and give out excess water
through evapo-transpiration.
In India, evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of
the Western Ghats in States such as Kerala and Karnataka. They
are also found in hills of Jaintia and Khasi. Some of the trees
found in Indian Tropical Forests are rosewood, mahagony and
ebony. Bamboos and reeds are also common.
28. The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the
tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.
Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is
succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an
altitude of 1000-2000 m.
29. The Similipal Biosphere reserve is in Mayurbhanj district of
Odisha. reserve forest area is of over 2750 sq km. Houses a
variety of wild animals, including Royal Bengal Tigers, 304
species of birds and plants, the sanctuary is extremely rich in
biodiversity.
Similipal is also the abode of the black and mela- nistic tiger
which is rare. The identified species of fauna include 12 species
of amphibians, 29 species of reptiles, and 42 species of
mammals, all of which collectively highlight the Biodiversity
richness.
30. The Government of India has established about 18 different
Biosphere Reserves in the country. Of these, 10 are part of the
World Network of Biosphere Reserves, set up under the auspices
of the UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
Nandadevi BR, nokrek, pachmarhi and simlipal BRs are few of
them.
The World Network of Biosphere Reserves, currently
comprising 669 sites/regions designated by UNESCO in 120
countries since 1976, is a unique global network explicitly linking
sustainable development and biodiversity conservation.
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is a non-use conservation area
and biosphere reserve in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh
state in central India. The conservation area was created in 1999.
It also contains animals from the Himalayan peaks and from the
lower western ghats. UNESCO designated it a biosphere reserve
in 2009.

31. The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the
form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmsphere.
This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as
convection. The air in contact with the land gets heated slowly
and the upper layers in contact with the lower layers also get
heated. This process is called conduction. Conduction takes place
when two bodies of unequal temperature are in contact with one
another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to cooler body.
The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called
advection.
32. The earth was mostly in a volatile state during its primordial
stage. Due to gradual increase in density the temperature inside
has increased. As a result the material inside started getting
separated depending on their densities. This allowed heavier
materials (like iron) to sink towards the centre of the earth and the
lighter ones to move towards the surface. With passage of time it
cooled further and solidified and condensed into a smaller size.
This later led to the development of the outer surface in the form
of a crust.
33. Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which
decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may
account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and
cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one
per cent of the air.
Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the
poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and
preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket
allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water
vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.
34. Carbon dioxide is meteorologically a very important gas as it is
transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the
outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs a part of terrestrial
radiation and reflects back some part of it towards the earth’s
surface.
It is largely responsible for the green house effect. Acts as a
filter and absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun and
prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.
35. Temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called
normal lapse rate. When this situation is reversed and the normal
lapse rate is inverted, It is called Inversion of temperature.
Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common.
A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation
for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night,
and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above.
Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the
year.
36. The pressure decreases with height. At any elevation it varies
from place to place and its variation is the primary cause of air
motion, i.e. wind which moves from high pressure areas to low
pressure areas.
Air expands when heated and gets compressed when cooled.
This results in variations in the atmospheric pressure. The result
is that it causes the movement of air from high pressure to low
pressure, setting the air in motion.
37. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient
force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar.
The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of
the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind.
As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each
other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it.
38. Condensation also takes place when the moist air comes in
contact with some colder object and it may also take place when
the temperature is close to the dew point. Condensation,
therefore, depends upon the amount of cooling and the relative
humidity of the air. Condensation is influenced by the volume of
air, temperature, pressure and humidity.
Condensation takes place when the dew point is lower than
the freezing point as well as higher than the freezing point.
39. The tundra climate (ET) is so called after the types of vegetation,
like low growing mosses, lichens and flowering plants. This is the
region of permafrost where the sub soil is permanently frozen.
The short growing season and water logging support only low
growing plants. During summer, the tundra regions have very long
duration of day light.
The ice cap climate (EF) occurs over interior Greenland and
Antartica. Even in summer, the temperature is below freezing
point. This area receives very little precipitation. The snow and ice
get accumulated and the mounting pressure causes the
deformation of the ice sheets and they break. They move as
icebergs that float in the Arctic and Antarctic waters. Plateau
Station, Antarctica, 79°S, portray this climate.
40. The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of
sediments brought down by rivers, glaciers, wind, from the land
and distributed by waves and currents. Massive sedimentary
deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves,
become the source of fossil fuels.
41. Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
i. The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend

ii. Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the
fresh water flow from rivers, and in polar regions by the
iii. Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to
other areas.
iv. The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity,
temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any
change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of
water in an area.
42. The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin.
Scientists were expecting, if the ocean floors were as old as the
continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments for a period
of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment
column found to be older than 200 million years.
The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences
while in the midoceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow
depths.
The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental
rocks. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal
polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks increases as
one moves away from the crest.
43. Grazing food-chain and detritusfood-chain. In a grazing food-
chain, the first level starts with plants as producers and ends with
carnivores as consumers at the last level, with the herbivores
being at the intermediate level.
A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large
geographical area. It is the total assemblage of plant and animal
species interacting within specific conditions These include
rainfall, temperature, humidity and soil conditions.
The primary consumers include herbivorous animals only.
The study of interactions between life forms (biotic) and the
physical environment (abiotic) is the science of ecology.
44. The location where sinking of a plate occurs is called a
subduction zone.
Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid
units. The lithosphere includes the crust and top mantle with its
thickness range varying between 5 and 100 km in oceanic parts
and about 200 km in the continental areas.
45. Mass movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the
slopes under the direct influence of gravity.
Several activating causes precede mass movements. They
are: (i) removal of support from below to materials above through
natural or artificial means; (ii) increase in gradient and height of
slopes; (iii) overloading through addition of materials naturally or
by artificial filling; (iv) overloading due to heavy rainfall, saturation
and lubrication of slope materials; (v) removal of material or load
from over the original slope surfaces; (vi) occurrence of
earthquakes, explosions or machinery; (vii) excessive natural
seepage; (viii) heavy drawdown of water from lakes, reservoirs
and rivers leading to slow outflow of water from under the slopes
or river banks; (ix) indiscriminate removal of natural vegetation.
46. The Brahmaputra, one of the largest rivers of the world, has its
origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near
the Mansarovar lake. From here, it traverses eastward
longitudinally for a distance of nearly 1,200 km in a dry and flat
region of southern Tibet, where it is known as the Tsangpo, which
means ‘the purifier.’ The Rango Tsangpo is the major right bank
tributary of this river in Tibet.
47. Tropic of Cancer passes through Eight States: Gujarat,
Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura
and Mizoram. Indian Standard Meridian (82°30’E meridian)
passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
48. The ICAR has classified the Indian soils on the basis of their
nature and character as per the United States Department of
Agriculture (USDA) Soil Taxonomy.
The Central Soil Conservation Board, set up by the
Government of India, has prepared a number of plans for soil
conservation in different parts of the country.
49. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high
rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical
rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in
iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus
content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in
high temperature.
50. Thus, northern part of the India lies in sub-tropical and temperate
zone and the part lying south of the Tropic of Cancer falls in the
tropical zone. The tropical zone being nearer to the equator,
experiences high temperatures throughout the year with small
daily and annual range.
The physiography or relief of India also affects the
temperature, air pressure, direction and speed of wind and the
amount and distribution of rainfall.
Upper air circulation caused by factors controlling global
weather and the inflow of different air masses and jet streams.
51. These rivers pass through the giant gorges carved out by the
erosional activity carried on simultaneously with the uplift of the
Himalayas. Besides deep gorges, these rivers also form V-shaped
valleys, rapids and waterfalls in their mountainous?
52. The dismemberment was probably due to the Pleistocene
upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the
Potwar Plateau (Delhi Ridge), which acted as the water divide
between the Indus and Ganga drainage systems.
The downthrusting of the Malda gap area between the
Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau during the mid-
pleistocene period, diverted the Ganga and the Brahmaputra
systems to flow towards the Bay of Bengal.
53. Indus cuts across the Ladakh range, forming a spectacular gorge
near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir.
The Indus river passes gigantic gorges 4500-5200 metres
(15,000-17,000 feet) deep near the Nanga Parbat massif.
The Gilgit, Gartang, Dras, Shiger, Hunza are Himalayan
tributaries of the Indus.
54. The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the
Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar,
the Gasting and the Dras.
The Ravi River is a transboundary river crossing northwestern
India and eastern Pakistan. It is one of six rivers of the Indus
System in Punjab region. The waters of the Ravi are allocated to
India under the Indus Water Treaty. Under the Indus Waters
Treaty of 1960, the waters of the Ravi and five other rivers are
divided between India and Pakistan.
It has its source in Kullu hills near the Rohtang Pass in
Himachal Pradesh. It drains the area between the Pir Panjal and
the Dhaola Dhar ranges. After crossing Chamba, it takes a south-
westerly turn and cuts a deep gorge in the Dhaola Dhar range.
It enters Punjab Plains near Madhopur and later enters
Pakistan below Amritsar.
It debouches into the Chenab a little above Rangpur in
Pakistani Punjab.
55. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3900 m) in the
Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the
Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas
in narrow gorges.
The Ganga river system outspreads in India, Tibet (China),
Nepal and Bangladesh. It is the largest river basin in India and
accounts for about one-fourth of the total area of the country. The
Ganga is called the Bhagirathi above Devprayag and below this
town, the Ganga.
56. The river has a length of 2525 km. It is shared by Uttarakhand
(110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West
Bengal (520 km). The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km
area in India alone.
The Ganga initially flows in the southern direction, then in the
south-east direction up to Mirzapur and then in the east direction
in the Bihar plains. Near the Rajmahal hills, it turns into south-east
direction and after flowing some distance in Murshidabad district
of West Bengal, it enters Bangladesh. In Bangladesh, it gets
divided into two main distributaries- the Bhagirathi and the Hugli.
The main river goes to Bangladesh where it is firstly known by the
name of the Padma and then the Meghna which drains into the
Bay of Bengal.
57. The Son is a large south bank tributary of the Ganga, originating
in the Amarkantak plateau. After forming a series of waterfalls at
the edge of the plateau, it reaches Arrah, west of Patna, to join
the Ganga.
Its source is close to the origin of the Narmada. It passes
along the Kaimur Range.
It flows for a distance of 784 km from its source.
The important tributaries of the Son are the Johilla, the Gopat,
the Rihand, the Kanhar and the North Koel. Almost all the
tributaries join it on its right bank.
58. Kerala has a narrow coastline. The longest river of Kerala,
Bharathapuzha rises near Annamalai hills. It is also known as
Ponnani. It drains an area of 5397 sq. km. Compare its catchment
area with that of the Sharavati river of Karnataka. The Periyar is
the second largest river of Kerala. Its catchment area is 5243 sq.
km. You can see that there is a marginal difference in the
catchment area of the Bhartapuzha and the Periyar rivers.
Another river of Kerala worth mentioning is the Pamba river which
falls in the Vemobana lake after traversing a course of 177 km.
59. The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan one.
This is evident from the broad, largely-graded shallow valleys, and
the maturity of the rivers. The Western Ghats running close to the
western coast act as the water divide between the major
Peninsular rivers, discharging their water in the Bay of Bengal and
as small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea. Most of the major
Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to
east.
60. The Brahmaputra, one of the largest rivers of the world, has its
origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near
the Mansarovar lake. From here, it traverses eastward
longitudinally for a distance of nearly 1,200 km in a dry and flat
region of southern Tibet, where it is known as the Tsangpo, which
means ‘the purifier.’ The Rango Tsangpo is the major right bank
tributary of this river in Tibet.

61. A galaxy starts to form by accumulation of hydrogen gas in the
form of a very large cloud called nebula. Eventually, growing
nebula develops localised lumps of gas. These clumps continue
to grow into even denser gaseous bodies, giving rise to formation
of stars.
The formation of stars is believed to have taken place some 5-
6 billion years ago.
62. The Big Bang theory by Alexander friedman is a cosmological
model for the observable universe from the earliest known periods
through its subsequent large-scale evolution. The model
describes how the universe expanded from a very high-density
and high-temperature state.
Steady state theory is opposite to the Hubble’s expanding
universe theory. It states that the objects in the universe stay still
and steady. Though the universe expands it maintains a constant
average density nebular hypothesis states that the planets were
formed out of a cloud of material associated with a youthful sun,
which was slowly rotating.
63. The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. The
gravitational force within the lumps leads to the formation of a
core to the gas cloud and a huge rotating disc of gas and dust
develops around the gas core.
In the next stage, the gas cloud starts getting condensed and
the matter around the core develops into small rounded objects.
These small-rounded objects by the process of cohesion develop
into what is called planetesimals. Larger bodies start forming by
collision, and gravitational attraction causes the material to stick
together. Planetesimals are a large number of smaller bodies.
In the final stage, these large number of small planetesimals
accrete to form a fewer large bodies in the form of planets.
64. Dust originates from different sources and include sea salts, fine
soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated particles of
meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower
layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may
transport them to great heights.
The higher concentration of dust particles is found in
subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison
to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as
hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to
produce clouds.
65. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8
km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of
the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is
transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. All
changes in climate and weather take place in this layer
The ionosphere contains electrically charged particles known
as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves
transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this
layer. Temperature here starts increasing with height.
66. The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a
season and in a year. The factors that cause these variations in
insolation are : (i) the rotation of earth on its axis; (ii) the angle of
inclination of the sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the
transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in
terms of its aspect. The last two however, have less influence.
The fact that the earth’s axis makes an angle of 66% with the
plane of its orbit round the sun has a greater influence on the
amount of insolation received at different latitudes.
67. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation
of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by
the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the
horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined
effect of three forces - the pressure gradient force, the frictional
force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force
acts downward.
68. When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves
northwards and the cold air move towards, south setting in motion
an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation. The cyclonic circulation
leads to a well developed extra tropical cyclone, with a warm front
and a cold front.
The warm air glides over the cold air and a sequence of
clouds appear over the sky ahead of the warm front and cause
precipitation. The cold front approaches the warm air from behind
and pushes the warm air up. As a result, cumulus clouds develop
along the cold front.
69. Water vapour present in the air is known as humidity. It is
expressed quantitatively in different ways. The actual amount of
the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the
absolute humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume
of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic metre. The
ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its
temperature. The absolute humidity differs from place to place on
the surface of the earth.
70. Cirrus
Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (800012,000m). They
are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance.
They are always white in colour.
Cumulus
Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed
at a height of 4000-7000 m. They exist in patches and can be
seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base.
Stratus
As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large
portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due
to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different
temperatures.
Nimbus
Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels
or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely
dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds
are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are
shapeless masses of thick vapour.
71. Tropical Wet Climate is found near the equator.
The major areas are the Amazon Basin in South America,
western equatorial Africa and the islands of East Indies.
Significant amount of rainfall occurs in every month of the year as
thunder showers in the afternoon. The temperature is uniformly
high and the annual range of temperature is negligible. The
maximum temperature on any day is around 30°C while the
minimum temperature is around 20°C. Tropical evergreen forests
with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in this
climate.
Tropical monsoon climate (Am) is found over the Indian sub-
continent, North Eastern part of South America and Northern
Australia. Heavy rainfall occurs mostly in summer. Winter is dry.
Tropical wet and dry climate occurs north and south of Af type
climate regions. The wet season is shorter and the dry season is
longer with the drought being more severe. Temperature is high
throughout the year and diurnal ranges of temperature are the
greatest in the dry season. Deciduous forest and tree- shredded
grasslands occur in this climate.
72. These climates cover a very large area of the planet extending
over large latitudes from 15°-60° north and south of the equator.
At low latitudes, from 15°-30°, they occur in the area of subtropical
high where subsidence and inversion of temperature do not
produce rainfall. On the western margin of the continents,
adjoining the cold current, particularly over the west coast of
South America, they extend more equatorwards and occur on
the coast land.
Subtropical steppe (BSh) and subtropical desert (BWh) have
common precipitation and temperature characteristics. Rain
occurs in short intense thundershowers in deserts and is
ineffective in building soil moisture. Fog is common in coastal
deserts bordering cold currents.
Warm temperate (mid-latitude) climates extend from 30°-50° of
latitude mainly on the eastern and western margins of continents.
These climates generally have warm summers with mild winters.
73. Seamount
It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that
does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic
in origin. These can be 30004500 m tall. The Emperor seamount,
an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a
good example.
Submarine Canyons
These are deep valleys, some comparable to the Grand Canyon
of the Colorado river. They are sometimes found cutting across
the continental shelves and slopes, often extending from the
mouths of large rivers. The Hudson Canyon is the best known
submarine canyon in the world.
Guyots
It is a flat topped seamount. They show evidences of gradual
subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged
mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and
guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.
Atoll
These are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of
coral reefs surrounding a central depression. It may be a part of
the sea (lagoon), or sometimes form enclosing a body of fresh,
brackish, or highly saline water.
74. The most saline water body in the world is the Don Juan Pond,
located in Antarctica. It has a salinity level of over 44%, (i.e., 12
times as salty as ocean water), dead sea has 33.7% salinity.
Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved
salts in sea water.
It is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1000
gm (1 kg) of seawater. Salinity of 24.7 (24.7%) has been
considered as the upper limit to demarcate ‘brackish water’.
Salinity determines compressibility, thermal expansion,
temperature, density, absorption of insolation, evaporation and
humidity.
It also influences the composition and movement of the sea:
water and the distribution of fish and other marine resources.
75. The average temperature of surface water of the oceans is about
27°C and it gradually decreases from the equator towards the
poles. The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing
latitude is generally 0.5°C per latitude. The oceans in the northern
hemisphere record relatively higher temperature than in the
southern hemisphere.
The maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their
surfaces because they directly receive the heat from the sun and
the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through
the process of convection. It results into decrease of temperature
with the increasing depth, but the rate of decrease is not uniform
throughout. The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of
200 m and thereafter, the rate of decrease of temperature is
slowed down.
76. The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water
bodies. The horizontal motion refers to the ocean currents and
waves. The vertical motion refers to tides. Ocean currents are the
continuous flow of huge amount of water in a definite direction
while the waves are the horizontal motion of water. Water moves
ahead from one place to another through ocean currents while the
water in the waves does not move, but the wave trains move
ahead.
A wave’s size and shape reveals its origin. Steep waves are
fairly young ones and are probably formed by local wind. Slow
and steady waves originate from far away places, possibly from
another hemisphere. The maximum wave height is determined by
the strength of the wind, i.e., how long it blows and the area over
which it blows in a single direction.
77. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between these two
forces; i.e., the gravitational attraction of the moon and the
centrifugal force.
On the surface of the earth, nearest the moon, pull or the
attractive force of the moon is greater than the centrifugal force,
and so there is a net force causing a bulge towards the moon.
On the opposite side of the earth, the attractive force is less,
as it is farther away from the moon, the centrifugal force is
dominant. Hence, there is a net force away from the moon. It
creates the second bulge away from the moon. On the surface of
the earth, the horizontal tide generating forces are more important
than the vertical forces in generating the tidal bulges.
78. Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why,
near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level
than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and
water tends to flow down the slope. Wind blowing on the surface
of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind
and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in
its course. Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create
gradient variation.
The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to
the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern
hemisphere. These large accumulations of water and the flow
around them are called Gyres. These produce large circular
current in all the ocean basins.
79. Over the rocky beds of hill-streams more or less circular
depressions called potholes form because of stream erosion
aided by the abrasion of rock fragments. Once a small and
shallow depression forms, pebbles and boulders get collected in
those depressions and get rotated by flowing water and
consequently the depressions grow in dimensions.
A series of such depressions eventually join and the stream
valley gets deepened. At the foot of waterfalls also, large
potholes, quite deep and wide, form because of the sheer impact
of water and rotation of boulders. Such large and deep holes at
the base of waterfalls are called plunge pools.
80. Very coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some
minor fractions of rock debris carried into the stream underneath
the valley of ice beneath the glacier and after the ice melts can be
found as a sinuous ridge called esker.
Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like features
composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and
sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice
movement. Outwash Plains
The plains at the foot of the glacial mountains or beyond the limits
of continental ice sheets are covered with glacio-fluvial deposits in
the form of broad flat alluvial fans which may join to form outwash
plains of gravel, silt, sand and clay.
81. The earth is nearly a sphere. It is because of the fact that the
equatorial radius and the polar radius of the earth is not the same.
The rotation of the earth over its axis produces bulging at the
equator. Hence, the actual shape resembles that of an oblate
spheroid.
82. The time increases at a rate of 4 minutes per one degree of
longitude, east of the Prime Meridian.
Difference between Greenwich and sulawesi = 120° of
longitudes
Total Time difference = 120 x 4 = 480 minutes = 480/60 hours
= 8 hours
Local time of sulawesi (Indonesia) is 8 hours more than that at
Greenwich, i.e., 8.00 p.m.
83. These mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing
rivers which are in their youthful stage. Various landforms like
gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids, waterfalls, etc., are indicative of
this stage.
84. Decline in soil fertility by declining its nutritional status and by
lowering its depth is called the soil degradation where as
Destruction of the soil cover is simply known as soil erosion.
The degree of soil degradation varies from place to place
according to the topography, wind velocity and amount of the
rainfall.
85. Sheet erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower
and the soil removal is not easily noticeable. But it is harmful
since it removes the finer and more fertile top soil. Gully erosion is
common on steep slopes. Gullies deepen with rainfall, cut the
agricultural lands into small fragments and make them unfit for
cultivation.
Ravines are widespread, in the Chambal basin. Besides this,
they are also found in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. The country
is losing about 800 hectares of land to ravines every year.
86. ‘Horizon A’ is the topmost zone, where organic materials have got
incorporated with the mineral matter, nutrients and water, which
are necessary for the growth of plants. ‘Horizon B’ is a transition
zone between the ‘horizon A’ and ‘horizon C’, and contains matter
derived from below as well as from above. It has some organic
matter in it, although the mineral matter is noticeably weathered.
‘Horizon C’ is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is
the first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms
the above two layers. This arrangement of layers is known as the
soil profile.
87. Inceptisols are a soil of an order comprising freely draining soils in
which the formation of distinct horizons is not far advanced, such
as brown earth. They have no accumulation of clays, iron oxide,
aluminium oxide or organic matter.
Ultisols are a highly weathered leached red or reddish-yellow
acid soil with a clay-rich B horizon, occurring in warm, humid
climates. They are commonly known as red clay soils. Ultisols
were seen as the ultimate product of continuous weathering of
minerals in a humid, temperate climate without new soil formation
via glaciation. They are defined as mineral soils which contain no
calcareous material anywhere within the soil, have less than
weatherable minerals in the extreme top layer of soil, and have
less than 35% base saturation throughout the soil.
Urvara and Usara, were fertile and sterile soils respectively
88. Saline soils are also known as Usara soils. Saline soils contain a
larger proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium, and thus,
they are infertile, and do not support any vegetative growth. They
have more salts, largely because of dry climate and poor
drainage.They lack in nitrogen and calcium.
Due to the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated
evaporation, arid soils lack moisture and humus.
The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of
iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it
occurs in a hydrated form. The fine-grained red and yellow soils
are normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry
upland areas are poor in fertility.
89. The lofty Himalayas in the north along with its extensions act as
an effective climatic divide. The towering mountain chain provides
an invincible shield to protect the subcontinent from the cold
northern winds. These cold and chilly winds originate near the
Arctic circle and blow across central and eastern Asia. The
Himalayas also trap the monsoon winds, forcing them to shed
their moisture within the subcontinent.
90. The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the coast of Myanmar and part
of southeast Bangladesh. But the Arakan Hills along the coast of
Myanmar deflect a big portion of this branch towards the Indian
subcontinent. The monsoon, therefore, enters West Bengal and
Bangladesh from south and southeast instead of from the south-
westerly direction.
91. The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian
subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter
months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought
into India by the westerly jet stream. An increase in the prevailing
night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of
these cyclones disturbances.
92. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure
zone located at the equator where trade winds converge, and so,
it is a zone where air tends to ascend. In July, the ITCZ is located
around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the Gangetic plain), sometimes
called the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the
development of thermal low over north and northwest India. Due
to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere
cross the equator between 40° and 60°E longitudes and start
blowing from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force. It
becomes southwest monsoon. In winter, the ITCZ moves
southward, and so the reversal of winds from northeast to south
and southwest, takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.
93. The river flows southward and receives ‘Panjnad’ a little above
Mithankot. The Panjnad is the name given to the five rivers of
Punjab, namely the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and
the Jhelum. It finally discharges into the Arabian Sea, east of
Karachi. The Indus flows in India only through Jammu and
Kashmir.
94. The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a
spring at Verinag situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-
eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar and
the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow
gorge. It joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
95. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is
known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda has its source in the
Satopanth glacier above Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists of the
Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu
Prayag. The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar
joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at
Rudra Prayag. The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar.
96. Three major geological events in the distant past have shaped the
present drainage systems of Peninsular India:
i. Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula leading to its

submergence below the sea during the early tertiary period.
Generally, it has disturbed the symmetrical plan of the river on
either side of the original watershed.
ii. Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the
Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the
consequent trough faulting. The Narmada and the Tapi flow in
trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus
materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits
in these rivers.
iii. Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from northwest to the
southeastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage
system towards the Bay of Bengal during the same period.
97. During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a
few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known
as break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common
during the rainy season.
98. These extend from the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to the
Diphu pass in the east. The general direction of the mountain
range is from southwest to northeast. Some of the important
mountain peaks of the region are Kangtu and Namcha Barwa.
These ranges are dissected by fast-flowing rivers from the north
to the south, forming deep gorges. Brahmaputra flows through a
deep gorge after crossing Namcha Barwa.
99. Fossil distribution in different countries doesn’t contribute to
determine the sea floor spreading.
Factors that help to analyse the sea floor spreading are-
Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges. Stripes of normal
and reverse magnetic field observed in rocks of ocean.
Age of rocks from the ocean floor.
12
Demography of India
1. India’s population as on March 2011 stood at ________ million,

which accounts for 17.5% of the world’s population.
(a) 1210.6
(b) 1310.6
(c) 1410.6
(d) 1510.6
2. India’s population has been steadily increasing _________.
(a) from 361 million in 1951 to 1310 million in 2011
(b) from 351 million in 1951 to 1210 million in 2011
(c) from 361 million in 1951 to 1210 million in 2011
(d) from 361 million in 1951 to 1215 million in 2011
3. What are the main processes of change of population?
(a) Birth rates
(b) Death rates
(c) Migration
(d) All the above
4. What are the geographical factors influencing the distribution of
the population?
(a) Availability of water
(b) Land forms
(c) Climate
(d) All the above
5. Which theory can be used to describe and predict the future
population of any area?
(a) Demographic transition theory
(b) Population theory
(c) Industrial transition theory
(d) Progressive transition theory
6. Which of the following statements are wrong ?
1. The idea of human development is supported by the concept
of equity.
of sustainability.
of productivity.
of literacy.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1,2 are wrong
(b) Only 1 is wrong
(c) Only 4 is wrong
(d) Only 3 is wrong
7. It is expected that, in 2020, the average age of an Indian will be
________.
(a) 25 years
(b) 27 years
(c) 29 years
(d) 32 years
1. India has more than 50% of its population below the age of 25
and more than 65% below the age of 35.
2. India has more than 2000 ethnic groups, and every major
religion is represented, as are four major families of languages.
Choose the correct statement/statements:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both correct
(d) Both wrong
9. How many billion population of India is projected in 2019?
(a) 1.3 billion
(b) 1.5 billion
(c) 2.3 billion
(d) 2.5 billion
10. The percentage decadal growth during 20012011 was _______,
3.84% lower than 1991-2001 period.
(a) 16.70%
(b) 17.70%
(c) 18.70%
(d) 19.70%
1. What is the meaning of population density?
(a) The total number of people per circle of area.
(b) The total number of people per hectare of area.
(c) The total number of people per unit of area.
(d) The total number of people per square of area.
12. Identify the wrong statement/in the following:
1. Birth rate: The number of children born per 1000 people in a
year.
2. Death rate: The number of people lived per 1000 people in a
year.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect
13. Regarding age composition, the total population is broadly divided
into how many groups?
(a) 3 groups
(b) 5 groups
(c) 4 groups
(d) 6 groups
14. What is the correct meaning of the term density of population of a
country?
(a) The average number of deaths per annum
(b) The average number of births per annum
(c) Number of people living per one square kilometer
1. The sex ratio of population is determined by the number of
females for every 1000 males.
2. Literacy, according to the 2001 Census, is the ability of a
person of 7 years and above to read and write in any language.
Choose the correct codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are incorrect
(d) Both are correct
16. Consider the following statements regarding the population of

India.
1. Adolescents are people between the age groups of 10-19
years and in our country.
2. India’s sex ratio has always been on the lower side, until
recently.
Answer with codes given below:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
17. Identify the wrong statement/s in the following:
1. The census states the literacy rate of the population of India is
almost 74.04% by 2016.
2. The occupational structure is the distribution of the population
across different occupations. This is an important element of
the population of India. Also, our occupational structure has
four broad categories.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are correct (d) Both are incorrect
1. Broadly, 75% of the world population lives in about 10% of its
land area.
2. The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about
60% of the world’s population.
Identify the wrong statement in the above statements:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are incorrect
19. Identify the statements regarding the density of population:
1. Density of population = population/area
2. Asia has the highest density of population.
Choose the correct statement/s with the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
20. Consider the following statements regarding the population:
1. Change of population in particular area between two points of
time is known as growth of population.
2. Natural Growth of Population is the population increased by
difference between births and deaths in a particular region
between two points of time.
Select the correct statement with codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct (b) Only 2 is correct (c) Both are correct (d)
Only 2 is wrong
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Economic
factors:
1. Areas with mineral deposits attract industries. Mining and
industrial activities generate employment.
2. Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and
medical facilities, better means of transport and
communication. Identify the correct statements through the
following codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct (b) Only 1 is wrong (c) Only 2 is correct (d)
Both are correct
22. Consider the following statements regarding Migration:
1. When people move from one place to another, the place they
move from is called the Place of Origin and the place they
move to is called the Place of Destination.
2. Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal. It may
take place from rural to rural areas, rural to urban areas, urban
to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are incorrect (d) Both are correct
23. Consider the following statements demographic transition:
1. Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and
predict the future population of any area.
2. There are two demographic transition theories.
Tick the correct statement as per the given options
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
24. Consider the following statements regarding the sex composition:
1. The ratio between the number of women and men in the
population is called the Sex Ratio.
2. In regions where gender discrimination is rampant, the sex
ratio is bound to be unfavourable to women.
Choose the correct statements through the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
25. Consider the following statement regarding growth and
development:
1. The difference is that growth is quantitative and value neutral.
2. Development means a qualitative change which is always
value positive.
Identify the correct statement:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
26. Consider the following statements regarding human development:
1. Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available
to everybody.
2. Sustainability means continuity in the availability of
opportunities.
3. Productivity here means human labour productivity or
productivity in terms of human work.
4. Empowerment means to have the power to make choices.
Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability.
Choose the correct statement/statements:
(a) 1, 2 are correct
(b) 3, 4 are wrong
(c) All are wrong
(d) All are correct
1. More than half of the population is under 30 years and less
than one-fourth is 45 years or older.
2. A population explosion in India commenced following the great
influenza epidemic of 1918-19.
Answer the statements through the codes:
(b) Only 2 is wrong
(c) Only 1 is wrong
1. India has one of the largest, most highly diversified economies
in the world, but, because of its enormous population, it is—in
terms of income and gross national product (GNP) per capita—
one of the poorest countries in the world.
2. Many of the government’s decisions are highly political,
especially its attempts to invest equitably among the various
states of the union.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
29. Consider the following statements regarding the demography of
population:
1. India has one of the youngest populations in an aging world.
By 2030, the median age in India will be just 28, compared to
37 in China and the US, 45 in Western Europe, and 49 in
Japan.
2. This transition happens largely because of a decrease in the
total fertility rate (TFR) which is the number of births per
woman after the increase in life expectancy gets stabilised.
(a) 1 is wrong
(b) 2 is wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. Better economic growth brought about by increased economic
activities due to higher working age population and lower
dependent population.
2. Demographic dividend has historically contributed up to 15% of
the overall growth in advanced economies.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 is wrong
(d) Both are wrong
31. Consider the following statements regarding density of the

population.
1. Population density is the number of people living in a unit area
of the earth’s surface.
2. South Central Asia has the highest density of population
followed by East and South East Asia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2, 3
32. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Births are usually measured using the birth rate, i.e., the
number of live births per 1000 people.
2. Deaths are usually measured using the death rate, i.e., the
number of deaths per 1000 people. Migrations is the
movement of people in and out of an area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
33. Consider the following statement:
1. Rates of population growth is same across the world.
Although, the world’s total population is rising rapidly, not all
countries are experiencing the growth.
2. Some countries like Kenya have high population growth rates.
They had both high birth rates and death rates.
Choose the correct answer
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
1. People vary greatly in their age, sex, literacy level, health
condition, occupation and income level.
2. Population composition refers to the structure of the
population.
Choose the correct statement or statements
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
35. Choose the correct statement/s
1. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 482
persons per sq km.
2. Densities vary from 1,102 persons per sq km in Bihar to only
17 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer with codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
36. Consider the following statements regarding population:
1. Population is a dynamic phenomenon. The numbers,
distribution and composition of the population are constantly
changing.
2. This is the influence of the interaction of the three processes,
namely—births, deaths and migrations.
Choose the correct answer with codes below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
37. Consider the following statements regarding Literacy Rates:
1. Literacy is a very important quality of a population. Obviously,
only an informed and educated citizen can make intelligent
choices and undertake research and development projects.
2. According to the Census 2011, a person aged 7 years and
above, who can read and write with understanding in any
language, is treated as literate.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
38. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The percentage of population that is economically active is an
important index of development.
2. The distribution of the population according to different types of
occupation is referred to as the occupational structure.
Choose the answer from the following:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
39. Considering the following statements:
1. Health is an important component of population composition,
which affects the process of development.
2. Death rates have declined from 25 per 1000 population in
1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
1. The world pattern of sex ratio does not exhibit variations in the
developed regions of the world. The sex ratio is favourable for
females in 139 countries of the world and unfavourable for
them in the remaining 72 countries listed by the United
Nations.
2. In general, Asia has a low sex ratio. Countries like China,
India, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and Afghanistan have a lower
sex ratio.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
41. Identify the wrong statement/ statements in the following:
1. Age structure represents the number of people of different age
groups. This is an important indicator of population
composition.
2. The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of
females and males in different age groups.
Choose the correct options:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
42. Which of the following statement/s are wrong?
1. The division of population into rural and urban is based on the
literacy. This division is necessary because rural and urban life
styles differ from each other in terms of their livelihood and
social conditions.
2. The age-sex-occupational structure, density of population and
level of development vary between rural and urban areas.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
43. Choose the correct statement or statements:
1. Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of
its socio-economic development as it reveals the standard of
living, social status of females, availability of educational
facilities and policies of government.
2. Level of economic development is both a cause and
consequence of literacy.
3. In India, literacy rate denotes the percentage of population
above 7 years of age, who is able to read, write and have the
ability to do arithmetic calculations with understanding.
Answer with the following codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All correct
1. Both growth and development refer to changes over a period
of time.
2. Developement means that the change may be either positive
(showing an increase) or negative (indicating a decrease).
Choose the correct code from given below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) All are wrong
(d) All are correct
1. Population growth is determined by the annual growth rate,
which is calculated in percent per annum.
2. One of the most important characteristics of the population of
India, the age composition determines the country’s social and
economic structure.
Answer with codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
46. Identify the wrong statement/statements in the following:
1. India is the second most populated country of the world after
China.
2. India accounts for a meagre 2.4% of the world surface area of
135.79 million square kms yet it supports and sustains a
whopping 17.75% of the world population.
3. According to the Census of India 2011, the population of India
stood at 1,210,854,977 comprising of 623,270,258 males and
587,584,719 females.
Answer with codes:
(a) Only 1, 2
(b) Only 2, 3
(c) Only 1
(d) All are correct
47. Which of the following statement/statements is correct?
1. India is the second most populated country in the world with
nearly a fifth of the world’s population. According to the 2019
revision of the World Population Prospects population stood at
1,352,642,280.
and more than 65% below the age of 35.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
1. The population of India as per 2011 census was
1,110,193,422. India added 181.5 million to its population since
2001.
2. India is the homeland of major belief systems such as
Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism and Jainism.
Choose the correct statement from the above through the codes
given below:
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1
(d) Both are wrong
1. The religious data on India Census 2011 was released by the
Government of India on 25 August 2015. Hindus are 79.8%
(966.3 million), Muslims are 14.23% (172.2 million) in India and
Christians are 2.30% (28.7 million).
2. There are six religions in India that have been awarded
“National Minority” status - Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains,
Buddhists and Parsis.
Select the correct statements through the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are wrong
50. Consider the following statements regarding language
demographic:
1. According to 2011 Census, 57.1% of Indian population know
Hindi, in which 43.63% of Indian people have declared Hindi as
their native language or mother tongue.
2. The 2011 census report on bilingualism and trilingualism,
which provides data on the two languages in order of
preference in which a person is proficient other than the mother
tongue, was released in September 2018.
Select the correct statement with the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
Explanations
1. India’s population as on March 2011 stood at 1210.6 million,
which account for 17.5% of the world’s pop-ulation. These 1.21
billion people are unevenly distributed over our country’s vast
area of 3.28 million square km, which accounts for 2.4% of the
world’s area.
The 2011 Census data reveals that Uttar Pradesh with a
population size of 199 million is the most populous state of India.
Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 16% of the country’s population.
On the other hand, the Himalayan state of Sikkim has a
population of just about 0.6 million and Lakshadweep has only
64,429 people.
2. The rate or the pace of population increase is the other important
aspect. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g., a rate of increase
of 2% per annum means that in a given year, there was an
increase of 2 persons for every 100 persons in the base
population.
This is referred to as the annual growth rate.
India’s population has been steadily increasing from 361
million in 1951 to 1210 million in 2011.
3. There are three main processes of change of population: birth
rates, death rates and migration. The natural increase of
population is the difference between birth rates and death rates.
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 persons in a
year. It is a major component of growth because in India, birth
rates have always been higher than death rates.
Death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 persons in a
year. The main cause of the rate of growth of the Indian
population has been the rapid decline in death rates.
The third component of population growth is migration.
Migration is the movement of people across regions and
territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or
international (between the countries).
4. Water is the most important factor for life. So, people prefer to live
in areas where fresh water is easily available. Water is used for
drinking, bathing and cooking - and also for cattle, crops,
industries and navigation. It is because of this that river valleys
are among the most densely populated areas of the world.
People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes. This is
because such areas are favourable for the production of crops
and to build roads and industries. The mountainous and hilly
areas hinder the development of transport network and hence
initially do not favour agricultural and industrial development.
An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts are
uncomfortable for human habitation. Areas with a comfortable
climate, where there is not much seasonal variation attract more
people.
5. Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and
predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that
population of any region changes from high births and high
deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from
rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society.
These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as
the demographic cycle.
6. Just as any building is supported by pillars, the idea of human
development is supported by the concepts of equity, sustainability,
productivity and empowerment.
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available
to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal
irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case,
caste. Yet this is very often not the case and happens in almost
every society.
For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which
group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should then
lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behaviour. In
India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially
and economically backward groups drop out of school. This
shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having
access to knowledge.
and more than 65% below the age of 35. It is expected that, in
2020, the average age of an Indian will be 29 years, compared to
37 for China and 48 for Japan; and, by 2030, India’s dependency
ratio should be just over 0.4.
and more than 65% below the age of 35. It is expected that, in
2020, the average age of an Indian will be 29 years, compared to
37 for China and 48 for Japan; and, by 2030, India’s dependency
ratio should be just over 0.4.
India has more than 2000 ethnic groups, and every major
religion is represented, as are four major families of languages
(IndoEuropean, Dravidian, Austroasiatic and Sino-Tibetan
languages) as well as two language isolates (the Nihali language
spoken in parts of Maharashtra and the Burushaski language
spoken in parts of Jammu and Kashmir (Kashmir).
Further complexity is lent by the great variation that occurs
across this population on social parameters such as income and
education. Only the continent of Africa exceeds the linguistic,
genetic and cultural diversity of the nation of India.
9. India is the second most populated country of the world after
China. Population of India is projected close to 1.37 billion or
1369 million in 2019, compare to 1.354 billion in 2018. Population
growth rate for 2019 is projected at 1.08%. India will add 1.49 cr
in 2019 that is near to current population of 74th ranked Somalia.
India accounts for a meagre 2.4% of the world surface area of
whopping 17.75% of the world population. It is now estimated that
by 2024, India will most likely overtake China to become the most
populous country on the earth with 1.44 billion people. And by
2029, India will cross the 1.5 billion mark. Population of India will
decrease after 2061.
10. According to the Census of India 2011, the population of India
stood at 1,210,854,977 comprising of 623,270,258 males and
587,584,719 females. The percentage decadal growth during
2001-2011 was 17.70%, 3.84% lower than 1991-2001 period.
The percentage decadal growth during 20012011 has
registered the sharpest decline since Independence. Population
of India has increased by 182.1 million during the decade 2001-
2011. The increased population during the decade 2001-2011 is
approximately equal to the population of Pakistan, the sixth most
populous country in the world.
11. This uneven distribution of the population is due to the varying
population density of the country. Population density = the total
number of people per unit of area. Also, population density is
largely dependent on the geographical location and geological
factors.
Therefore, states like Assam, Himachal Pradesh, and other
hilly terrains have a lower density of population. While the
northern plains and coastal areas like Kerala, West Bengal and
Maharashtra have very high population density.
12. This is largely influenced by three main factors like birth, death
and migration of people in a given year.
• Birth rate: The number of children born per 1000 people in a
year
• Death rate: The number of people died per 1000 people in a
year.
What is most noteworthy here is that the birth rate in India is and
has always been higher than the death rate, which is a major
reason behind population growth.
The third and one of the most important factors of population
change is migration. Migration can be internal (between states)
and international (between countries). While internal migration
does not lead to population change, it does affect the population
density in the migrated areas.
13. One of the most important characteristics of the population of
India, the age composition determines the country’s social and
economic structure. The total population is broadly divided into
three age groups-
• Children- below 15 years
• Working age- 15- 59 years
• Aged (Senior)- 59 years and above
14. Population density is a measurement of population per unit
volume or unit area. It is a key geographical term. So the density
of population is the number of people living in a particular space,
say one kilometer or one mile. It is determined by dividing the
population of an area by its land area.
15. The sex ratio of population is determined by the number of
females for every 1000 males. This helps in understanding the
equality of males and females in the society, which consequently
gives an idea of the nation’s culture. India’s sex ratio has always
been on the lower side, until recently. States like Kerala and Union
Territory of Pondicherry have higher sex ratio than the major
states.
This is yet another important characteristic of the population
because the literacy rate of a country determines its economic
structure and growth. Literacy, according to the 2001 Census, is
the ability of a person of 7 years and above to read and write in
any language. The census states the literacy rate of the
population of India is almost 74.04% (2016).

16. Statement I: CORRECT—Adolescents are people between the
age groups of 10-19 years and in our country. Also, about one-fifth
of the population comprise adolescent individuals. They are
especially relevant to the future growth and are the most
significant part of the population of India.
Statement II: CORRECT—The sex ratio of population is
determined by the number of females for every 1000 males. This
helps in understanding the equality of males and females in the
society, which consequently gives an idea of the nation’s culture.
India’s sex ratio has always been on the lower side, until recently.
States like Kerala and Union Territory of Pondicherry have higher
sex ratio than the major states.
17. Statement I: CORRECT—Literacy, according to the 2001 Census,
is the ability of a person of 7 years and above to read and write in
any language. The census states the literacy rate of the
population of India is almost 74.04% (2016).
Statement II: INCORRECT—The number of people in a
population involved in different economic activities helps assess
the growth of the country’s economy. The occupational structure is
the distribution of the population across different occupations. This
is an important element of the population of India. Also, our
occupational structure has three broad categories-
• Primary occupation-agriculture, fishing, mining, animal
husbandry, forestry, etc.
• Secondary occupation- manufacturing, building, construction
work, etc.
• Tertiary occupation- communication, transportation,
administration, etc.
18. Statement I: CORRECT—Patterns of population distribution and
density help us to understand the demographic characteristics of
any area. The term population distribution refers to the way
people are spaced over the earth’s surface. Broadly, 90% of the
world population lives in about 10% of its land area.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The 10 most populous countries of
the world contribute about 60% of the world’s population. Of these
ten countries, six are located in Asia. Identify these six countries
of Asia.
19. Statement I: CORRECT—
Density of Population = Population/Area For example, area of
Region X is 100 sq km and the population is 1, 50,000 persons.
The density of population is calculated as:
Density = 1, 50,000/100 = 1,500 person/sq km.
Statement II: CORRECT—Asia has the highest density of
population.
20. Statement I: CORRECT—Growth of Population: Change of
population in particular area between two points of time is known
as growth of population. For example, if we deduct the population
of India 2001 (102.70 crore) from population of 2011 (121.02
crore) then we shall get the growth of population (18.15 crores) in
actual numbers.
Growth Rate of Population: This is the change of population
expressed in percentage.
Statement II: CORRECT—Natural Growth of Population: This is
the population increased by difference between births and deaths
in a particular region between two points of time.
Natural Growth = Births - Deaths
Actual Growth of Population: This is Births - Deaths + In Migration
- Out Migration.
21. Statement I: CORRECT—Areas with mineral deposits attract
industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment.
So, skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and
make them densely populated. Katanga Zambia copper belt in
Africa is one such good example.
Statement II: CORRECT—Cities offer better employment
opportunities, educational and medical facilities, and better means
of transport and communication. Good civic amenities and the
attraction of city life draw people to the cities. It leads to rural to
urban migration and cities grow in size. Mega cities of the world
continue to attract large number of migrants every year.
22. Statement I: CORRECT—Apart from birth and death there is
another way by which the population size changes. When people
move from one place to another, the place they move from is
called the Place of Origin and the place they move to is called the
Place of Destination. The place of origin shows a decrease in
population while the population increases in the place of
destination. Migration may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort
to achieve a better balance between population and resources.
Statement II: CORRECT—Migration may be permanent,
temporary or seasonal. It may take place from rural to rural areas,
rural to urban areas, urban to urban areas and urban to rural
areas.
Immigration: Migrants who move into a new place are called
Immigrants.
Emigration: Migrants who move out of a place are called
Emigrants.
23. Statement I: CORRECT—Demographic transition theory can be
used to describe and predict the future population of any area.
The theory tells us that population of any region changes from
high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as
society. Progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban
industrial and literate society. These changes occur in stages
which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The three-staged model of
Demographic Transition Theory: The first stage has high fertility
and high mortality because people reproduce more to
compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food
supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are
engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it
declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate.
Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline
in mortality.
In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline
considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The
population becomes urbanised, literate and has high technical
knowhow and deliberately controls the family size.
24. Statement I: CORRECT—The number of women and men in a
country is an important demographic characteristic. The ratio
between the number of women and men in the population is
called the Sex Ratio. In some countries it is calculated by using
the formula:
Male Population/Female Population x 1000 or the number of
males per 1000 females.
In India, the sex ratio is worked out using the formula:
Female Population/Male Population x 1000 or the number of
females per 1000 males.
Statement II: CORRECT—In regions where gender discrimination
is rampant, the sex ratio is bound to be unfavourable to women.
Such areas are those where the practice of female foeticide,
female infanticide and domestic violence against women are
prevalent. One of the reasons could be lower socioeconomic
status of women in these areas. You must remember that more
women in the population does not mean they have a better status.
It could be that the men might have migrated to other areas for
employment.
25. Statement I: CORRECT—Both growth and development refer to
changes over a period of time. The difference is that growth is
quantitative and value neutral. It may have a positive or a
negative sign. This means that the change may be either positive
Statement II: CORRECT—Development means a qualitative
change which is always value positive. This means that
development cannot take place unless there is an increment or
addition to the existing conditions. Development occurs when
positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always
lead to development. Development occurs when there is a
positive change inquality.
26. Statement I: CORRECT—Equity refers to making equal access to
opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available
to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income
and in the Indian case, caste. Yet this is very often not the case
and happens in almost every society.
Statement II: CORRECT—Sustainability means continuity in the
availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human
development, each generation must have the same opportunities.
All environmental, financial and human resources must be used
keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will
lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.
Statement III: CORRECT—Productivity here means human labour
productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such
productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in
people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations.
Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better
health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.
Statement IV: CORRECT—Empowerment means to have the
power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing
freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented
policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of
socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special
importance.
27. Statement I: CORRECT—India’s population is young. Its birth and
death rates are both near the global average. More than half the
population is under age 30 and less than one-fourth is age 45 or
older. Life expectancy is about 68 for men and 70 for women.
Statement II: CORRECT—A population explosion in India
commenced following the great influenza epidemic of 1918-19. In
subsequent decades there was a steadily accelerating rate of
growth up to the census of 1961, after which the rate leveled off
(though it remained high). The total population in 1921 within the
present borders of India (i.e., excluding what is now Pakistan and
Bangladesh) was 251 million, and in 1947, at the time of
Independence, it was about 340 million.
28. Statement I: CORRECT—India has one of the largest, most
highly diversified economies in the world, but, because of its
enormous population, it is—in terms of income and gross national
product (GNP) per capita—one of the poorest countries in the
world. Since Independence, India has promoted a mixed
economic system in which the government, constitutionally
defined as “socialist,” plays a major role as central planner,
regulator, investor, manager, and producer.
Statement II: CORRECT—Many of the government’s decisions
are highly political, especially its attempts to invest equitably
among the various states of the union. Despite the government’s
pervasive economic role, large corporate undertakings dominate
many spheres of modern economic activity, while tens of millions
of generally small agricultural holdings and petty commercial,
service, and craft enterprises account for the great bulk of
employment.
29. Statement I: INCORRECT—India has one of the youngest
populations in an aging world. By 2020, the median age in India
will be just 28, compared to 37 in China and the US, 45 in
Western Europe, and 49 in Japan.
Since 2018, India’s working-age population (people between
15 and 64 years of age) has grown larger than the dependant
population — children aged 14 or below as well as people above
65 years of age. This bulge in the working-age population is going
to last till 2055, or 37 years from its beginning.
Statement II: CORRECT—This transition happens largely
because of a decrease in the total fertility rate (TFR, which is the
number of births per woman) after the increase in life expectancy
gets stabilised.
A study on demographic dividend in India by United Nations
Population Fund (UNFPA) throws up two interesting facts:
• The window of demographic dividend opportunity in India is
available for five decades from 2005-06 to 2055-56, longer than
any other country in the world.
• This demographic dividend window is available at different times
in different states because of differential behaviour of the
population parameters.
30. Statement I: CORRECT—Better economic growth brought about
by increased economic activities due to higher working age
population and lower dependent population. It will be channelised
in following ways: Increased Labour Force that enhances the
productivity of the economy and, increased fiscal space created
by the demographic dividend to divert resources from spending on
children to investing in physical and human infrastructure.
Rise in women’s workforce that naturally accompanies a
decline in fertility, and which can be a new source of growth.
Increase in savings rate, as the working age also happens to be
the prime period for saving. A massive shift towards a middle-
class society, that is, the rise of aspirational class.
Statement II: CORRECT—Demographic dividend has historically
contributed up to 15% of the overall growth in advanced
economies. Japan was among the first major economies to
experience rapid growth because of changing population
structure. The country’s demographic-dividend phase lasted from
1964 to 2004.

31. Statement I: CORRECT—Population density is the number of
people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface. It is normally
expressed as per square km. The average density of population in
the whole world is 51 persons per square km.
Statement II: CORRECT—South Central Asia has the highest
density of population followed by East and South East Asia. The
population change refers to change in the number of people
during a specific time. The world population has not been stable.
This is actually due to changes in the number of births and
deaths. For an extremely long period of human history, until the
1800s, the world’s population grew steadily but slowly.
32. Statement I: CORRECT—Births are usually measured using the
birth rate, i.e., the number of live births per 1000 people. Deaths
are usually measured using the death rate, i.e., the number of
deaths per 1000 people. Migrations is the movement of people in
and out of an area.
Statement II: CORRECT—Births and deaths are the natural
causes of population change. The difference between the birth
rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth
rate. The population increase in the world is mainly due to rapid
increase in natural growth rate.
33. Statement I: CORRECT—Rates of population growth vary across
the world. Although, the world’s total population is rising rapidly,
not all countries are experiencing this growth. Some countries like
Kenya have high population growth rates. They had both high
birth rates and death rates.
Statement II: INCORRECT—Now, with improving health care,
death rates have fallen, but birth rates still remain high leading to
high growth rates. In other countries like United Kingdom,
population growth is slowing because of both low death and low
birth rates.
34. Statement I: CORRECT—To understand the role of people as a
resource, we need to know more about their qualities. People vary
greatly in their age, sex, literacy level, health condition,
occupation and income level. It is essential to understand these
characteristics of the people. Population composition refers to the
structure of the population.
Statement II: CORRECT—The composition of population helps us
to know how many are males or females, which age group they
belong to, how educated they are and what type of occupations
they are employed in, what their income levels and health
conditions are.
35. Statement I: INCORRECT—The population density of India in the
year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km.
Statement II: INCORRECT—Densities vary from 1102 persons
per sq km in Bihar to only 17 persons per sq km in Arunachal
Pradesh. A study of the shows the pattern of uneven distribution
of population densities at the State level.
Note that the States with population densities below 250
persons per square km. rugged terrain and unfavourable climatic
conditions are primarily responsible for sparse population in these
areas.
36. Statement I: CORRECT—Population is a dynamic phenomenon.
The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are
constantly changing. This is the influence of the interaction of the
three processes, namely — births, deaths and migrations.
Statement II: CORRECT—Growth of population refers to the
change in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a
specific period of time, say during the last ten years. Such a
change can be expressed in two ways: in terms of absolute
numbers and in terms of percentage change per year.
The absolute numbers added each year or decade is the
magnitude of increase. It is obtained by simply subtracting the
earlier population (e.g. that of 2001) from the later population (e.g.
that of 2011). It is referred to as the absolute increase.
37. Statement I: CORRECT—Literacy is a very important quality of a
population. Obviously, only an informed and educated citizen can
make intelligent choices and undertake research and
development projects. Low levels of literacy are a serious
obstacle for economic improvement.
Statement II: CORRECT—According to the Census 2011, a
person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with
understanding in any language, is treated as literate. There has
been a steady improvement in the literacy levels in India. The
literacy rate in the country as per the Census of 2011 is 73%;
80.9% for males and 64.6% for females.
38. Statement I: CORRECT—The percentage of population that is
economically active is an important index of development. The
distribution of the population according to different types of
occupation is referred to as the occupational structure. An
enormous variety of occupations are found in any country.
Occupations are, generally,classified as primary, secondary and
tertiary.
Statement II: CORRECT—Primary activities include agriculture,
animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying, etc.
Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and
construction work, etc. Tertiary activities include transport,
communications, commerce, administration and other services.
39. Statement I: CORRECT—Health is an important component of
population composition, which affects the process of
development. Sustained efforts of government programmes have
registered significant improvements in the health conditions of the
Indian population.
Statement II: coRREcT—Death rates have declined from 25 per
1000 population in 1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011 and life
expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 67.9
years in 2012.
40. Statement I: CORRECT—The world pattern of sex ratio does not
exhibit variations in the developed regions of the world. The sex
ratio is favourable for females in 139 countries of the world and
unfavourable for them in the remaining 72 countries listed by the
United Nations.
Statement II: CORRECT—In general, Asia has a low sex ratio.
Countries like China, India, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and
Afghanistan have a lower sex ratio.
On the other extreme is greater part of Europe (including
Russia) where males are in minority. A deficit of males in the
populations of many European countries is attributed to better
status of women, and an excessively male-dominated out-
migration to different parts of the world in the past.
41. Statement I: CORRECT—Age structure represents the number of
people of different age groups. This is an important indicator of
population composition, since a large size of population in the age
group of 15- 59 indicates a large working population. A greater
proportion of population above 60 years represents an ageing
population which requires more expenditure on health care
facilities.
Statement II: CORRECT—The age-sex structure of a population
refers to the number of females and males in different age groups.
A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the
population. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the
characteristics of the population. The left side shows the
percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of
women in each age group.
42. Statement I: CORRECT—The division of population into rural and
urban is based on the residence. This division is necessary
because rural and urban life styles differ from each other in terms
of their livelihood and social conditions.
Statement II: INCORECT—The age-sex-occupational structure,
density of population and level of development vary between rural
and urban areas.
The criteria for differentiating rural and urban population varies
from country to country. In general terms rural areas are those
where people are engaged in primary activities and urban areas
are those when majority of the working population is engaged in
non-primary activities.
43. Statement I: CORRECT—Proportion of literate population of a
country in an indicator of its socioeconomic development as it
reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability
of educational facilities and policies of government.
Statement II: CORRECT—Level of economic development is both
a cause and consequence of literacy. In India - literacy rate
denotes the percentage of population above 7 years of age, who
is able to read, write and have the ability to do arithmetic
calculations with understanding.
Statement II: CORRECT—The working population (i.e. women
and men of the age group - 15 to 59) take part in various
occupations ranging from agriculture, forestry, fishing,
manufacturing construction, commercial transport, services,
communication and other unclassified services.
44. Statement I: CORRECT—Both growth and development refer to
changes over a period of time. The difference is that growth is
quantitative and value neutral. It may have a positive or a
negative sign. This means that the change may be either positive
Statement II: CORRECT—Development means a qualitative
change which is always value positive. This means that
development cannot take place unless there is an increment or
addition to the existing conditions. Development occurs when
positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always
lead to development. Development occurs when there is a
positive change in quality.
45. Statement I: CORRECT—Population growth is determined by the
annual growth rate, which is calculated in percent per annum.
Like, if there is an increase of 2 people per 100 people of the
population, then the annual growth rate would be 2%.
Statement II: CORRECT—One of the most important
characteristics of the population of India is that the age
composition determines the country’s social and economic
structure. The total population is broadly divided into three age
groups:
• Children- below 15 years
• Working-age- 15- 59 years
• Aged (Senior)- 59 years and above
46. Statement I: CORRECT—India is the second most populated
country of the world after China. Population of India is projected
close to 1.37 billion or 1 369 million in 2019, compare to 1.354
billion in 2018. Population growth rate for 2019 is projected at
1.08%. India will add 1.49 cr in 2019 that is near to current
population of 74th ranked Somalia. Statement II: CORRECT—
India accounts for a meagre 2.4% of the world surface area of
whopping 17.75% of the world population. It is now estimated that
by 2024, India will most likely overtake China to become the most
populous country on the earth with 1.44 billion people. And by
2029, India will cross the 1.5 billion mark. Population of India will
decrease after 2061.
Statement III: CORRECT—According to the Census of India 2011,
the population of India stood at 1,210,854,977 comprising of
623,270,258 males and 587,584,719 females. The percentage
decadal growth during 2001-2011 was 17.70%, 3.84% lower than
1991-2001 period.
47. Statement I: CORRECT—India is the second most populated
country in the world with nearly a fifth of the world’s population.
According to the 2019 revision of the World Population Prospects
population stood at 1,352,642,280.
During 1975-2010, the population doubled to 1.2 billion. The
Indian population reached the billion mark in 1998. India is
projected to be the world’s most populous country by 2024,
surpassing the population of China.
Statement II: CORRECT—India has more than 50% of its
population below the age of 25 and more than 65% below the age
of 35. It is expected that, in 2020, the average age of an Indian
will be 29 years, compared to 37 for China and 48 for Japan; and,
by 2030, India’s dependency ratio should be just over 0.4.
48. Statement I: INCORRECT—The population of India as per 2011
census was 1,210,193,422. India added 181.5 million to its
population since 2001. India, with 2.4% of the world’s surface
area, accounts for 17.5% of its population. Uttar Pradesh is the
most populous state with roughly 200 million people. Over half the
population resided in the six most populous states of Uttar
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh. Of the 1.21 billion Indians, 833 million (68.84%)
live in rural areas while 377 million stay in urban areas. 453.6
million people in India are migrants, which is 37.8% of total
population.
Statement II: CORRECT—India is the homeland of major belief
systems such as Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism and Jainism,
while also being home to several indigenous faiths and tribal
religions which have survived the influence of major religions for
centuries.
Ever since its inception, the Census of India has been
collecting and publishing information about the religious affiliations
as expressed by the people of India. In fact, population census
has the rare distinction of being the only instrument that collects
this diverse and important characteristic of the Indian population.
49. Statement I: CORRECT—The religious data on India Census
2011 was released by the Government of India on 25 August
2015. Hindus are 79.8% (966.3 million), Muslims are 14.23%
(172.2 million) in India and Christians are 2.30% (28.7 million).
According to the 2011 Census of India, there are 57,264 Parsis in
India. For the first time, a “No religion” category was added in the
2011 census. In the 2011 census, 2.87 million were classified as
people belonging to “No Religion” in India which is 0.24% of
India’s population of 1.21 billion.
Statement II: CORRECT—There are six religions in India that
have been awarded “National Minority” status-Muslims,
Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Parsis. Sunnis, Shias,
Bohras, Agakhanis and Ahmadiyyas were identified as sects of
Islam in India. As per 2011 census, six major faiths-Hindus,
Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Jains make up over
99.4% of India’s 1.21 billion population, while “other religions,
persuasions” (ORP) count is 8.2 million.
50. Statement I: CORRECT—Hindi is the most widely spoken
language in northern and western parts of India. The Indian
census takes the widest possible definition of “Hindi” as a broad
variety of “Hindi languages”. According to 2011 Census, 57.1% of
Indian population know Hindi, in which 43.63% of Indian people
have declared Hindi as their native language or mother tongue.
The language data was released on 26 June 2018. Bhili/Bhilodi
was the most spoken unscheduled language with 10.4 million
speakers, followed by Gondi with 2.9 million speakers. 96.71% of
India’s population speaks one of the 22 scheduled languages as
their mother tongue in the 2011 census.
Statement II: CORRECT—The 2011 census report on bilingualism
and trilingualism, which provides data on the two languages in
order of preference in which a person is proficient other than the
mother tongue, was released in September 2018. The number of
bilingual speakers in India is 31.49 crore, which is 26% of the
population in 2011. Seven per cent of Indian population is
trilingual. Hindi, Bengali speakers are India’s least multilingual
groups.
13
Agriculture including Resource

of India
1. _________ is one in which the farming areas consume all, or

nearly so, of the products locally grown.
(a) Subsidy agriculture
(b) Forestry agriculture
(c) Industrial agriculture
(d) Subsistence agriculture
2. The basic resources for agriculture are _______, besides the
seeds and animal breeds, and human endeavour.
(a) tractor, soil and water
(b) sunlight, trees and water
(c) sunlight, soil and water
(d) sunlight, soil and roads
3. India, situated in the monsoon belt of ________, is even now
dependent to a large extent, on rains for its agriculture.
(a) south-west Asia
(b) south-north Asia
(c) north-east Asia
(d) south-east Asia
4. Who termed the dams are the Temples of Modern India?
(a) Nehru
(b) Patel
(c) Gandhi
(d) Indira
5. Sprinkler irrigation is ________, and has been introduced in canal
irrigated areas.
(a) water-draught area
(b) water-efficient
(c) insuffient water areas
(d) canal water
6. ________ involves deliberate effort to modify the earth’s surface
through cultivation of crops and rearing of livestock for
sustenance or economic gain.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industries
(c) Service sector
(d) National highways
7. What is the meaning of organic farming?
(a) Green manure, compost
(b) Biological pest control
(c) Control pests, crop rotation
8. During which Plan period, the Government of India implemented
a new scheme—National Project on Organic Farming—for
production, promotion, market development of organic farming in
India.
(a) Ninth Plan
(b) Tenth Plan
(c) Eleventh Plan
(d) Twelfth Plan
9. What are the bio pesticides?
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Bacteria
10. The world’s first hybrid pigeonpea plant—ICPH 8—was bred and
released by scientists at the International Crops Research
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) near ________, in
1991.
(a) Manila
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Pune
(d) Phillipines
11. ________ is a traditional crop, but its demand has been adversely
affected by development of other materials for packaging,
changes in storage and transportation.
(a) Jute
(b) Rubber
(c) Rice
(d) Timber
12. Horticultural crops include ________.
(a) vegetables, fruits, mushroom
(b) ornamental crops, medicinal and aromatic plants
(c) spices and plantation crops such as coconut, cashew, cocoa,
and arecanut
(d) All of them
13. The Horticulture Training Institute (HTI) was opened in Uchani in
Kamal district of Haryana in ________.
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2003
14. During the which plan (2002-2007), the Technology Mission for
Integrated Development of Horticulture in North-Eastern States
was extended to Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and
Uttarakhand?
(a) 8th Plan
(b) 9th Plan
(c) 10th Plan
(d) 12th Plan
15. ______ has been a significant component of agriculture with an
important role in the rural economy.
(a) Animal husbandry (b) Horticulture
(c) Agriculture (d) Service sector
16. ________ of India are spread over 31.7 million hectares, 61% of
them in West Rajasthan and about 20% in Gujarat; the rest being
in Karnataka and Haryana.
(a) The winter arid regions
(b) The rain arid regions
(c) The hot arid regions
(d) The cold arid regions
17. ________ of the 144 million hectares of arable land in India is
rainfed and depends on natural precipitation for crop production,
and the practice of agriculture here is called dryland or rainfed
farming.
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 90%
(d) 60%
18. The Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE)
was set up in ______ in the Ministry of Agriculture.
(a) 1973
(b) 1983
(c) 1993
(d) 2003
19. The National Agricultural Technology Project (NATP), being
implemented by the ________ and Department of Agriculture and
Cooperation has three major components, viz., research,
organisation and management, and innovations in technology
dissemination.
(a) ICMA
(b) RACI
(c) ICAR
(d) ICRISAT
20. Which production has shown consistent rise over the years;
quality too has improved? This is mainly due to the new high
yielding varieties.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
(d) Sugarcane
21. In Eurasia, the Sumerians started to live in villages from about
________, relying on the Tigris and Euphrates rivers and a canal
system for irrigation.
(a) 7000 BC
(b) 8000 BC
(c) 9000 BC
(d) 10000 BC
22. In 2003 the production of agricultural products was approximately
worth ' 38 billion, hence, making India the ________ agricultural
exporter.
(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Last
23. Norman Borlaug is one of the leaders of this revolution, Hence he
was “ ________ ”.
(a) Father of Silver Revolution
(b) Father of Red Revolution
(c) Father of Industrial Revolution
(d) Father of Green Revolution
24. Which forests grow in regions that receive an excess of 200 cm of
rainfall?
(a) Tropical Evergreen Rainforests
(b) Deciduous Forest
(c) Desert Vegetation
(d) Mountain Forests
25. Our national animal the tiger is one such rare animal found in
India. In fact, ________ can be found nowhere else on earth.
(a) the Gujarat tiger
(b) the Bengal tiger
(c) the Royal tiger
(d) the Rajasthan tiger
26. Consider the following statements regarding agriculture land:
1. Agriculture is a purely land based activity unlike secondary and
tertiary activities.
2. In rural areas, aside from its value as a productive factor, land
ownership has a social value and serves as a security for
credit, natural hazards or life contingencies, and also adds to
the social status.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
27. Consider the following statements regarding agriculture:
1. The kharif season largely coincides with Southwest Monsoon
under which the cultivation of tropical crops such as rice,
cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur is possible.
2. Zaid is a short duration winter cropping season beginning after
harvesting of rabi crops.
Identify the wrong statement/statements through the codes:
(a) 1 wrong
(b) 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. There is difference in the nature of irrigated farming as well
based on objective of irrigation, i.e., protective or productive.
2. Productive irrigation is meant to provide sufficient soil moisture
in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
Identify whether right or wrong:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
29. Identify the following statements regarding farming:
1. In India, the dryland farming is largely confined to the regions
having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
2. In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture
requirement of plants during rainy season.
Choose the correct answer through the codes: (a) 1 correct
(b) 2 correct
(d) 2 wrong
30. Identify the statements which are wrong in the given:
1. The cereals occupy about 54% of total cropped area in India.
2. Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of
population in India.
Choose the answer by the codes:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. Before the mid-1960s India relied on imports and food aid to
meet domestic requirements.
2. A hectare of Indian wheat farm that produced an average of
0.8 tonnes in 1948, produced 4.7 tonnes of wheat in 1975 from
the same land.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. With agricultural policy success in wheat, India’s Green
Revolution technology spread to rice. However, since irrigation
infrastructure was very poor, Indian farmers innovated with
tube-wells, to harvest ground water.
2. India ranks 74 out of 113 major countries in terms of food
security index. India’s agricultural economy is undergoing
structural changes. Between 1970 and 2011, the GDP share of
agriculture has fallen from 43% to 16%.
Correct the above statements through the codes:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
33. Identify the statements regarding the irrigation in India:
1. Indian irrigation infrastructure includes a network of major and
minor canals from rivers, groundwater well-based systems,
tanks, and other rainwater harvesting projects for agricultural
activities.
2. Dams are not used for irrigation projects have helped provide
drinking water to a growing rural population, control flood and
prevent drought-related damage to agriculture.
Choose the correct statements with the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
34. Identify the following statements regarding organic agriculture:
1. Organic agriculture has fed India for centuries and it is again a
growing sector in India.
2. India has seen a huge growth in cooperative societies, mainly
in the farming sector, since 1947 when the country gained
independence from Britain.
Choose the wrong statement in the above:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
35. Identify the following statements whether right or wrong:
1. India has very poor rural roads affecting timely supply of inputs
and timely transfer of outputs from Indian farms. Irrigation
systems are inadequate, leading to crop failures in some parts
of the country because of lack of water.
2. Although India has attained self-sufficiency in food staples, the
productivity of its farms is below that of Brazil, the United
States, France and other nations.
Choose the correct statement/statements through the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Based on 2012 data, India is home to the fourth largest
agricultural sector in the world. India has an estimated 180
million hectares of farmland with 140 million of which are
planted and continuously cultivated.
2. India’s agricultural sector today still faces issues of efficiency
due to lack of mechanisation with poorer conditions of farmers,
as well as small farm sizes.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Both are correct
(c) Only 2 wrong
(d) Both are wrong
37. Identify the wrong statement/statements from the given ones:
1. Crop insurance is provided to farmers under the Pradhan
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY).
2. The Economic Survey 2017-18 noted that the share of
agricultural households insuring their crops was low.
Choose the correct answer by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. As of 2014-15, 49% of the country’s net sown area was under
irrigation.
2. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana was launched in
2015 to increase the coverage of irrigated area.
Choose the correct answer through the codes: (a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
39. Consider the following statements given below:
1. Between 2001-02 and 2017-18, production of horticulture
crops increased from 246 million tonnes to 512 million tonnes.
2. Agriculture marketing in most states is regulated by the
Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs)
established by central government.
Answer with the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
40. Consider the following statements regarding farming:
1. Primitive subsistence farming is still practised in few pockets of
India.
2. It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of
land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their
family.
Identify the correct answer:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
41. Identify the following statements given below:
1. Rice is one of the chief grains of India. Moreover, this country
has the largest area under rice cultivation, as it is one of the
principal food crops.
2. Rice can be cultivated by different methods based on the type
of region. But in India, the traditional methods are still in use for
harvesting rice.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
42. Choose the correct statement/statements given below:
1. Winter rice crop is a long duration crop and summer rice crop
is a short duration crop.
2. India ranks fourth in the production of wheat and second in
production of rice in the world.
Identify the correct statement by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
43. Choose the wrong statement given below:
1. Forestry in India is a significant rural industry and a major
environmental resource. India is one of the ten most forest-rich
countries of the world.
2. As of 2019, the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
United Nations estimates India’s forest cover to be about 68
million hectares, or 22% of the country’s area.
(a) Only 2 wrong
(b) Only 1 wrong
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Only 1 correct
44. Identify the correct statement/statements
1. Indian forests are more than trees and an economic resource.
They are home to some of earth’s unique flora and fauna.
2. India was, until 1991, one of the largest exporters of wild birds
to international bird markets. Most of the birds traded were
parakeets and munias.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
45. Identify the following statements:
1. Chipko movement in India started in the 1970s around a
dispute on how and who should have a right to harvest forest
resources.
2. A major threat to forests of India are in its north eastern states.
From ancient times, the locals have practiced slash-and-burn
shifting cultivation to grow food.
Answer the following codes:
(a) Only 2 correct
(c) Only 1 wrong
(d) Both are wrong
46. Choose the following statements given below:
1. Roads are an important mode of transport in India. India has a
network of over 5,603,293 kilometres (3,481,725 mi) of roads
as on 31 March 2016.
2. Since 1990s, major efforts have been underway to modernize
the country’s road infrastructure.
Answer the following statement:
(a) 1 correct
(b) 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
47. Choose the the incorrect statement/s:
1. State highways in India are numbered highways that are laid
and maintained by the state governments.
2. These are important roads within a district, connecting areas of
production with markets and connecting them with the state
highways and National Highways.
(a) Both are correct
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 wrong
(d) 2 wrong
1. As per 2017 estimates, the total road length in India is
5,603,293 km (3,481,725 mi); making the Indian road network
the second largest road network in the world after the United
States.
2. As per the National Highways Authority of India, about 65% of
freight and 80% passenger traffic is carried by the roads.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
49. Choose the correct statement given below:
1. In 1800, some 800,000 hectares were irrigated in India. The
British Raj by 1940 built significant number of canals and
irrigation systems in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, Assam and
Odisha.
2. India’s irrigation covered crop area was about 22.6 million
hectares in 1951, and it increased to a potential of 90 mha at
the end of 1995, inclusive of canals and groundwater wells.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
50. Choose the statement which is wrong from the following:
1. The Inter-link project has been split into three parts: a northern
Himalayan rivers inter-link component, a southern peninsular
component and starting 2005, an intrastate rivers linking
component.
2. The average rainfall in India is about 4,000 billion cubic
metres, but most of India’s rainfall comes over a 4-month
period - June through September.
Identify the correct answers by the given codes:
(a) Only 2 correct
(b) Only 1 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
51. Consider the following statements regarding cultivation:

1. Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of
Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of Southeast Asia and
Northeast India.
2. Nomadic herding is practised in the semiarid and arid regions
of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India, like Rajasthan
and Jammu and Kashmir.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
52. Identify the wrong statement/statements in the following:
1. In commercial farming crops are grown and animals are reared
for sale in market. The area cultivated and the amount of
capital used is large.
2. In mixed farming the land is used for growing food and fodder
crops only.
Answer with codes given below:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
53. Consider the statements regarding major food crops in India:
1. Rice is the major food crop of the world. It is the staple diet of
the tropical and subtropical regions.
2. Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during
growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest.
Identify the wrong statements:
(a) Only 1 wrong (b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong (d) Both are correct
54. Which of the statements are wrong regarding beverage crops?
1. Coffee requires warm and wet climate and well drained loamy
soil.
2. Tea is a beverage crop grown on plantations. This requires
cool climate and well distributed high rainfall throughout the
year for the growth of its tender leaves.
Answer the statements through the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
55. Consider the following statements regarding the Agricultural
Development:
1. Mechanisation of agriculture is also another aspect of
agricultural development.
2. Developing countries with large populations usually practise
intensive agriculture where crops are grown on small holdings
mostly for subsistence.
Identify the correct statements:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
56. Identify the wrong statement/statements given below:
1. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and
harvested in summer from April to August.
2. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different
parts of the country and these are harvested in September-
October.
3. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short
season during the summer months known as the Zaid season.
Answer the following:
(a) Only 1 wrong (b) Only 1, 2 wrong
(c) Only 2, 3 wrong (d) Only 1, 3 wrong
57. Choose the correct statement/statements regarding food crops
other than grains:
1. Sugarcane: It is a tropical as well as a subtropical crop. It
grows well in hot and humid climate with a temperature of 21°C
to 27°C and an annual rainfall upto 75 cm.
2. Oil Seeds: In 2014 India was the second largest producer of
groundnut in the world after China. In rapeseed production
India was third largest producer in the world after Canada and
China in 2014.
(a) Only 1 correct (b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are correct (d) Both are wrong
1. Irrigation is a major determinant of agricultural productivity.
Indian agriculture has been constrained by limited irrigation
and only about 40.6% of arable land is irrigated. The remaining
60% continues to depend on rainfall.
2. In the northern Indo-Gangetic plains, the states of Punjab,
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar have more than 60% of
their cultivated area irrigated.
(c) Both are wrong (d) Both are correct
59. Consider the following statements whether right or wrong:
1. The water resource situation in India is rapidly worsening, and
it is likely to become severe during coming decades. Per capita
availability of water is low, and the water is of poor quality.
2. Irrigation is the major user of water, accounting for more than
four-fifths of the total used water.
Answer through the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
60. Consider the following statements regarding irrigation in India:
1. Indian agriculture is particularly fragile as it continues to
depend on monsoon rains. A significant shift in the magnitude
of rains, or its timing, or its spread across the subcontinent is
capable of disrupting production and supplies.
2. Irregular or heavy monsoons may cause floods in agricultural
fields for hundreds of miles along riverbanks. Much of the
water runs off without being harvested or put to any use and
causes heavy loss of life and economic resources.
Answer using the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
61. Choose the correct statement/statements:
1. India will be required to produce more and more from less and
less land and water resources.
2. In India, water availability per capita was over 5000 cubic
metres (m3) per annum in 1950.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Most poor people in India live in rural areas. They belong to
socially weaker sections and have few or no assets. They work
as agricultural labourers and are dependent upon wage
earnings for their subsistence.
2. The rural employment guarantee scheme, the Mahatama
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA)
is an elaborate program to address the needs of the rural rich.
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. Soil fertility is generally defined as “ability of soil to supply plant
nutrients”.
2. There are chemical elements in the organic matter, which are
extremely important, especially in their relation or proportion to
each other.
Choose from the following:
(a) 1 correct
(c) 2 wrong
(d) Both are wrong
1. Soil resources get depleted with every harvest and need to be
replenished for every crop.
2. Application of appropriate fertilizers with the proper nutrient
mix will help not only to increase the productivity and farm
income but also provide a more realistic chance to obtain the
desired yield.
Answer using the following codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
65. Which of the statements is/are wrong in the following:
1. Indian agriculture has traditionally been dependent on
monsoon rains and only about 70% of cultivable land is
irrigated. Given the variability of rains in terms of their
magnitude and phasing during the season, agricultural
productivity is a risky activity.
2. The supply of fertilizer, pesticide, and insecticides required for
rainfed agriculture need to be ensured to raise current levels of
productivity.
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
66. Consider the following statements regarding watershed
management:
1. A striking feature of the monsoon is that a high proportion of
the annual rainfall takes place within two to three months,
resulting in massive floods and run-offs.
2. The pace of building irrigation infrastructure has been slow and
has constrained progress in agricultural productivity. New seed
varieties and fertilizers depend upon regular and timely
irrigation to yield results.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) II correct
(d) None is correct
67. Identify the correct statement/statements given below:
1. Productivity levels in Indian agriculture vary a lot, sometimes
by as much as ten times within the same district or a province,
indicating uneven outreach and application of technology,
expertise, or other inputs.
2. States with substantial areas under irrigation need to perform
better in terms of yields and agricultural productivity. Bihar is a
prime example.
Answer through the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
1. A significant part of production is lost in the process of
marketing due to institutional impediments, the distant location
of markets, lack of storage and transportation facilities, and the
absence of sorting and grading of produce.
2. At present, the market for agricultural produce is highly
segmented and subdivided. There is no national uniform
market for agricultural produce in India.
Answer using the below codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 wrong
(d) Both are wrong
69. Identify the wrong statements:
1. ADB’s first operation, a loan supporting the renovation of a
minor participatory irrigation system in Chhattisgarh, was
prepared with the help of project preparatory technical
assistance (PPTA), and was approved in 2008.
2. The succeeding country partnership strategy (CPS), 2018-
2021 reaffirmed ADB’s engagement in rural infrastructure,
including irrigation, water resources management, rural
markets, and transport facilities.
Answer the following with codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) All correct
(d) All wrong
70. Identify the correct statements regarding agriculture:
1. Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive
subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for
food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
2. A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions. In tropical
Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in Sahara
and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camel are reared.
Choose from the following:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
71. Choose the statements regarding agriculture:
1. Agriculture is practised under multiple combinations of physical
and socio-economic conditions, which gives rise to different
types of agricultural systems.
2. Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas
consume all, or nearly so, of the products locally grown.
Answer the following through the codes:
72. Consider the following statements whether right or wrong:
1. Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy
cultivation: This type of agriculture is characterised by
dominance of the rice crop.
2. Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other
than paddy. Due to the difference in relief, climate, soil and
some of the other geographical factors, it is not practical to
grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both 1 wrong
73. Identify the following statements regarding agricultural issues:
1. Plantation agriculture was introduced by the Europeans in
colonies situated in the tropics.
2. The French established cocoa and coffee plantations in west
Africa. The British set up large tea gardens in India and Sri
Lanka, rubber plantations in Malaysia and sugarcane and
banana plantations in West Indies.
Choose the correct answer through the codes:
(b) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
74. Identify the following statements whether correct or wrong:
1. This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts
of the world, e.g. North-western Europe, Eastern North
America, parts of Eurasia and the temperate latitudes of
Southern continents.
2. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of
milch animals. It is highly capital intensive. Animal sheds,
storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add
to the cost of dairy farming.
Choose the correct answer from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
75. Choose the following statements:
1. Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the
ore, mining is of two types: surface and underground mining.
2. When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining
method (shaft method) has to be used.
(a) Only 2 correct
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Both 1 wrong
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c)
36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b)
46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a)
66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)
Explanations
1. Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas
consume all, or nearly so, of the products locally grown. It can be
grouped in two categories — Primitive Subsistence Agriculture
and Intensive Subsistence Agriculture. Primitive subsistence
agriculture or shifting cultivation is widely practised by many tribes
in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and Central America and
south East Asia the vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the
ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting cultivation is thus,
also called slash and burn agriculture. The cultivated patches are
very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as
sticks and hoes.
2. The basic resources for agriculture are sunlight, soil and water,
besides the seeds and animal breeds, and human endeavour.
Another important input is the agro technique. Agricultural
production is adversely affected if any of these factors is limited,
or disturbed.
Obviously, scientific study enables technological innovations to
manipulate these factors to maximise production. Increasingly
nowadays, application of science and technology also involves
preventing or at least minimising wasteful use of precious
resources.
3. India, situated in the monsoon belt of south-east Asia, is even
now dependent to a large extent, on rains for its agriculture.
Rainfall is unevenly distributed, and in some years the monsoon
fails, resulting in drought. It is a measure of the resilience injected
into our agriculture by S&T inputs that we are not so severely
affected by droughts now as in the past.
The geographic situation of the country forces us to learn to
cope with inconsistent monsoons. The average annual rainfall we
receive is about 370 million hectare-metres of which about 80
million hectare- metres of water seeps into the soil.
4. There was a time when the multipurpose river valley projects
were hailed as the harbingers of prosperity. Not anymore. These
“temples of Modern India” as Jawaharlal Nehru termed the dams,
have no doubt proved an important factor in achieving a
successful breakthrough in agriculture and a measure of
selfsufficiency in food production.
However, their success has been overrated. Serious problems
have arisen. Heavy siltation of the reservoirs of major dams
reduces storage capacity, and they become incapable of
absorbing heavy floods. A disastrous fallout is the degradation of
the soil in the command areas of irrigation projects due to
waterlogging and soil salinity.
5. Sprinkler irrigation is water-efficient, and has been introduced in
canal irrigated areas of Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya
Pradesh. Drip irrigation is being encouraged in Maharashtra,
Kamataka, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, and Tamil Nadu for fruit
crops. ‘Fertigation’ is an innovation: the application of fertiliser
through drip irrigation to maximise farm productivity with available
water.
6. Agriculture involves deliberate effort to modify the earth’s surface
through cultivation of crops and rearing of livestock for
sustenance or economic gain. Modern agriculture has resulted in
over-cropping (causing soil deterioration), overgrazing (destroying
grass cover), and deforestation (loss of green cover)—all affecting
the environmental pattern.
With the introduction of green revolution technologies, the
modern agriculture has become all the more dependent upon the
steady supply of synthetic inputs, such as fertilisers, which are
products of fossil fuel, i. e., coal and petroleum. Due to the
excessive and imbalanced use of these synthetic inputs, adverse
effects are being noticed.
7. Organic farming is a form of agriculture that relies on crop
rotation, green manure, compost, biological pest control, and
mechanical cultivation to maintain soil productivity and control
pests, excluding or strictly limiting the use of synthetic fertilisers
and synthetic pesticides, plant growth regulators, livestock feed
additives, and genetically modified organisms.
The term holistic is often used to describe organic farming.
Enhancing soil health is the cornerstone of organic farming. A
variety of methods are employed, including crop rotation, green
manure, cover cropping, application of compost, and mulching.
8. During the Tenth Plan period, the Government of India
implemented a new scheme—National Project on Organic
Farming—for production, promotion, market development of
organic farming in India.
The main components of the scheme include the following:
i. Putting in place a system of certification of organic produce

ii. Capacity building through service providers
iii. Financial support for commercial production units for production
of organic inputs like fruits and vegetable waste compost units,
bio-fertilisers production, and hatcheries for vermiculture
iv. Promotion, extension and market development of organic
farming
These components will be put into action during the 11th Plan.
Given India’s relative scarcity of land, large farmer population
and fragmented land-holdings, the benefits of organic farming
appear uniquely suited to Indian conditions.
In Madhya Pradesh, organic farming is being implemented
under the guidance of a team of experts comprising scientists,
environmentalists and food management personnel in 1565
villages.
9. Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived from such
natural materials as animals, plants, bacteria, and certain
minerals. For example, canola oil and baking soda have pesticidal
applications and are considered biopesticides. Biopesticides,
namely, fall into three major classes:
(i) Microbial pesticides consist of a microorganism (e.g., a
bacterium, fungus, virus or protozoan) as the active ingredient.
Microbial pesticides can control many different kinds of pests,
although each separate active ingredient is relatively specific for
its target pest[s]. For example, there are fungi that control certain
weeds, and other fungi that kill specific- insects.
10. The world’s first hybrid pigeonpea plant—ICPH 8—was bred and
released by scientists at the International Crops Research
Institute for the SemiArid Tropics (ICRISAT) near Hyderabad, in
1991. ICPH 8 takes a short duration to mature, escapes diseases,
such as fusarium wilt and sterility mosaic, and yields 30 to 40%
more than the popular open- pollinated varieties. It performs well
under drought as well as high-moisture conditions.
A change in the developmental rhythm has made it possible to
grow mung and urad in winter and summer and rajmah in the
plains. In chickpea or chana it is possible to grow plants which are
erect with many branches and pods from base to tip. Examples of
new cultivars: BG 244, ICC 34 (gram): LB G17, ADT3 (urad), MLZ
67, C04 (mung), Rachna (fieldpea).
11. Jute is a traditional crop, but its demand has been adversely
affected by development of other materials for packaging,
changes in storage and transportation. However, an
environmentally conscious world is now showing renewed interest
in jute. The Central Research Institute for Jute and Allied Fibres
(CRIJAF), ICAR, played a pivotal role in developing improved
production technology for both jute and Mesta.
High yielding varieties apart, the CRIJAF has also developed a
package of practices recommending fertiliser schedules for
different situations, foliar fertilisation, row cropping with multi-row
seed drill, pest-disease management and improved retting and
extraction techniques.
12. Horticultural crops include vegetables, fruits, mushroom,
ornamental crops, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and
plantation crops such as coconut, cashew, cocoa, and arecanut.
Fruit and plantation crops, as components of social forestry, help
maintain the ecological balance and the fight against atmospheric
pollution. Horticultural crops, particularly fruits, have great export
potential and can earn foreign exchange in sizeable quantities, if
the existing resources are tapped to a greater extent.
Considerable progress has been made in horticultural
development during the past two decades.
Horticulture educational system has been strengthened with
the creation of horticulture faculties in many state agricultural
universities. A separate University of Horticulture and Forestry
has been established in Himachal Pradesh.
13. The Horticulture Training Institute (HTI) was opened in Uchani in
Kamal district of Haryana in 2001. Set up by the Haryana
government the HTI aims at imparting training in modem practices
and disseminating the latest technological developments among
the farmers. It would tone up the activities of the state’s
horticulture department and diversity agroactivities to areas like
fruits and vegetable cultivation and floriculture.
Green houses have been set up with two objectives: providing
off-season output to the farmers and developing nurseries for
future business. The institute has a computerised greenhouse
which would help in training officials of the horticulture department
in flower cultivation.
14. During the Tenth Plan (2002-2007), the Technology Mission for
Integrated Development of Horticulture in North-Eastern States
was extended to Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and
Uttarakhand. The Small Farmer’s Agribusiness Consortium
(SFAC) is involved in coordinating the schemes. The schemes
also envisage making women self-reliant by providing them equal
opportunities and helping them avail the benefits of the existing
agricultural systems through the following interventions:
i. Organisation of women’s groups that would act as a network for
channelising the horticultural support;
ii. Need based assessment of women farmers in terms of the
horticulture support such as input support, technological
support, etc.;
iii. Prioritising the activities of the individual women’s groups on the
basis of need based assessment;
iv. Providing adequate organisational and financial support to
women groups; and
v. Providing technical training in horticulture and allied areas to
women-farmers.
15. Animal husbandry has been a significant component of

agriculture with an important role in the rural economy. Livestock
provide essential animal proteins through milk, meat and eggs;
they provide wool and skins; even their excrement is used,
directly, as fuel, or, indirectly, in biogias plants.
The present availability of animal protein in an Indian diet is 10
g per person per day, as against a world average of 25 g.
However, keeping in view the growing population, the animal
protein availability has to increase at least two-fold for maintaining
the nutritional level of growing children and nursing mothers in
India.
16. The hot arid regions of India are spread over 31.7 million
hectares, 61% of them in West Rajasthan and about 20% in
Gujarat; the rest being in Karnataka and Haryana. The cold arid
region is in Ladakh where aridity and low temperature limit
agricultural season to about five months in a year.
In the cold arid regions some cereals, oilseeds and fodder
crops which mature in a short period and can withstand severe
cold are cultivated. The hardy pashmina goat can also be reared
here.
17. About 70% of the 144 million hectares of arable land in India is
rainfed and depends on natural precipitation for crop production,
and the practice of agriculture here is called dryland or rainfed
farming. Dryland agriculture is important for the economy; most of
the cereals, pulses, oilseeds and raw cotton are grown on these
lands. It is of utmost importance to increase the productivity of
these lands.
Production in the rainfed areas can be substantially increased
through appropriate soil and water management practices,
including planned use of watersheds, water harvesting to provide
for crop saving irrigation, soil moisture conservation and cropping
system with limited use of fertiliser.
18. The Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE)
was set up in 1973 in the Ministry of Agriculture. It is responsible
for coordinating research and educational activities in agriculture,
animal husbandry and fisheries. It also brings about collaboration
among various departments and institutions engaged in the same
or allied fields on national and international levels. It provides
government support, service and linkage to the ICAR.
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is a
registered society, an autonomous body under DARE. It is the
apex body responsible for promoting, conducting and coordinating
research, education and primary extension education in
agriculture, animal sciences, fisheries and allied sectors in India.
19. TheNationalAgriculturalTechnology Project (NATP), being
implemented by the ICAR and Department of Agriculture and
Cooperation has three major components, viz., research,
organisation and management, and innovations in technology
dissemination.
Constraints in technology transfer may be technological,
organisational and administrative, social, as well as some basic
constraints. Specifically they relate to areas including marketing
and pricing, soil and water resources conservation, evolving high-
yielding and disease-resistant crop types, proper availability and
use of chemicals such as weedicides, lack of transport and
training facilities, and absence of proper study and in- depth
evaluation.
20. Rice production has shown consistent rise over the years; quality
too has improved. This is mainly due to the new high yielding
varieties. The dwarf varieties are not only significantly superior to
the tall indicas in responding to fertiliser, but they also give higher
yield even under low doses of fertilisers.
They also have high harvest index, i.e., ratio of grain to straw.
The new varieties made it possible for rice to be cultivated in non-
traditional areas. However, these did not suit the traditional
northeastern region as they were susceptible to pests in the
humid conditions; besides, there was a lack of optimal use of
fertilisers and poor water management.
21. In Eurasia, the Sumerians started to live in villages from about
8,000 BC, relying on the Tigris and Euphrates rivers and a canal
system for irrigation. Farmers grew wheat, barley, vegetables
such as lentils and onions, and fruits including dates, grapes, and
figs. Ancient Egyptian agriculture relied on the Nile River and its
seasonal flooding.
Staple food crops were grains such as wheat and barley,
alongside industrial crops such as flax and papyrus. In China,
from the 5th century BC, there was a nationwide granary system
and widespread silk farming. Water-powered grain mills were in
use by the first century BC, followed by irrigation. These slowly
spread westwards across Eurasia.
22. In 2003, the production of agricultural products was approximately
worth ' 38 billion, hence, making India the seventh largest
agricultural exporter. India is second in agricultural outputs and
therefore GDP of the country is based on agriculture. Rice, Milk,
Sugar Cane and Wheat are the crops yielding highest outputs.
Problems in agriculture were challenging but Green revolution
solved the problems with the introduction of chemicals, fertilizers
and pesticides to increase the agricultural productivity. The green
revolution is an agricultural revolution, therefore it is the 3rd
agricultural revolution around the world. Therefore, Fiber, Food,
Fuels and raw materials are the subdivisions of the agricultural
crops.
23. Green Revolution was from 1930-1960. It revolutionised the
agriculture field including new agricultural technologies and
Irrigational System. Norman Borlaug is one of the leaders of this
revolution, Hence he was” Father of Green Revolution”. He saved
billions of people from starvation and hence given the Noble
Price. Quality of diet improved over the world after the green
revolution.
Green revolution solved problems like Hunger and
malnutrition. The increase in chemical fertilizers and pesticides
deteriorated the health of people introducing Cancer and
leukaemia. This terminal illness was the result of chemicals and
pesticides used in growing crop.
24. Tropical Evergreen Rainforests: These grow in regions that
receive an excess of 200 cm of rainfall. Here the trees never shed
their leaves, hence are known as evergreen. These are dense
forests found in Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Assam etc.
25. Our national animal - the tiger, is one such rare animal found in
India. In fact, the Bengal tiger can be found nowhere else on
earth. We also have the Asiatic Lion, the only species of lions
found outside Africa. It is home to many such exotic animals such
as the Indian Elephant, the rhinoceroses and the leopard.
To preserve these amazing animals and their natural habitats,
we have many conservatories, national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries. In recent times to bring down illegal hunting and
poaching the government has passed some very strict laws as
well.

26. Statement I: CORRECT—Land resource is more crucial to the
livelihood of the people depending on agriculture: Agriculture is a
purely land based activity unlike secondary and tertiary activities.
In other words, contribution of land in agricultural output is more
compared to its contribution in the outputs in the other sectors.
Thus, lack of access to land is directly correlated with incidence of
poverty in rural areas. Quality of land has a direct bearing on the
pro-ductivity of agriculture, which is not true for other activities.
Statement II: CORRECT—In rural areas, aside from its value as a
productive factor, land ownership has a social value and serves
as a security for credit, natural hazards or life contingencies, and
also adds to the social status.
An estimation of the total stock of agricultural land resources
(i.e., total cultivable land) can be arrived at by adding up net sown
area, all fallow lands and cul- turable wasteland. It may be
observed from that over the years, there has been a marginal
decline in the available total stock of cultivable land as a
percentage to total reporting area. There has been a greater
decline of cultivated land, in spite of a corresponding decline of
cultivable wasteland.
27. Statement I: CORRECT—There are three distinct crop seasons in
the northern and interior parts of country, namely kharif, rabi and
zaid. The kharif season largely coincides with Southwest
Monsoon under which the cultivation of tropical crops such as
rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur is possible. The rabi season
begins with the onset of winter in October- November and ends in
March-April.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The low temperature conditions
during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and
subtropical crops such as wheat, gram and mustard. Zaid is a
short duration summer cropping season beginning after
harvesting of rabi crops. The cultivation of watermelons,
cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops during this season is
done on irrigated lands.
28. Statement I: CORRECT—On the basis of main source of
moisture for crops, the farming can be classified as irrigated and
rainfed (barani). There is difference in the nature of irrigated
farming as well based on objective of irrigation, i.e., protective or
productive. The objective of protective irrigation is to protect the
crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency which often
means that irrigation acts as a supplementary source of water
over and above the rainfall.
Statement II: CORRECT—Productive irrigation is meant to
provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve
high productivity. In such irrigation the water input per unit area of
cultivated land is higher than protective irrigation.
29. Statement I: CORRECT—In India, the dryland farming is largely
confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
These regions grow hardy and drought resistant crops such as
ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops) and practise
various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water
harvesting.
Statement II: CORRECT—In wetland farming, the rainfall is in
excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season.
Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards. These
areas grow various water intensive crops such as rice, jute and
sugarcane and practise aquaculture in the fresh water bodies.
30. Statement I: CORRECT—The cereals occupy about 54% of total
cropped area in India. The country produces about 11% cereals of
the world and ranks third in production after China and U.S.A.
India produces a variety of cereals, which are classified as fine
grains (rice, wheat) and coarse grains (jowar, bajra, maize, ragi),
etc.
Statement II: CORRECT—Rice is a staple food for the
overwhelming majority of population in India. Though, it is
considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3000
varieties which are grown in different agro-climatic regions.
These are successfully grown from sea level to about 2000 m
altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated
areas of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and northern
Rajasthan. In southern states and West Bengal, the climatic
conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an
agricultural year.
31. Statement I: CORRECT—In the years since its independence,
India has made immense progress towards food security. Indian
population has tripled, and food-grain production more than
quadrupled. There has been a substantial increase in available
food-grain per capita.
Before the mid-1960s India relied on imports and food aid to
meet domestic requirements. However, two years of severe
drought in 1965 and 1966 convinced India to reform its
agricultural policy and that they could not rely on foreign aid and
imports for food security. India adopted significant policy reforms
focused on the goal of food grain self-suffi-ciency. This ushered in
India’s Green Revolution.
Statement II: CORRECT—The initial increase in production was
centred on the irrigated areas of the states of Punjab, Haryana
and western Uttar Pradesh. With the farmers and the government
officials focusing on farm productivity and knowledge transfer,
India’s total food grain production soared.
A hectare of Indian wheat farm that produced an average of
0.8 tonnes in 1948, produced 4.7 tonnes of wheat in 1975 from
the same land. Such rapid growth in farm productivity enabled
India to become self-sufficient by the 1970s. It also empowered
the smallholder farmers to seek further means to increase food
staples produced per hectare. By 2000, Indian farms were
adopting wheat varieties capable of yielding six tonnes of wheat
per hectare.
32. Statement I: CORRECT—With agricultural policy success in
wheat, India’s Green Revolution technology spread to rice.
However, since irrigation infrastructure was very poor, Indian
farmers innovated with tube-wells, to harvest ground water. When
gains from the new technology reached their limits in the states of
initial adoption, the technology spread in the 1970s and 1980s to
the states of eastern India — Bihar, Odisha and West Bengal.
The lasting benefits of the improved seeds and new
technology extended principally to the irrigated areas which
account for about one-third of the harvested crop area. In the
1980s, Indian agriculture policy shifted to “evolution of a
production pattern in line with the demand pattern” leading to a
shift in emphasis to other agricultural commodities like oil seed,
fruit and vegetables.
Statement II: CORRECT—India ranks 74 out of 113 major
countries in terms of food security index. India’s agricultural
economy is undergoing structural changes. Between 1970 and
2011, the GDP share of agriculture has fallen from 43% to 16%.
This is not because of reduced importance of agriculture or a
consequence of agricultural policy. This is largely because of the
rapid economic growth in services, industrial output, and non-
agricultural sectors in India between 2000 and 2010.
Agricultural scientist MS Swami Nathan has played a vital role
in the green revolution. In 2013 NDTV awarded him as 25 living
legend of India for outstanding contribution to agriculture and
making India a food sovereign country.
33. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian irrigation infrastructure includes
a network of major and minor canals from rivers, groundwater
well-based systems, tanks, and other rainwater harvesting
projects for agricultural activities. Of these, the groundwater
system is the largest.
Of the 160 million hectares of cultivated land in India, about 39
million hectare can be irrigated by groundwater wells and an
additional 22 million hectares by irrigation canals. In 2010, only
about 35% of agricultural land in India was reliably irrigated.
About two-third cultivated land in India is dependent on
monsoons.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The improvements in irrigation
infrastructure in the last 50 years have helped India improve food
security, reduce dependence on monsoons, improve agricultural
productivity and create rural job opportunities. Dams used for
irrigation projects have helped provide drinking water to a growing
rural population, control flood and prevent drought-related
damage to agriculture.
However, free electricity and attractive minimum support price
for water intensive crops such as sugarcane and rice have
encouraged ground water mining leading to groundwater
depletion and poor water quality. A news report in 2019 states that
more than 60% of the water available for farming in India is
consumed by rice and sugar, two crops that occupy 24% of the
cultivable area.
34. Statement I: CORRECT—Organic agriculture has fed India for
centuries and it is again a growing sector in India. Organic
production offers clean and green production methods without the
use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides and it achieves a
premium price in the market place. India has 650,000 organic
producers, which is more than any other country. India also has 4
million hectares of land certified as organic wild culture, which is
third in the world (after Finland and Zambia).
As non-availability of edible biomass is impeding the growth of
animal husbandry in India, organic production of protein rich
cattle, fish and poultry feed using biogas /methane/natural gas by
cultivating Methyl coccus capsulitis bacteria with tiny land and
water foot print is a solution for ensuring adequate protein rich
food to the population.
Statement II: CORRECT—India has seen a huge growth in
cooperative societies, mainly in the farming sector, since 1947
when the country gained independence from Britain. The country
has networks of cooperatives at the local, regional, state and
national levels that assist in agricultural marketing. The
commodities that are mostly handled are food grains, jute, cotton,
sugar, milk, fruit and nuts Support by the state government led to
more than 25,000 cooperatives being set up by the 1990s in the
state of Maharashtra.
35. Statement I: CORRECT—India has very poor rural roads
affecting timely supply of inputs and timely transfer of outputs from
Indian farms. Irrigation systems are inadequate, leading to crop
failures in some parts of the country because of lack of water. In
other areas regional floods, poor seed quality and inefficient
farming practices, lack of cold storage and harvest spoilage cause
over 30% of farmer’s produce going to waste, lack of organised
retail and competing buyers thereby limiting Indian farmer’s ability
to sell the surplus and commercial crops.
Statement II: CORRECT—Although India has attained self-
sufficiency in food staples, the productivity of its farms is below
that of Brazil, the United States, France and other nations. Indian
wheat farms, for example, produce about a third of the wheat per
hectare per year compared to farms in France. Rice productivity
in India was less than half that of China. Other staples productivity
in India is similarly low.
36. Statement I: CORRECT—Based on 2012 data, India is home to
the fourth largest agricultural sector in the world. India has an
estimated 180 million hectares of farmland with 140 million of
which are planted and continuously cultivated. Yet India’s
agricultural profile is shadowed by the controversial impacts of
Green Revolution policies that were adopted in the 1960s and 70s
with pressure from the United States Agency for International
Development and the World Bank.
Statement II: CORRECT—India’s agricultural sector today still
faces issues of efficiency due to lack of mechanisation with poorer
conditions of farmers, as well as small farm sizes. In India
traditional agriculture is still dominant as many farmers depend on
livestock in crop production, for manure as fertilizers, and the use
animal powered ploughs. According to 2011 statistics, the
average farm in India is about 1.5 acres, minuscule when
compared the average of 50 hectares in France and or 178
hectares in United States and 273 hectares in Canada.
37. Statement I: CORRECT—Crop insurance is provided to farmers
under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY). The
scheme covers all farmers, including tenant farmers and
sharecroppers, who are growing notified crops in notified areas. In
2019-20, the scheme has been allocated ' 14,000 crore, an 8%
increase over the 2018-19 revised estimate. Issues related to crop
insurance raised over the years are: Statement II: CORRECT—
The Economic Survey 2017-18 noted that the share of agricultural
households insuring their crops was low. Less than five per cent
of the agricultural households cultivating major crops, such as rice
and wheat, insured them. Lack of awareness about crop
insurance among farmers was the major factor for not insuring
their crops. Further, lack of awareness about availability of crop
insurance programmes was another reason.
38. Statement I: CORRECT—As of 2014-15, 49% of the country’s net
sown area was under irrigation. The remaining agricultural area in
the country depends on rainfall. Major irrigation sources for
agriculture include tubewells (46%) and other wells (17%), and
canals (24%). Sources such as canals and tubewells use the
flood irrigation technique, where water is allowed to flow in the
field and seep into the soil. This results in wastage of water since
excess water seeps into the soil or flows off the surface without
being utilised. It has been recommended that farmers move from
flood irrigation to micro irrigation (drip or sprinkler irrigation
systems) in order to conserve water.
Statement II: CORRECT—The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai
Yojana was launched in 2015 to increase the coverage of irrigated
area. The Ministry implements the ‘Per Drop More Crop’
component under the scheme to increase water efficiency through
micro irrigation and other interventions. In 2019-20, Rs 3,500
crore has been allocated for the scheme, an 18% increase over
the revised estimates of 2018-19.
39. Statement I: INCORRECT—Between 2001-02 and 2017- 18,
production of horticulture crops increased from 146 million tonnes
to 312 million tonnes. This implies that the horticulture production
increased at an average rate of 4.9%. Production of foodgrains
increased at a rate of 1.7% during the same period. In 2017-18,
fruits and vegetables contributed to 31% and 59% of the total
horticultural production.
The National Mission on Horticulture seeks to promote
horticulture by providing availability of quality inputs such as
planting material, and post-harvest interventions such as
reduction in losses and access to markets. In 2019-20, the
scheme has been allocated ' 2225 crore, which is six per cent
more than the revised estimate of 2018-19.
Statement II: INCORRECT—Agriculture marketing in most states
is regulated by the Agriculture Produce Marketing Committees
(APMCs) established by state governments. The Standing
Committee on Agriculture (2018) observed that small and
marginal farmers face various issues in selling their produce in
APMC markets such as inadequate marketable surplus, long
distance to nearest APMC markets, and lack of transportation
facilities. Most farmers lack access to government procurement
facilities including APMC markets.
40. Statement I: CORRECT—This type of farming is still practised in
few pockets of India. Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised
on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe,
dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of
farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and
suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.
Statement II: CORRECT—It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture.
Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food
crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the
farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This
type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil
through natural processes; land productivity in this type of
agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other
modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of
the country.
41. Statement I: CORRECT—Rice is one of the chief grains of India.
Moreover, this country has the largest area under rice cultivation,
as it is one of the principal food crops. It is in fact the dominant
crop of the country. India is one of the leading producers of this
crop. Rice is the basic food crop and being a tropical plant, it
flourishes comfortably in hot and humid climate. Rice is mainly
grown in rain fed areas that receive heavy annual rainfall.
That is why it is fundamentally a kharif crop in India. It
demands temperature of around 25 degree Celsius and above
and rainfall of more than 100 cm. Rice is also grown through
irrigation in those areas that receives comparatively less rainfall.
Rice is the staple food of eastern and southern parts of India. In
2009-10, total rice production in India amounted to 89.13 million
tonnes, which was much less than production of previous year,
99.18 million tonnes. Statement II: CORRECT—Rice can be
cultivated by different methods based on the type of region. But in
India, the traditional methods are still in use for harvesting rice.
The fields are initially ploughed and then fertiliser is applied which
typically consists of cow dung and then the field is smoothed. The
seeds are transplanted by hand and then through proper
irrigation, the seeds are cultivated. Rice grows on a variety of
soils like silts, loams and gravels. It can also tolerate alkaline as
well as acid soils. However, clayey loam is well suited to the
raising of this crop. Actually the clayey soil can be easily
converted into mud in which rice seedlings can be transplanted
easily.
42. Statement I: CORRECT—Winter rice crop is a long duration crop
and summer rice crop is a short duration crop. At some places in
the eastern and southern parts of India, rice crop of short duration
is followed by the rice crop of long duration. Winter rice crop is
raised preferably in low-lying areas that remain flooded mainly
during the rainy season.
Autumn rice is raised in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.
Summer, autumn and winter rice crops are raised in West Bengal,
Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Odisha. Summer rice crop is raised
on a small scale and on a small area.
Statement II: CORRECT—India ranks fourth in the production of
wheat and second in production of rice in the world.
Favourable Geographical Condition for Wheat Cultivation: In
India, wheat is a winter crop. Wheat requires a moderate cool
climate with moderate rain. It needs temperature 10°C to 15°C for
its cultivation. It thrives well in an average temperature of 16°C.
Warm and sunny weather is essential at the time of ripening.
Wheat requires a rainfall of 50 cm to 100 cm during the growing
season.
43. Statement I: CORRECT—Forestry in India is a significant rural
industry and a major environmental resource. India is one of the
ten most forest-rich countries of the world. Together, India and
these other nine countries account for 67% of total forest area of
the world. India’s forest cover grew at 0.20% annually over 1990-
2000, and has grown at the rate of 0.7% per year over 2000-2010,
after decades where forest degradation was a matter of serious
concern. Statement II: INCORRECT—As of 2010, the Food and
Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations estimates India’s
forest cover to be about 68 million hectares, or 22% of the
country’s area. The 2013 Forest Survey of India states its forest
cover increased to 69.8 million hectares by 2012, per satellite
measurements; this represents an increase of 5871 square
kilometres of forest cover in two years. However, the gains were
primarily in northern, central and southern Indian states, while
north eastern states witnessed a net loss in forest cover over
2010 to 2012. In 2018, the total forest and tree cover in India
increased to 24.39% or 8, 02,088 sq. km.
44. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian forests are more than trees and
an economic resource. They are home to some of earth’s unique
flora and fauna. Indian forests represent one of the 12 mega
biodiverse regions of the world. India’s Western Ghats and
Eastern Himalayas are amongst the 32 biodiversity hotspots on
earth. India is home to 12% of world’s recorded flora, some
47,000 species of flowering and nonflowering plants.
Over 59,000 species of insects, 2500 species of fishes, 17,000
species of angiosperms live in Indian forests. About 90,000
animal species, representing over seven per cent of earth’s
recorded faunal species have been found in Indian forests. Over
4000 mammal species are found here. India has one of the
richest variety of bird species on earth, hosting about 12.5% of
known species of birds. Many of these flora and fauna species
are endemic to India.
Statement II: CORRECT—India was, until 1991, one of the
largest exporters of wild birds to international bird markets. Most
of the birds traded were parakeets and munias. Most of these
birds were exported to countries in Europe and the Middle East.
In 1991, India passed a law that banned all trade and trapping
of indigenous birds in the country. The passage of the law
stopped the legal exports, but illegal trafficking has continued. In
2001, for example, an attempt to smuggle some 10,000 wild birds
was discovered, and these birds were confiscated at the Mumbai
international airport.
45. Statement I: CORRECT—Chipko movement in India started in
the 1970s around a dispute on how and who should have a right
to harvest forest resources. Although the Chipko movement is
now practically non-existent in Uttarakhand, the Indian state of its
origin, it remains one of the most frequently deployed examples of
an environmental and a people’s movement in developing
countries such as India.
What caused Chipko is now a subject of debate; some
neopopulists theorise Chipko as an environmental movement and
an attempt to save forests, while others suggest that Chipko
movement had nothing to do with eco-conservation, but was
driven primarily to demand equal rights to harvest forests by local
communities.
Statement II: CORRECT—A major threat to forests of India are in
its northeastern states. From ancient times, the locals have
practiced slash-and- burn shifting cultivation to grow food. Locally
called Jhum, it supports about450,000 families in Arunachal
Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Assam and
Meghalaya. Approximately 15,000 square kilometers of forest
land is under jhum cultivation, and just a sixth of this land is
actually producing any crop at any given year. The tribal people
consider it a tradition, and economic ecosystem. However, the
slash and burn causes damage to a dense forest, to soil, to flora
and fauna, as well as pollution.
46. Statement I: CORRECT—Roads are an important mode of
transport in India. India has a network of over 5,603,293
kilometres (3,481,725 mi) of roads as of 31 March 2016. This is
the second-largest road network in the world, after the United
States with 6,702,178 kilometres (4,164,540 mi).
At 1.70 kilometres (1.06 mi) of roads per square kilometre of
land, the quantitative density of India’s road network is higher than
that of Japan (0.91 km, 0.57 mi) and the United States (0.99 km,
0.62 mi), and substantially higher than that of China (0.46 km,
0.29 mi), Brazil (0.18 km, 0.11 mi) and Russia (0.08 km, 0.050
mi).
Adjusted for its large population, India has approximately 4.63
kilometres (2.88 mi) of roads per 1,000 people. Qualitatively,
India’s roads are a mix of modern highways and narrow, unpaved
roads, and are being improved. As of 31 March 2016, 62.5% of
Indian roads were paved.
Statement II: CORRECT—Since the 1990s, major efforts have
been underway to modernize the country’s road infrastructure.
The length of national highways in India has increased from
70,934 km (44,076 mi) in 2010-11 to 101,011 km (62,765 mi) in
2015-16.
As of May 2017, India had completed and placed into use over
28,900 kilometres (18,000 mi) of recently built four or six-lane
highways connecting many of its major manufacturing,
commercial and cultural centres. According to Ministry of Road
Transport and Highways, as of March 2016, India had about
101,011 kilometres (62,765 mi) of national highways and
expressways, plus another 176,166 kilometres (109,464 mi) of
state highways.
47. Statement I: CORRECT—State highways in India are numbered
highways that are laid and maintained by the state governments.
The state highways are usually roads that link important cities,
towns, district headquarters, tourist centres and minor ports within
the state, and connect them with National Highways or highways
of neighbouring states. These highways provide connections to
industries or places from key areas in the state, making them
more accessible.
State governments have the authority and responsibility to
build road networks and state highways. Most of the state
highways are developed by state public works departments.
Independently of the NHDP program, state governments have
been implementing a number of state highway projects since
2000. By 2010, state highway projects worth $1.7 billion had been
completed, and projects worth an additional $11.4 billion were
under implementation. Statement II: CORRECT—These are
important roads within a district, connecting areas of production
with markets and connecting them with the state highways and
National Highways; they are maintained by the Zila Parishad.
These roads also connect Taluka headquarters and rural areas to
district headquarters within the state.
District roads are sub-classified into “Major District Roads”
(MDRs) and “Other District Roads”. As per the broad classification
of roads, the MDRs are to have a minimum width of 15 metres (49
ft) with traffic density of 5000 to 10,000 Passenger car equivalents
(PCUs). As on 31 March 2016, the total length of district roads
was approximately 561,940 kilometres (349,170 mi), of which
94.93% of the total length was surfaced.
48. Statement I: CORRECT—As per 2017 estimates, the total road
length in India is 5,603,293 km (3,481,725 mi); making the Indian
road network the second largest road network in the world after
the United States. At 0.66 km of highway per square kilometre of
land the density of India’s highway network is higher than that of
the United States (0.65) and far higher than that of China’s (0.16)
or Brazil’s (0.20).
India has a network of National Highways connecting all the
major cities and state capitals, forming the economic backbone of
the country. As of 2013, India has a total of 70,934 km (44,076 mi)
of National Highways, of which 1,205 km (749 mi) are classified
as expressways. Although India has more than 35,000 kms of
four or more lane highways of international quality standards, but
without access control (entry/ exit control), they are not called as
expressways but simply as highways.
Statement II: CORRECT—As per the National Highways Authority
of India, about 65% of freight and 80% passenger traffic is carried
by the roads. The National Highways carry about 40% of total
road traffic, though only about 2% of the road network is covered
by these roads. Average growth of the number of vehicles has
been around 10.16% per annum over recent years.
Under National Highways Development Project (NHDP), work
is under progress to equip national highways with at least four
lanes; also there is a plan to convert some stretches of these
roads to six lanes. All national highways are metalled, but very
few are constructed of concrete, the most notable being the
Mumbai-Pune Expressway. In recent years construction has
commenced on a nationwide system of multilane highways,
including the Golden Quadrilateral and North-South and East-
West Corridors which link the largest cities in India.
49. Statement I: CORRECT—In 1800, some 800,000 hectares were
irrigated in India. The British Raj by 1940 built significant number
of canals and irrigation systems in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab,
Assam and Orissa. The Ganges Canal reached 350 miles from
Haridwar to Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh.
In Assam, a jungle in 1840, by 1900 had 1.62m hectares under
cultivation, especially in tea plantations. In all, the amount of
irrigated land multiplied by a factor of eight. Historian David
Gilmour states British colonial government had built irrigation
network with Ganges canal and that, “by the end of the century
the new network of canals in the Punjab” were in place.
Statement II: CORRECT—India’s irrigation covered crop area was
about 22.6 million hectares in 1951, and it increased to a potential
of 90 mha at the end of 1995, inclusive of canals and groundwater
wells. However, the potential irrigation relies of reliable supply of
electricity for water pumps and maintenance, and the net irrigated
land has been considerably short.
According to 2001/2002 Agriculture census, only 58.13 million
hectares of land was actually irrigated in India. The total arable
land in India is 160 million hectares (395 million acres). According
to the World Bank, only about 35% of total agricultural land in
India was reliably irrigated in 2010.
50. Statement I: CORRECT—The Indian Rivers Interlink is a
proposed large-scale civil engineering project that aims to
effectively manage water resources in India by linking Indian
rivers by a network of reservoirs and canals and so reduce
persistent floods in some parts and water shortages in other parts
of India.
The Inter-link project has been split into three parts: a northern
Himalayan rivers inter-link component, a southern peninsular
component and starting 2005, an intrastate rivers linking
component. The project is being managed by India’s National
Water Development Agency (NWDA), under its Ministry of Water
Resources. NWDA has studied and prepared reports on 14 inter-
link projects for Himalayan component, 16 inter-link projects for
peninsular component and 37 intrastate river linking projects.
Statement II: CORRECT—The average rainfall in India is about
4000 billion cubic metres, but most of India’s rainfall comes over a
four month period - June through September. Furthermore, the
rain across the very large nation is not uniform, the east and north
gets most of the rain, while the west and south get less.
India also sees years of excess monsoons and floods,
followed by below average or late monsoons with droughts. This
geographical and time variance in availability of natural water
versus the year round demand for irrigation, drinking and
industrial water creates a demand-supply gap that has been
worsening with India’s rising population.

51. Statement I: CORRECT—Shifting cultivation is practised in the
thickly forested areas of Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of
Southeast Asia and Northeast India. These are the areas of heavy
rainfall and quick regeneration of vegetation. A plot of land is
cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then
mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes and
cassava are grown.
Statement II: CORRECT—Nomadic herding is practised in the
semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some
parts of India, like Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir. In this
type of farming, herdsmen move from place to place with their
animals for fodder and water, along defined routes. This type of
movement arises in response to climatic constraints and terrain.
Sheep, camel, yak and goats are most commonly reared.
52. Statement I: CORRECT—In commercial farming crops are grown
and animals are reared for sale in market. The area cultivated and
the amount of capital used is large. Most of the work is done by
machines. Commercial farming includes commercial grain
farming, mixed farming and plantation agriculture. In commercial
grain farming crops are grown for commercial purpose. Wheat
and maize are common commercially grown grains.
Statement II: INCORRECT—In mixed farming the land is used for
growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock. It is
practised in Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, southeast Australia,
New Zealand and South Africa. Plantations are a type of
commercial farming where single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane,
cashew, rubber, banana or cotton are grown. Large amount of
labour and capital are required. The produce may be processed
on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a
transport network is thus essential for such farming.
53. Statement I: CORRECT—Rice is the major food crop of the
world. It is the staple diet of the tropical and sub-tropical regions.
Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. It grows
best in alluvial clayey soil, which can retain water. China leads in
the production of rice followed by India, Japan, Sri Lanka and
Egypt. In favourable climatic conditions as in West Bengal and
Bangladesh two to three crops are grown in a year.
Statement II: CORRECT—Wheat requires moderate temperature
and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time
of harvest. It thrives best in well drained loamy soil. Wheat is
grown extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine,
Australia and India. In India it is grown in winter.
54. Statement I: CORRECT—Coffee requires warm and wet climate
and well drained loamy soil. Hill slopes are more suitable for
growth of this crop. Brazil is the leading producer followed by
Columbia and India.
Statement II: CORRECT—Tea is a beverage crop grown on
plantations. This requires cool climate and well distributed high
rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves. It
needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes. Labour in large
number is required to pick the leaves. Kenya, India, China, Sri
Lanka produce the best quality tea in the world.
55. Statement I: CORRECT—This can be achieved in many ways
such as increasing the cropped area, the number of crops grown,
improving irrigation facilities, use of fertilisers and high yielding
variety of seeds. Mechanisation of agriculture is also another
aspect of agricultural development. The ultimate aim of
agricultural development is to increase food security.
Statement II: CORRECT—Agriculture has developed at different
places in different parts of the world. Developing countries with
large populations usually practise intensive agriculture where
crops are grown on small holdings mostly for subsistence. Larger
holdings are more suitable for commercial agriculture as in USA,
Canada and Australia. With the help of two case studies of farms
— one from India and the other from the USA, let us understand
about agriculture in the developing and a developed country.
56. Statement I: INCORRECT—Rabi crops are sown in winter from
October to December and harvested in summer from April to
June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas,
gram and mustard. Though, these crops are grown in large parts
of India, states from the north and northwestern parts such as
Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir,
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of
wheat and other rabi crops.
Statement II: CORRECT—Kharif crops are grown with the onset
of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are
harvested in September- October.
Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize,
jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and
soyabean. Some of the most important rice-growing regions are
Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the
(Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Statement III: CORRECT—In between the rabi and the kharif
seasons, there is a short season during the summer months
known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during
‘zaid’ are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, of canal irrigation
and tube- wells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less
rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and
parts of Rajasthan.
57. Statement I: CORRECT—Sugarcane: It is a tropical as well as a
subtropical crop. It grows well in hot and humid climate with a
temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 to
100 cm. Irrigation is required in the regions of low rainfall. It can
be grown on a variety of soils and needs manual labour from
sowing to harvesting.
India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after
Brazil. It is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggary), khandsari and
molasses. The major sugarcane-producing states are Uttar
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
Statement II: CORRECT—Oil Seeds: In 2014 India was the
second largest producer of groundnut in the world after China. In
rapeseed production India was third largest producer in the world
after Canada and China in 2014.
Different oil seeds are grown covering approximately 12% of
the total cropped area of the country. Main oil-seeds produced in
India are groundnut, mustard, and coconut, sesamum (til),
soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower.
Most of these are edible and used as cooking mediums. However,
some of these are also used as raw material in the production of
soap, cosmetics and ointments.
58. Statement I: CORRECT—Irrigation is a major determinant of
agricultural productivity. Indian agriculture has been constrained
by limited irrigation and only about 40.6% of arable land is
irrigated. The remaining 60% continues to depend on rainfall. The
irrigation and rainfed cultivation cleavage is a major influence on
agricultural productivity, earning opportunities, and the welfare of
the rural population.
Irrigated areas are generally more productive, return better
yields, and contribute more to the national stock of staple food
grains (rice and wheat). Irrigated agriculture enjoys active and
ongoing support from public policy, largely because the onus of
resolving the food problem for a large population pivots upon its
performance in the first instance.
Statement II: CORRECT—In the northern Indo- Gangetic plains,
the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar have
more than 60% of their cultivated area irrigated. Andhra Pradesh,
Gujarat, Rajasthan, and West Bengal have parts of their
agricultural land irrigated and depend on both monsoon rains and
irrigation systems.
At the other extreme, Assam, Chhatisgarh, Himachal Pradesh,
Kerala, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Uttarakhand have
smaller irrigated areas and are predominantly dependent upon
rainfall for agricultural production.
59. Statement I: CORRECT—The water resource situation in India is
rapidly worsening, and it is likely to become severe during coming
decades. Per capita availability of water is low, and the water is of
poor quality. The groundwater table is receding as aquifers are
being emptied by excessive extraction by tube- wells and
submersible pumps.
The water stress is visibly mounting in river basins.
Contamination of ground water signals alarming situation. The
north-west of India, which has been leading the wheat and rice
revolution, is the most stressed, although as much as 54% of the
country is adversely affected.
Statement II: CORRECT—Irrigation is the major user of water,
accounting for more than four-fifths of the total used water.
However, the system is grossly inefficient with existing
infrastructure neither well maintained nor efficiently utilised.
Estimates suggest that about one-fifth of the irrigation
infrastructure (57 million ha) remains unutilised. Irrigation
practices are in general wasteful and not geared to water
conservation. Simple basic operation and maintenance (O&M)
could save significant amounts of this valuable resource.
60. Statement I: CORRECT—The adverse global and regional
description of environment and climate change caused by
anthropogenic factors is rapidly gathering momentum. The
evidence is mounting that the use of factors like land, water and
energy need to be altered radically, if mankind is to avoid major
catastrophic climatic change. Indian agriculture is particularly
fragile as it continues to depend on monsoon rains.
A significant shift in the magnitude of rains, or its timing, or its
spread across the subcontinent is capable of disrupting
production and supplies. Ground water reservoirs that can serve
as a backup are already under stress in many parts of the country,
especially in the northwest, the bread-basket of the country,
Punjab and Haryana.
Statement II: CORRECT—Irregular or heavy monsoons may
cause floods in agricultural fields for hundreds of miles along
riverbanks. Much of the water runs off without being harvested or
put to any use and causes heavy loss of life and economic
resources.
The indiscriminate removal of trees, especially from mountain
slopes, can cause mudslides and flashfloods in hilly regions and
adjoining plains. It is estimated that more than two-fifths of the
land in India suffers from one or the other features of land
degradation, e.g., salinity, acidity, erosion, and waterlogging,
sometimes compounded by other types of geo-genetic
contaminations of water resources.
61. Statement I: CORRECT—India will be required to produce more
and more from less and less land and water resources. Alarming
rates of ground water depletion and serious environmental and
social problems of some of the major irrigation projects on one
hand, and the multiple benefits of irrigation water in enhancing
production and productivity, food security, poverty alleviation.
Statement II: CORRECT—In India, water availability per capita
was over 5000 cubic metres (m3) per annum in 1950. It now
stands at around 2000 m3 and is projected to decline to 1500 m3
by 2025. Further, the quality of available water is deteriorating.
Also, there are gross inequalities between basins and geographic
regions.
62. Statement I: CORRECT—Most poor people in India live in rural
areas. They belong to socially weaker sections and have few or
no assets. They work as agricultural laborers and are dependent
upon wage earnings for their subsistence. The latest available
data show that in 2011 there were about 144 million agricultural
laborers, about 62 million of whom were female. These men and,
especially, women are the subject of inclusive growth programs in
rural areas and are a priority to benefit from inclusive growth.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The rural employment guarantee
scheme, the Mahatama Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act (MNREGA) is an elaborate program to address the
needs of the rural poor.
Under the program, 100 days of employment are guaranteed
to at least one member of the household, and about one-third of
the opportunities are reserved for women. In FY2015-2016, more
than 13 billion person-days of work were provided under the
scheme, 7.7 billion of which were taken up by women workers.
63. Statement I: CORRECT—Soil fertility is generally defined as
“ability of soil to supply plant nutrients”. Soil structure, soil texture,
temperature, water, light and air also play an important role in
maintaining soil fertility. Plant nutrients which are often scarce in
soil are nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus since plants use
large amounts for their growth and survival.
Statement II: CORRECT—There are chemical elements in the
organic matter, which are extremely important, especially in their
relation or proportion to each other. They are Carbon and
Nitrogen. The relationship is called Carbon - Nitrogen Ratio (C:N
Ratio). For example, composed manure has 20:1 and sawdust
has 400:1 of carbon and nitrogen.
64. Statement I: CORRECT—Higher crop yields and quality of the
crops depend largely on the efficient supply of nutrients. Soil
provides not only the medium but also functions as the source of
these nutrients for the plants. Soil resources get depleted with
every harvest and need to be replenished for every crop.
However, one must know which nutrients are to what extent
depleted and what addition of fertilizers should be planned
accordingly.
Statement II: CORRECT—Accuracy of soil analysis is directly
related to the quality of the soil sample taken. Application of
appropriate fertilizers with the proper nutrient mix will help not
only to increase the productivity and farm income but also provide
a more realistic chance to obtain the desired yield. There are
various methods for taking a soil sample from a field.
65. Statement I: INcoREcT—Indian agriculture has traditionally been
dependent on monsoon rains and only about 40% of cultivable
land is irrigated. Given the variability of rains in terms of their
magnitude and phasing during the season, agricultural
productivity is a risky activity.
Farmers need to look for plants that are less water intensive,
but this also often means the production technology is not fully
developed, the crop is not supported by public procurement policy
to the same extent as the main staples (most public subsidies are
not applicable to rainfed agriculture), and the crops do not fetch
high prices in the market.
Statement II: CORRECT—The supply of fertilizer, pesticide, and
insecticides required for rainfed agriculture need to be ensured to
raise current levels of productivity. Rainfed agriculture can make
up the deficit in critical areas such as pulses and oilseeds;
shortages in these products are currently fueling price spikes and
adding to macroeconomic vulnerabilities.
66. Statement I: CORRECT: A striking feature of the monsoon is that
a high proportion of the annual rainfall takes place within two to
three months, resulting in massive floods and run-offs. Except for
the water that goes into charging the groundwater, the rest is
wasted and hardly used for cultivation. Rainwater harvesting is at
a nascent stage. Despite hundreds of research studies in support
of designing and maintaining watersheds, attention has not been
paid to their management. Experience in some parts of the
country indicates that watershed management can have positive
impact on the rabi crop and can smooth out the availability of
water over the year for day-today use in rural areas
Statement II: CORRECT—The pace of building irrigation
infrastructure has been slow and has constrained progress in
agricultural productivity. New seed varieties and fertilizers depend
upon regular and timely irrigation to yield results. Progress has
not been encouraging, and more attention to irrigation is required
to address the gap in productivity between areas with or without
irrigation.
67. Statement I: CORRECT—Productivity levels in Indian agriculture
vary a lot, sometimes by as much as ten times within the same
district or a province, indicating uneven outreach and application
of technology, expertise, or other inputs. Such variations are
difficult to understand when both areas are equipped with
irrigation facilities. Through demonstration effects, training, and
visits, it should have been possible to spread good farm practices
to holdings that are not performing well quite easily. At the state
level, average productivity in lagging states is about 50% of that in
the leading states.
Statement II: CORRECT—States with substantial areas under
irrigation need to perform better in terms of yields and agricultural
productivity. Bihar is a prime example. About two-thirds (67.4%) of
the cultivated area is under irrigation yet yields are barely above
all India average. Bihar’s total production of food grains is only
about 13 million tonnes. For jute and mesta, Bihar is a distant
second to West Bengal. India could make rapid progress by
improving productivity in such areas.
68. Statement I: CORRECT—A significant part of production is lost in
the process of marketing due to institutional impediments, the
distant location of markets, lack of storage and transportation
facilities, and the absence of sorting and grading of produce. To
some extent this is because of deficient infrastructure (e.g., cold
storage, transport, and rural roads) and to some extent because
of excessive regulation under the Agricultural Production
Marketing Committee Act (APMC Act). In this context, the
Economic Survey 2014-15 observes:
Statement II: CORRECT—At present, the market for agricultural
produce is highly segmented and subdivided. There is no national
uniform market for agricultural produce in India. As a result, even
if the buyers willing to pay, local producers are not able to make
their first sale outside the prescribed markets (mandis), which are
dominated by commission agents and contractors. The present
government is now taking steps to create a nationwide market for
agricultural produce. The problem is particularly severe in the
case of perishable products such as fresh fruits, vegetables and
flowers.
69. Statement I: INCORRECT—ADB prepared itself for operations in
these areas by undertaking studies on: (i) the policies and
priorities of the government in the agriculture sector, (ii) the
prevalence of participatory irrigation management, (iii) integrated
water resource management (IWRM), (iv) tank irrigation systems,
and (v) prospects for agribusiness development. ADB’s first
operation, a loan supporting the renovation of a minor
participatory irrigation system in Chhattisgarh, was prepared with
the help of project preparatory technical assistance (PPTA), and
was approved in 2005.
Statement II: INCORRECT—The succeeding country partnership
strategy (CPS), 2008-2012 reaffirmed ADB’s engagement in rural
infrastructure, including irrigation, water resources management,
rural markets, and transport facilities. The proposed investments
were in line with the priorities of the government’s five year plan
and ADB’s Strategy 2020 and a broader water fina.
70. Statement I: CORRECT—Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism
is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on
animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport. They move
from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on
the amount and quality of pastures and water. Each nomadic
community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of
tradition.
Statement II: CORRECT—A wide variety of animals is kept in
different regions. In tropical Africa, cattle are the most important
livestock, while in Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and
camel are reared. In the mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes,
yak and llamas and in the Arctic and sub-Arctic areas, reindeer
are the most important animals.
71. Statement I: CORRECT—Agriculture is practised under multiple
combinations of physical and socioeconomic conditions, which
gives rise to different types of agricultural systems. Based on
methods of farming, different types of crops are grown and
livestock raised.
Statement II: CORRECT—Subsistence agriculture is one in which
the farming areas consume all, or nearly so, of the products
locally grown. It can be grouped in two categories — Primitive
Subsistence Agriculture and Intensive Subsistence Agriculture.
72. Statement I: CORRECT—Intensive subsistence agriculture
dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is
characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are
very small due to the high density of population. Farmers work
with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.
Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural
operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used
to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the
yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.
Statement II: CORRECT—Intensive subsidence agriculture
dominated by crops other than paddy: Due to the difference in
relief, climate, soil and some of the other geographical factors, it
is not practical to grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia.
Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern
China, Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan.
In India wheat is grown in westernparts of the Indo-Gangetic
plains and millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern
India. Most of the characteristics of this type of agriculture are
similar to those dominated by wet paddy except that irrigation is
often used.
73. Statement I: CORRECT—Plantation agriculture was introduced
by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics. Some of the
important plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton,
oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
The characteristic features of this type of farming are large
estates or plantations, large capital investment, managerial and
technical support, scientific methods of cultivation, single crop
specialisation, cheap labour, and a good system of transportation
which links the estates to the factories and markets for the export
of the products.
Statement II: CORRECT—The French established cocoa and
coffee plantations in West Africa. The British set up large tea
gardens in India and Sri Lanka, rubber plantations in Malaysia
and sugarcane and banana plantations in West Indies.
Spanish and Americans invested heavily in coconut and
sugarcane plantations in the Philippines. The Dutch once had
monopoly over sugarcane plantation in Indonesia. Some coffee
fazendas (large plantations) in Brazil are still managed by
Europeans.
74. Statement I: CORRECT—This form of agriculture is found in the
highly developed parts of the world, e.g., North-western Europe,
Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia and the temperate
latitudes of Southern continents. Mixed farms are moderate in
size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley,
oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops. Fodder crops are an
important component of mixed farming. Crop rotation and
intercropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
Statement II: CORRECT—Dairy is the most advanced and
efficient type of rearing of milch animals. It is highly capital
intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and
milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming. Special
emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary
services.
It is highly labour intensive as it involves rigorous care in
feeding and milching. There is no off season during the year as in
the case of crop raising.
75. Statement I: CORRECT—Depending on the mode of occurrence
and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types: surface and
underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast
mining is the easiest and the cheapest way of mining minerals
that occur close to the surface.
Overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment is
relatively low in this method. The output is both large and rapid.
Statement II: CORRECT—When the ore lies deep below the
surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be
used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where
underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals.
Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through
these passages. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage
vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of
people and material.
14
Industries in India Including

Resource of India
1. What is the literal meaning of Manufacturing?

(a) To make by hand
(b) To make at village
(c) To make by instruments
(d) To make all goods
2. Where Foot loose industries can be located?
(a) In a wide variety of places
(b) In a corner place
(c) In a junction place
(d) In an industrial place
3. What are the Modern manufacturing characteristics?
(a) A complex machine technology
(b) Large organisations
(c) Executive bureaucracy
(d) All the above
4. What is the smallest manufacturing Industry?
(a) Cottage Manufacturing
(b) Household Manufacturing
(c) (a), (b)
(d) Small Scale Industries
5. What is the large scale manufacturing Industry?
(a) It involves a large market
(b) Various raw materials
(c) Advanced technology
(d) All the above
6. Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by ________.
(a) Governments
(b) Private
(c) Semi Government
(d) Semi Private
7. Which industry forms the base of all other industries?
(a) The iron and Steel Industry
(b) The agro-industry
(c) The Chemical industry
8. How many sub-sectors in Cotton textile industry?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
9. What is the meaning of High-tech Industry?
(a) Largest generation of manufacturing activities
(b) Largest generation of employees
(c) Largest generation of out puts
(d) Largest generation of technology
10. Which sector is consider as the backbone of development?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Services
(c) Roads and transports
(d) Manufacturing
11. Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector has
stagnated at ________ of GDP out of a total of 27% for the
industry.
(a) 15%
(b) 16%
(c) 17%
(d) 18%
12. In ancient India, by what techniques cotton textiles were
produced?
(a) With hand spinning
(b) Handloom weaving
(d) Machines
13. _______ is the basic industry since all the other industries -
heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery.
(a) The iron and Steel Industry
(b) The Chemical Industry
(c) The Agro Industry
(d) All the above
14. Which industry is the third largest in Asia and occupies the 12th
place in the world in term of its size?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Chemical
(c) Cement
(d) Agro industry
15. From the listed below, which ones are the Industrial Pollution?
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Thermal pollution
(d) All the above
16. Airborne particulate materials contain both ________ particles
like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
(a) Only solid
(b) Only liquid
(c) Solid and liquid
(d) Neither solid nor liquid
17. ________ is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes
and affluent discharged into rivers.
(a) Water pollution
(b) Thermal pollution
(c) Air pollution
18. ________ of water occurs when hot water from factories and
thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Chemical pollution
(d) Thermal pollution
19. Which can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate
and blood pressure among other physiological effects?
(a) Noise pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Thermal pollution
(d) Air pollution
20. Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes
________ the quantity of freshwater.
(a) Five times
(b) Seven times
(c) Nine times
(d) Eight times
21. Growth of population refers to the change in the number of
inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period of time,
say during
(a) last 10 years
(b) last 5 years
(c) last 15 years
(d) last 20 years
22. Which changes raw materials into products of more value to
people?
(a) Primary activities
(b) Secondary activities
(c) Tertiary activities
23. Which refers to an economic activity that is concerned with
production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of
services?
(a) Industry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Chemical activities
24. What are the industrial system consists of?
(a) Inputs
(b) Processes
(c) Outputs
(d) All the above
25. ________, there was only one iron and steel plant in the country -
Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO).
(a) Before 1957
(b) Before 1947
(c) Before 1937
(d) Before 1967

1. Indian textile industry, the second largest manufacturer and
exporter in the world.
2. The textile supply chain is perhaps one of the most diverse in
terms of the raw materials used, technologies deployed and
products produced.
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
27. Choose the wrong statement in the given below:
1. In Economic literature, infrastructure is popular by the name
“Overhead Capital” or “Social Overhead Capital”.
2. The role of infrastructure development in economic growth has
been well recognised in the literature.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
28. Choose the correct statement/statements regarding Industries in
India:
1. It is the dominant mode of transportation in comparison with
rail, air traffic and inland water-ways.
2. India has a road network of about 58.98 lakh km as on 31
March, 2017 with rural roads constituting 70.65% and National
highways constituting 1.94%.
Answer the following with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
29. dentify the following statements:
1. The history of rail transport in India dates back to 1832. Being
a cost-effective long distant transport mode, Indian Railways
(IR) has witnessed commendable progress.
2. Freight and passenger performance: Revenue Earning Freight
loading (excluding loading by Konkan Railways) by Indian
Railways during 2017-18
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
30. Choose the following statements regarding the industries:
1. India’s scheduled domestic air transportation for passengers
and goods has grown by 14% and 12% respectively in 2018-
19.
2. Based on the performance of joint ventures in the airport
sector, Government has decided to lease out six brownfield
airports of Airports Authority of India (AAI) in Public-Private
Partnership.
Identify the following answer in the given below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 wrong
31. Identify the statements in the given below:
1. As on January 31, 2019, India had a fleet strength of 1405
ships.
2. Port sector development is very crucial for the development of
any economy.
Answer the following statements with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
32. Choose the wrong statement/statements in the given below:
1. Telecommunication has been recognized world-over as a
powerful tool of development and poverty reduction through
empowerment of masses.
2. The overall tele-density in India stands at 90.10%, the rural
tele-density being 57.50% and urban tele-density being
159.66% at the end of March 2019.
Choose the correct answer codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
33. Choose the correct statements regarding Industries in India:
1. Making India 5G ready by 2020: The world is at the cusp of a
next generation of wireless technology-5G.
2. M2M Communications/Internet of things refers to technologies
which involve machines or devices communicating among
themselves through a network without human intervention.
Choose the suitable answers from the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
34. Identify the following statements in the given below:
1. FDI has played a crucial role in shaping the progress of the
telecom sector over the years by providing much needed
finances for expansion of telecom infrastructure in the country.
2. Digital Communications Commission: until recently known as
the Telecom Commission, was set up by the Government of
India vide resolution dated 11 April, 1989.
(a) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
35. Choose the following statements which are correct:
1. The Government aims to “Reform, Perform and Transform” the
energy sector of the country by achieving self-sufficiency.
2. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has undertaken a series
of reforms and new initiatives.
Identify the following statements correct:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
36. Choose the following statements are correct:
1. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched with the
objective of providing LPG connections to five crore women
belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) families over a
period of three years starting from 2016-17.
2. Power sector in India has witnessed a paradigm shift over the
years due to the constant efforts of Government to foster
investment in the sector.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
1. Housing is one of the fastest moving sectors in the country.
2. One of the important concerns in the real estate sector is the
legal battle being fought by home buyers against the builders
for delaying the housing projects.
Choose the correct answers by the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
38. Identify the following statements regarding Industries in India:
1. Smart Cities Mission (SCM) was launched in June 2015 for a
five year period.
2. The 100 cities under the Mission have proposed to execute
5,151 projects worth '2,05,018 crore in 5 years.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(d) Both are wrong
39. Choose the following statements in the given below:
1. Private investment in infrastructure has come mainly in the
form of PPPs.
2. Indian private participation in infrastructure program supports a
number of PPP models including management contracts, Build
Operate-Transfer (BOT) contracts.
Identify the following answers by the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
1. India has to develop its industry and infrastructure. As an
emerging economy, the scope for Industry 4.0 and Next
generation infrastructure are enormous.
2. In order to create a ten trillion dollar economy by 2032, India
needs a robust and resilient infrastructure.
Choose the correct answers:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are
influenced by availability of raw material, labour, capital, power
and market, etc.
2. After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows.
Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities.
Choose the correct answer from the below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
42. Choose the following statements regarding the industries:
1. The textile industry occupies unique position in the Indian
economy, because it contributes significantly to industrial
production.
2. In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand
spinning and handloom weaving techniques.
Identify the correct answer from the below:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 wrong
(d) Only 2 wrong
43. Identify the following statements in the given below:
1. India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and
stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
2. Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking, insurance
and port facilities for export of jute goods.
Find out the correct answer from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
44. Choose the following statement/statements:
1. The new industrial policy has three main dimensions -
liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation.
2. India has eight major industrial regions Identify the correct
answer from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
45. Identify the following statements which are correct:
1. Industrial systems are made up of input, processes, and
output. The input of raw materials, labour, land, power, and
other infrastructure.
2. Industrial clusters occur when many industries are located
close to each other and share the benefits of their closeness.
Answer the following with suitable codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 correct
(d) 2 wrong
1. Industries were classified according to raw material, size, and
ownership.
2. Iron and steel industries have their firm hold in countries like
Germany, USA, China, Japan, and Russia.
Answer the statement with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Textile is a fabric that is woven from fibres. It takes raw
material like cotton or wool and the process called spinning
turns it into yarn that is later used to create the fabric.
2. After that, textile industry expanded in Mumbai because of its
warm, moist climate, facility of port for importing machinery and
exporting the output and above all the availability of cheap
labour.
Answer the statements by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
48. Identify the following statements given below:
1. Indian Industrial sector, hence, consists of manufacturing,
mining, electricity, and construction.
2. The industrial sector showed a growth of 0.4 percent in 2013-
14. This poor performance is attributed to the contraction in
mining and slowdown in manufacturing.
Answer the statements with correct codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
49. Choose the correct statement/statements in the given below:
1. For improving infrastructure there is a need to alter coal
production by permitting commercial coal mining.
2. The informal sector lacks easy access to credit and technology
while it a major contributor in GDP.
Identify the correct answer from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
50. Choose the following statements which are wrong:
1. The government of India has decided to withdraw from the
Industrial sector, and in accordance with this decision, it
decided to privatize the Public sector enterprises in a gradual
and phased manner.
2. The Government has decided to permit up to 49%
disinvestment of equity so that the government would continue
to hold 51%.
Identify the correct answer with the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
1. Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to
transport.
2. Labour supply is an important factor in the location of
industries.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to
produce everyday goods in their homes with the help of their
family members or part time labour.
2. Small scale manufacturing is distinguished from household
industries by its production techniques and place of
manufacture.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
53. Identify the wrong statement/statements in the given following:
1. Agro processing involves the processing of raw materials from
the field and the farm into finished products for rural and urban
markets.
2. Chemical industries use minerals as a raw material.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Only 1 wrong
54. Choose from the following statements:
1. Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by
governments.
2. Traditional Large-Scale Industrial Regions are based on heavy
industry, often located near coal-fields and engaged in metal
smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacture or textile
production.
Identify the correct statement by the codes
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
55. Identify the correct statement/statements in the following:
1. The Ruhr Coal-field, Germany has been one of the major
industrial regions of Europe for a long time.
2. The iron and steel industry forms the base of all other
industries and, therefore, it is called a basic industry.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Cotton textile industry has three sub-sectors, i.e., handloom,
power loom and mill sectors.
2. Cotton textile manufacturing requires good quality cotton as
raw material. India, China, USA, Pakistan, Uzbekistan, Egypt
produce more than half of the world’s raw cotton.
Choose the correct answer with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
57. Consider the following statements in the given below:
1. Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising
agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy.
2. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of
unemployment and poverty from our country.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are
influenced by availability of raw material, labour, capital, power
and market, etc.
2. In the pre-Independence period, most manufacturing units
were located in places from the point of view of overseas trade
such as Hyderabad, Bhubaneswar, Delhi, etc.
Choose the wrong statement:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
59. Identify the wrong statement/statements in the given following:
1. Before 1800 AD iron and steel industry was located where raw
materials, power supply and running water were easily
available.
2. In India, iron and steel industry has developed taking
advantage of raw materials, cheap labour, transport and
market.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
60. Choose the correct statement:
1. Before 1947, there was only one iron and steel plant in the
country - Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO).
2. Sakchi was chosen to set up the steel plant for several
reasons. This place was only 32 km away from Kalimati station
on the Bengal-Nagpur railway line.
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
61. Choose the correct statement regarding industries in India:
1. The cotton textile industry is one of the oldest industries in the
world.
2. India has a glorious tradition of producing excellent quality
cotton textiles. Before the British rule, Indian hand spun and
hand woven cloth already had a wide market.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
62. Choose the statements which is wrong in the given regarding
Industries in India:
1. The first successful mechanised textile mill was established in
Mumbai in 1754.
2. It is located in Gujarat on the banks of the Sabarmati River.
The first mill was established in 1859.
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. Textile industry includes cotton, jute, wool, silk, and synthetic
fibre textiles. India is one the leading producers of textile
goods.
2. The location of cotton textile industry is mainly affected by: raw
material, proximity to market, moist weather, capital, skilled and
cheap labour, transport, sea-port, export facility and the
domestic and international markets.
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948: It defined the broad
contours of the policy delineating the role of the State in
industrial development both as an entrepreneur and authority.
2. Industrial Policy Statement of 1956: Government revised its
first Industrial Policy (i.e. the policy of 1948) through the
Industrial Policy of 1956.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
65. Identify the following statements regarding Industries in India:
1. Industrial Policy Statement, 1977- In December 1977, the
Janata Government announced its New Industrial Policy
through a statement in the Parliament.
2. Industrial Policy of 1980 sought to promote the concept of
economic federation, to raise the efficiency of the public sector.
Answer with suitable codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 wrong
66. Choose the correct statements:
1. De-reservation of Public Sector: Sectors that were earlier
exclusively reserved for public sector were reduced.
2. Disinvestment of Public Sector: Government stakes in Public
Sector Enterprises were reduced to enhance their efficiency
and competitiveness.
Answer the correct statement with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. The modern industrial development in India started with the
establishment of the first cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854.
2. At the time of independence, the economy was under-
developed with agriculture contributing to more than 60% of the
GDP and most of the country’s export earnings.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
68. Choose the correct statement:
1. Since then the industry has witnessed a phenomenal growth.
The numbers of mills increased from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by
March 1998.
2. Cotton textile industry comprises of three sectors: mill sector,
handloom and power loom.
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 wrong
69. Choose the wrong statements:
1. Cotton textile industry is one of the most widely distributed
industries in our country.
2. Gujarat, which ranks second in the production of cotton
textiles, Ahmedabad is the major centre of the state.
Identify the correct answers:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 wrong
(d) 2 wrong
70. Identify the following statements regarding Industries:
1. In Karnataka, cotton textile industry is concentrated at
Bangalore, Mysore, Belgaum and Gulberga.
2. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and Andhra Pradesh are the other
states producing cotton textiles.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Iron and steel industry is a basic industry and its products
serve as a raw material for a number of other industries.
2. The iron and steel industry made rapid progress after
independence. The production capacity has increased in all the
existing units.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. The process of industrialization in India can be divided into two
parts - before and after 1992.
2. Liberalization means a reduced role for the Government and a
greater role for the market or the liberal attitude of the
Government for the establishment and running of industries.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. The CPSEs play a significant role in Indian economy.
According to Department of Public Enterprises, there are 339
CPSEs as on 31 March, 2018.
2. Growth of sales (YoY) of over 1700 nongovernmental non-
financial (NGNF) listed manufacturing companies was 21.6% in
Q1, 19.3% in Q2 and 13.2% in Q3 during 2018-19.
Answer the statements with the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
74. Identify the correct statements:
1. According to RBI, the growth in gross bank credit flow to the
industrial sector has increased by 6.9% in March, 2019.
2. The Government of India has taken several industry specific
reform initiatives since 2014 that has significantly improved the
overall business environment.
(a) Only 2 correct
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. In order to promote innovation and entrepreneurship among
enterprising youth, the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India had
announced the “Start-up India, Standup India” initiative on 15
August 2015.
2. FDI is a major driver of economic growth as it enhances
productivity by bringing capital, skills and technology to the
host country.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 wrong
(d) 2 wrong
1. The global demand for footwear is moving towards non-leather
footwear, while Indian tax policies favour leather footwear
production.
2. During the year 2017-18, the gem and jewellery exports were
13.69% of total merchandise exports in the country.
Answer the statements by the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 wrong
(d) 2 wrong
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b)
66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)
76. (a)
Explanations
1. Manufacturing literally means ‘to make by hand’. However, now it
includes goods ‘made by machines’. It is essentially a process
which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of
higher value for sale in local or distant markets.
Conceptually, an industry is a geographically located
manufacturing unit maintaining books of accounts and, records
under a management system. As the term industry is
comprehensive, it is also used as synonymous with
‘manufacturing’ When one uses terms like ‘steel industry’ and
‘chemical industry’ one thinks of factories and processes.
2. Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.
They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight
losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts
which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity
and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not
polluting industries. The important factor in their location is
accessibility by road network.
3. Modern manufacturing is characterised by:
i. A complex machine technology

ii. Extreme specialisation and division of labour for producing more
goods with less effort, and low costs
iii. Vast capital
iv. Large organisations
v. Executive bureaucracy
4. It is the smallest manufacturing unit. The artisans use local raw

materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their
homes with the help of their family members or part time labour.
Finished products may be for consumption in the same household
or, for sale in local (village) markets, or, for barter. Capital and
transportation do not wield much influence as this type of
manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the
tools are devised locally.
5. Large scale manufacturing involves a large market, various raw
materials, enormous energy, specialised workers, advanced
technology, assembly-line mass production and large capital. This
kind of manufacturing developed in the last 200 years, in the
United Kingdom, north-eastern USA and Europe. Now it has
diffused to almost all over the world.
On the basis of the system of large scale manufacturing, the
world’s major industrial regions may be grouped under two broad
types, namely:
i. traditional large-scale industrial regions which are thickly

clustered in a few more developed countries.
ii. high-technology large scale industrial regions which have
diffused to less developed countries.
6. Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by

governments. In India, there were a number of Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs). Socialist countries have many state owned
industries. Mixed economies have both Public and Private sector
enterprises. Private Sector Industries are owned by individual
investors.
These are managed by private organisations. In capitalist
countries, industries are generally owned privately. Joint Sector
Industries are managed by joint stock companies or sometimes
the private and public sectors together establish and manage the
industries.
7. The iron and steel industry forms the base of all other industries
and, therefore, it is called a basic industry. It is basic because it
provides raw material for other industries such as machine tools
used for further production.
It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large
quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace with
carbon (coke) and limestone. The molten iron is cooled and
moulded to form pig iron which is used for converting into steel by
adding strengthening materials like manganese.
8. Cotton textile industry has three sub-sectors, i.e., handloom,
power loom and mill sectors. Handloom sector is labour-intensive
and provides employment to semiskilled workers. It requires small
capital investment.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi propagate Khadi as part of the
independence movement? This sector involves spinning, weaving
and finishing of the fabrics. The power loom sector introduces
machines and becomes less labour intensive and the volume of
production increases. Cotton textile mill sector is highly capital
intensive and produces fine clothes in bulk.
9. High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of
manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of
intensive research and development (R & D) efforts leading to the
manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and
engineering character. Professional (white collar) workers make
up a large share of the total workforce.
These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual
production (blue collar) workers. Robotics on the assembly line,
computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic
controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant
development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are
notable examples of a high-tech industry.
10. Manufacturing sector is considered to be the backbone of
development in general and economic development in particular
mainly because-
• Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising
agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also
reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income
by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of
unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main
Philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector
ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional
disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward
areas.
11. Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector has
stagnated at 17% of GDP - out of a total of 27% for the industry
which includes 10% for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. This
is much lower in comparison to some East Asian economies,
where it is 25 to 35%. The trend of growth rate in manufacturing
over the last decade has been around 7% per annum.
The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%. Since
2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10%
per annum. With appropriate policy interventions by the
government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve
productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve
its target over the next decade. The National Manufacturing
Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up with this
objective.
12. In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning
and handloom weaving techniques. After the 18th century, power-
looms came into use. Our traditional industries suffered a setback
during the colonial period because they could not compete with
the mill-made cloth from England.
In the early years, the cotton textile Industry was concentrated
in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Availability
of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities,
labour, moist climate, etc., contributed towards its localisation.
This industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living
to farmers, cotton ball puckers and workers engaged in ginning,
spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and
sewing. The industry by creating demands supports many other
industries, such as, chemicals and dyes, packaging materials and
engineering works.
13. The iron and steel industry is the basic industry since all the other
industries — heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their
machinery. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of
engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical,
telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.
Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the
index of a country’s development. Iron and steel is a heavy
industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods
are heavy and bulky entailing heavy transportation costs. Iron ore,
coking coal and lime stone are required in the ratio of
approximately 4 : 2 : 1. Some quantities of manga-nese, are also
required to harden the steel.
14. The Chemical industry in India is fast growing and diversifying. It
contributes approximately 3% of the GDP. It is the third largest in
Asia and occupies the 12th place in the world in term of its size. It
comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units. Rapid
growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors.
Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid (used to
manufacture fertilisers, synthetic fibres, plastics, adhesives,
paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash (used to make
glass, soaps and detergents, paper) and caustic soda. These
industries are widely spread over the country.
15. Although industries contribute significantly to India’s economic
growth and development, the increase in pollution of land, water,
air, noise and resulting degradation of environment that they have
caused, cannot be overlooked. Industries are responsible for four
types of pollution: (a) Air (b) Water (c) Land (d) Noise.
The polluting industries also include thermal power plants.
16. Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of
undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid
particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke. Smoke is emitted by
chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting
plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that
ignore pollution norms.
Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with longterm effects.
Are you aware of the Bhopal Gas tragedy that occurred? Air
pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants,
buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
17. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial
wastes and affluent discharged into rivers. The main culprits in
this regard are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing,
petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries that
let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead
and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with
carbon, plastics and rubber, etc., into the water bodies. Fly ash,
phosphor- gypsum and iron and steel slags are the major solid
wastes in India.
18. Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories
and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon
production facilities cause cancers, birth defects and
miscarriages. Soil and water pollution are closely related.
Dumping of wastes especially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial
effluents, packaging, salts and garbage renders the soil useless.
Rain water percolates to the soil carrying the pollutants to the
ground and the ground water also gets contaminated.
19. Noise pollution not only results in irritation and anger, it can also
cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood
pressure among other physiological effects. Unwanted sound is
an irritant and a source of stress. Industrial and construction
activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and
pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
20. Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes
eight times the quantity of freshwater. How can the industrial
pollution of fresh water be reduced? Some suggestions are-
i. minimising use water for processing by reusing and recycling it
in two or more successive stages
ii. harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements
iii. treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers
and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in
three phases
(a) Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves

screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(b) Secondary treatment by biological process
(c) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical
processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.
21. Growth of population refers to the change in the number of
inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period of time,
say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in
two ways: in terms of absolute numbers and in terms of
percentage change per year.
The absolute numbers added each year or decade is the
magnitude of increase. It is obtained by simply subtracting the
earlier population (e.g. that of 2001) from the later population (e.g.
that of 2011). It is referred to as the absolute increase.
The rate or the pace of population increase is the other
important aspect. It is studied in % per annum, e.g., a rate of
increase of 2% per annum means that in a given year, there was
an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base
population. This is referred to as the annual growth rate.
22. Secondary activities or manufacturing change raw materials into
products of more value to people. As you have seen pulp was
changed into paper and paper into a note book. These represent
the two stages of the manufacturing process. The paper made
from pulp and cloth made from cotton have had value added to
them at each stage of the manufacturing process. In this way the
finished product has more value and utility than the raw material
that it is made from.
23. Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with
production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of
services. Thus, we have iron and steel industry (production of
goods), coal mining industry (extraction of coal) and tourism
industry (service provider).
Industries can be classified on the basis of raw materials, size
and ownership.
Raw Materials: Industries may be agro based, mineral based,
marine based and forest based depending on the type of raw
materials they use. Agro based industries use plant and animal
based products as their raw materials. Food processing,
vegetable oil, cotton textile, dairy products and leather industries
are examples of agro-based industries. Mineral based industries
are primary industries that use mineral ores as their raw
materials.
24. An industrial system consists of inputs, processes and outputs.
The inputs are the raw materials, labour and costs of land,
transport, power and other infrastructure. The processes include a
wide range of activities that convert the raw material into finished
products.
The outputs are the end product and the income earned from
it. In case of the textile industry the inputs may be cotton, human
labour, factory and transport cost. The processes include ginning,
spinning, weaving, dyeing and printing. The output is the shirt you
wear.
25. Before 1947, there was only one iron and steel plant in the
country - Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO). It was
privately owned. After Independence, the government took the
initiative and set up several iron and steel plants. TISCO was
started in 1907 at Sakchi, near the confluence of the rivers
Subarnarekha and Kharkai in Jharkhand. Later on Sakchi was
renamed as Jamshedpur. Geographically, Jamshedpur is the most
conveniently situated iron and steel centre in the country.

26. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian textile industry, the second
largest manufacturer and exporter in the world, contributes
12.65% to manufacturing and 2.3% to GDP. India has a share of
5% of the global trade in textiles and apparel. During 2018-19, the
share of textile and clothing in India’s total exports stands at a
significant 12%.
The sector is the biggest employer after agriculture employing
4.5 crore people directly and another 6 crore people in allied
sectors. Apparel also plays a critical role in improving social
dynamics as mostly women are employed in the sector.
Statement II: CORRECT—The textile supply chain is perhaps one
of the most diverse in terms of the raw materials used,
technologies deployed and products produced. However, the
challenges lie in the absence of scale or fragmented and
scattered manufacturing. Except for the spinning segment, all
other sectors lack scale. While the ginning and spinning sectors
are on par with international standards, marginal technological
gap exists in weaving, processing and embroidery and larger
gaps in knitting, technical textile and garmenting segments. In
recent times, several developing countries, enjoying
zero/preferential duty access to key markets, have become major
competitors of India in the garments sector.
27. Statement I: CORRECT—In Economic literature, infrastructure is
popular by the name “Overhead Capital” or “Social Overhead
Capital”. The famous economist A.O Hirschman stated that Social
Overhead capital is the “basic services without which primary,
secondary and tertiary productive activities cannot function”.
The very success of social and economic transformation of an
economy lies in providing inclusive and sustainable infrastructure
amenities to the people and the pace of economic growth
depends on how competently and judiciously an economy is able
to address its infrastructure bottlenecks.
Statement II: CORRECT—The role of infrastructure development
in economic growth has been well recognised in the literature.
The correlation between infrastructure investment and economic
growth for India is very high.
The correlation of investments in inland, road, rail and airport
infrastructure to GDP are higher than 0.90 indicating that there
exists a strong correlation between GDP and investment in
infrastructure. This further reiterates the fact that massive
investment is needed in infrastructure to achieve targeted
economic growth in the country.
28. Statement I: CORRECT—Roads are part of an integrated
multimodal system of transport which provides crucial links to
airports, railway stations, ports and other logistical hubs and acts
as a catalyst for economic growth by playing a critical role in the
supply chain management. It is the dominant mode of
transportation in comparison with rail, air traffic and inland water-
ways and accounts for about 3.14% of GVA and 69% and 90% of
the country wide freight and passenger traffic respectively.
Statement II: CORRECT—India has a road network of about
58.98 lakh km as on 31 March, 2017 with rural roads constituting
70.65% and National highways constituting 1.94%. Ministry of
Road Transport and Highways (MORTH) declared 2018-19 as the
‘Year of Construction’, and has been making constant efforts to
expand and upgrade the network of National Highways in the
country as a result of which road construction in km grew @ 30
km per day in 2018-19 as compared to 12 km per day in 2014-15.
29. Statement I: CORRECT—The history of rail transport in India
dates back to 1832. Being a cost-effective long distant transport
mode, Indian Railways (IR) has witnessed commendable
progress. In order to provide safe, secure and comfortable journey
to passengers, IR has taken numerous steps such as provision of
lifts/escalators, plastic bottle crusher machines, mechanised
cleaning and housekeeping etc. at major stations.
Statement II: CORRECT—Freight and passenger performance:
Revenue Earning Freight loading (excluding loading by Konkan
Railways) by Indian Railways during 2017-18 was placed at
1159.55 million tonnes, as against 1106.15 million tonnes during
2016-17, registering an increase of 4.83%, with incremental
loading of 53.40 million tonnes over 2016-17.
In 2018-19, IR carried 1221.39 million tonnes of revenue
earning freight showing an increase of 61.84 million tonnes over
the freight traffic of 2017-18 and translating into an increase of
5.33%.
30. Statement I: CORRECT—India’s scheduled domestic air
transportation for passengers and goods has grown by 14% and
12% respectively in 2018-19. Domestic passenger traffic in
revenue passenger kilometre (RPK) recorded the fastest growth
in the world at about 20% for over 50 consecutive months up to
December 2018, which has positively impacted India’s economy.
Total domestic and international passengers were 204 million
in 2018-19. To meet the surging demand and providing air
connectivity to remote regions, new Greenfield airports are being
rapidly developed. Statement II: CORRECT—Based on the
performance of joint ventures in the airport sector, Government
has decided to lease out six brownfield airports of Airports
Authority of India (AAI) in Public- Private Partnership on
Operation, Maintenance and Development model (Guwahati,
Lucknow, Jaipur, Ahmedabad, Mangalore and
Thiruvananthapuram), which is expected to enhance service
quality at these airports besides bringing enhanced revenue to
AAI. The demand and supply trends in civil aviation shows that
passenger demand is higher than the seat supply.
31. Statement I: CORRECT—Shipping plays a pivotal role in India’s
trade dynamics. As per the Indian Shipping Statistics 2018, “India
had a fleet strength of 1400 vessels with gross registered tonnage
(GRT) of 12.68 million as compared to fleet strength of 1371
vessels with 12.35 million GRT at the end of December 2017”.
As on January 31, 2019, India had a fleet strength of 1405
ships with dead weight tonnage (DWT) of 19.22 million (12.74
million GT) including Indian controlled tonnage, with Shipping
Corporation of India (SCI) having the largest share of around
30.52%.
Statement II: CORRECT—Port sector development is very crucial
for the development of any economy. Ports handle around 90% of
EXIM Cargo by volume and 70% by value. In order to meet the
ever increasing trade requirements, expansion of Port Capacity
has been accorded the highest priority with implementation of
well-conceived infrastructure development projects like
sagarmala, project Unnati etc.
As per the Port Performance Benchmarking and Performance
Index published by Logistics Data Bank for February, 2019,
Gateway Terminals India is in the top performing category and
International Container Transhipment Terminal, Kochi in the low
performing category.
32. Statement I: CORRECT—Telecommunication has been
recognised world over as a powerful tool of development and
poverty reduction through empowerment of masses. Growth in the
telecom sector in India remains strong over the last few years on
the back of strong consumer demand and supportive policies of
the Government.
From a low of 93.30 crore in 2013-2014, total telephone
connections in India touched 118.34 crore in 2018-19, registering
a growth of 26.84%. As on March 2019, the total subscription
stood at 118.34 crore out of which 51.42 crore connections were
in the rural areas and 66.91 crore in the urban areas.
Statement II: CORRECT—The wireless telephony now
constitutes 98.17% of all subscriptions whereas share of landline
telephones now stands at only 1.83%. The overall tele-density in
India stands at 90.10%, the rural tele-density being 57.50% and
urban tele-density being 159.66% at the end of March 2019.
The private sector dominated overall connections with a share
of 88.72% (104.99 crore) at the end of March’19 while the share
of public sector was 11.28% (13.35 crore).
33. Statement I: CORRECT—Making India 5G ready by 2020: The
world is at the cusp of a next generation of wireless technology-
5G. The 5G has been conceived as a foundation for expanding
the potential of the Networked Society. The landscape is
expanding to include massive scale of “smart things” to be
interconnected.
For India, 5G provides an opportunity for industry to reach out
to global markets, and consumers to gain with the economies of
scale and citizens to reap the benefits of doorstep governance
and availability of services, medical support, benefits transfers,
education, entertainment and build a digital payment, knowledge
and services economy.
Statement II: CORRECT—13-digit Machine to Machine (M2M)
Numbering Plan for M2M communication: M2M Communications
/Internet of Things (IoT) refers to technologies which involve
machines or devices communicating among themselves through
a network without human intervention.
Sensors and communication modules are often embedded
within M2M devices, enabling data to be transmitted from one
device to another device through wired and wireless
communications networks. The transformational impact of
M2M/IoT for the common people will be realised through
transformation of the way services are designed and how they
utilise information to meet the needs of citizens more efficiently
and effectively.
34. Statement I: CORRECT—FDI in telecom sector: FDI has played a
crucial role in shaping the progress of the telecom sector over the
years by providing much needed finances for expansion of
telecom infrastructure in the country. During 2018-19, FDI equity
inflow touched $2.67 billion - more than double rise from the level
of $1.3 billion witnessed in 2015-16.
The substantial foreign inflows in the telecom sector is
indicative of the faith of global community in Government policy,
reforms and measures taken towards ease of doing business, as
well as the bright prospects of the telecom sector in the country.
Statement II: CORRECT—Digital Communications Commission:
until recently known as the Telecom Commission, was set up by
the Government of India vide resolution dated 11 April 1989 with
administrative and financial powers of the Government of India to
deal with various aspects of Telecommunications. Vide Resolution
dated 22 October 2018, the ‘Telecom Commission’ has been re-
designated as the ‘Digital Communications Commission’ to
ensure effective implementation and monitoring of the newly
announced ‘National Digital Communications Policy-2018’.
35. Statement I: CORRECT—The Government aims to “Reform,
Perform and Transform” the energy sector of the country by
achieving self-sufficiency. India’s primary energy demand is
expected to grow at a CAGR of 4.21% during 2017-2040, much
faster than any major economy in the world. There is thus a need
to augment refining capacity to meet growing demand for
petroleum fuels and petrochemicals, which play significant role in
sustaining GDP.
Statement II: CORRECT—Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
has undertaken a series of reforms and new initiatives. Some of
these include Hydrocarbon Exploration Licensing Policy (HELP)/
Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP), Discovered Small Field
(DSF) Policy, Policy to Promote and Incentivise Enhanced
Recovery Methods for Oil and Gas, Policy framework for
exploration and exploitation of Unconventional Hydrocarbons
under existing Production Sharing Contracts (PSCs), Coal Bed
Methane contracts and Nomination fields, Policy for Relaxations.
36. Statement I: CORRECT—Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
was launched with the objective of providing LPG connections to
five crore women belonging to the Below Poverty Line (BPL)
families over a period of three years starting from 2016-17. The
target was subsequently increased from 5 crore to 8 crore to be
achieved by 2019-20. More than 7.189 crore LPG connections
have been released under this scheme as of 31 March 2019. The
original target of issuing five crore LPG connections was achieved
by 3 August 2018, eight months in advance of the target.
Statement II: CORRECT—Power sector in India has witnessed a
paradigm shift over the years due to the constant efforts of
Government to foster investment in the sector. As a result, India
improved its ranking in the Energy Transition Index published by
World Economic Forum (76th position).
Fostering Effective Energy Transition, 2019 report of WEF
states that “India, Indonesia and Bangladesh have made fast
progress towards universal electrification due to strong political
commitment, a stable policy regime, use of grid expansion, and
decentralised generation sources, and a supportive environment
for investment in infrastructure.”
37. Statement I: CORRECT—Housing is one of the fastest moving
sectors in the country. According to Census 2011, 377.1 million
Indians comprising 31.14% of the country’s population lived in
urban areas, which are projected to grow more than 600 million by
2031. Urbanisation in India has become an important and
irreversible process, and it is an important determinant of
economic growth and poverty reduction.
The process of urbanisation has been characterised by
increase in the number of large cities, although India may be said
to be in the midst of transition from a predominantly rural to a
quasi-urban society. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(MoHUA) addresses various issues relevant to urban sector
through appropriate policy guidelines, subordinate legislation and
sectoral programmes.
Statement II: CORRECT—The Real Estate (Regulation and
Development) Act, 2016 (RERA): One of the important concerns
in the real estate sector is the legal battle being fought by home
buyers against the builders for delaying the housing projects. The
RERA is one of the significant reforms implemented in the real
estate sector.
The core objective of this transformative legislation is to
ensure regulation and promote real estate sector in an efficient
and transparent manner and to protect the interest of home
buyers. Rules under RERA has been notified by 30 States/UTs
and 28 States/UTs have set up the Regulatory Authorities.
38. Statement I: CORRECT—Smart Cities Mission (SCM) was
launched in June 2015 for a five year period with the objective of
promoting cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent
quality life to its citizens. The strategic components of Smart
Cities initiative are area-based development involving city
improvement (retrofitting), city renewal (redevelopment) and city
extension (Greenfield development) and a Pan-city development
in which Smart Solutions are applied covering larger parts of the
city.
Statement II: CORRECT—The 100 cities under the Mission have
proposed to execute 5,151 projects worth ' 2,05,018 crore in five
years from their respective dates of selection. Financial innovation
is in-built in the design of the programme. The distribution of
funding from Central and State Government is ' 93,552 crore
(45%) and funds from PPP is ' 41,022 crore (21%).
39. Statement I: CORRECT—Private investment in infrastructure has
come mainly in the form of PPPs. More than a third of the
infrastructure investment in India in the past decade has come
from the private sector. PPPs help in addressing the infrastructure
gap as well as improving efficiency in infrastructure service
delivery. As per the Private Participation in Infrastructure database
of World Bank, India is ranked second among developing
countries both by the number of PPP Projects as well as the
associated investments.
Statement II: CORRECT—Indian private participation in
infrastructure program supports a number of PPP models
including management contracts, BuildOperate-Transfer (BOT)
contracts, DesignBuild-Finance-Operate-Transfer contracts,
Rehabilitate-Operate-Transfer, Hybrid Annuity Model, and Toll-
Operate-Transfer model.
Under the BOT model, there are two variants - BOT (Toll) and
BOT (Annuity) depending on who bears the traffic risk. In the case
of BOT (Toll), the traffic risk is borne by the PPP concessionaire
while in the case of BOT (Annuity), it is borne by the Government
(Public Authority).
40. Statement I: CORRECT—In a fast moving world to maintain
growth momentum, India has to develop its industry and
infrastructure. As an emerging economy, the scope for Industry
4.0 and Next generation infrastructure are enormous. To
experience the potential of the perfect blend of Industry 4.0 and
next generation infrastructure, it is necessary to clear the decks
which are obstructing the way forward.
Industry 4.0 encompasses automation in industrial sectors
whereas next generation infrastructure brings physical
infrastructure and technology like internet of things, automation
together to maximise the efficiency of physical infrastructure. For
a smooth and fast travelling, India needs adequate and timely
investment in quality infrastructure.
Statement II: CORRECT—In order to create a ten trillion dollar
economy by 2032, India needs a robust and resilient
infrastructure. Public investment cannot fund the entire
infrastructure investment requirements of the country. Further,
private players are usually eager to bring their capital into
developed Indian states as compared to less developed states.
Therefore, the real challenge lies in bringing adequate private
investment across the country with the collaboration of public
sector. Along with physical infrastructure; provision of social
infrastructure is also equally important as these two would
determine where India will be placed in the world by 2030.
41. Statement I: CORRECT—Industrial locations are complex in
nature.
These are influenced by availability of raw material, labour,
capital, power and market, etc. It is rarely possible to find all these
factors available at one place. Consequently, manufacturing
activity tends to locate at the most appropriate place where all the
factors of industrial location are either available or can be
arranged at lower cost.
Statement II: CORRECT—After an industrial activity starts,
urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are located in or near
the cities. Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in
hand. Cities provide markets and also provide services such as
banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial
advice, etc., to the industry. Many industries tend to come
together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban
centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large
industrial agglomeration takes place.
42. Statement I: CORRECT—The textile industry occupies a unique
position in the Indian economy, because it contributes significantly
to industrial production (14%), employment generation (35 million
persons directly - the second largest after agriculture) and foreign
exchange earnings (about 24.6%). It contributes 4% towards
GDP. It is the only industry in the country, which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain i.e., from raw material to the highest
value added products.
Statement II: CORRECT—In ancient India, cotton textiles were
produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving
techniques. After the 18th century, power-looms came into use.
Our traditional industries suffered a setback during the colonial
period because they could not compete with the mill-made cloth
from England.
43. Statement I: CORRECT—India is the largest producer of raw jute
and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after
Bangladesh. There were about 80 jute mills in India in 2010-11.
Most of these are located in West Bengal, mainly along the
Factors responsible for their location in the Hugli basin are:
proximity of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport,
supported by a good network of railways, roadways and
waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills,
abundant water for processing raw jute, cheap labour from West
Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.
Statement II: CORRECT—Kolkata as a large urban centre
provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute
goods. In 2010-11, the jute industry was supporting 3.7 lakh
workers directly and another 40 lakhs small and marginal farmers
who were engaged in cultivation of jute and mesta. Many more
people were associated indirectly. Challenges faced by the
industry include stiff competition in the international market from
synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh,
Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand.
44. Statement I: CORRECT—The new Industrial Policy was
implemented in 1991.
• The new industrial policy has three main dimensions -
liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation.
• Within this new industrial policy, measures initiated are -
abolition of industrial licensing; free entry to foreign technology;
foreign investment policy; access to capital market; open trade;
abolition of phased manufacturing program; and liberalised
industrial location program.
• Globalisation means integrating the economy of the country with
the world economy.
Statement II: CORRECT—India has eight major industrial regions
namely (as shown on the map given below)-
• Mumbai-Pune Region,
• Hugli Region,
• Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region,
• Gujarat Region,
• Chhota Nagpur Region,
• Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region,
• Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut Region, and
• Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region.
45. Statement I: CORRECT—Industrial systems are made up of
input, processes, and output. The input of raw materials, labour,
land, power, and other infrastructure. The process is the plan the
manufacturer has of how to turn raw materials into finished
products of value. And finally, the output is the end of the product
from which the income earned it.
Statement II: CORRECT—Industrial clusters occur when many
industries are located close to each other and share the benefits
of their closeness. Major industrial clusters in India are:
• Mumbai-Pune cluster
• Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region
• Hugli region
• Ahmedabad-Baroda region
• Chottanagpur industrial belt
• Vishakhapatnam-Guntur belt
• Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region
• Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial cluster
46. Statement I: CORRECT—As we learned how industries were
classified according to raw material, size, and ownership. Here we
will learn the distribution of some major industries, which are iron
and steel industry and textile industry are the oldest industries that
have had their role in Indian industrialisation. Information
technology is an emerging industry.
Statement II: CORRECT—Iron and steel industries have their firm
hold in countries like Germany, USA, China, Japan, and Russia.
While textile industries are flourishing in India, Hong Kong, and
South Korea. The new emerging information technology has their
concentration in Silicon Valley of California and Banglore of India.
47. Statement I: CORRECT—Textile is a fabric that is woven from
fibres. It takes raw material like cotton or wool and the process
called spinning turns it into yarn that is later used to create the
fabric. Fibres can be natural or are man-made. Natural fibres are -
cotton, jute, linen, wool, and silk. Man-made fibres are - nylon,
rayon, and polyester.
The man has been wearing and using fabric since ancient
times. The textile industry is one of the oldest industry in the
world. And until the industrial revolution, the textile industry used
wheels and looms to weave fibre. During the revolution, power
looms were introduced first in Britain.
Statement II: CORRECT—After that, textile industry expanded in
Mumbai because of its warm, moist climate, facility of port for
importing machinery and exporting the output and above all the
availability of cheap labour. Some of the well known and highly
demanded fibres are, Muslins from Dhaka Chintzes from
Masulipatnam and Calicos of Calicut, Gold wrought cotton from
Surat, Burhanpur, and Vadodara.
48. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian Industrial sector, hence, consists
of manufacturing, mining, electricity, and construction. After the
economic crisis in 2008, it showed considerable recovery and
steady growth for three years but then lost the track after that.
This was due to constraints on both supply-side and demand-
side. Therefore, Industrial performance in 2013-14 has maintained
its lackluster growth for the second successive year.
• The latest GDP estimates depict that industry grew by 0.4% in
2013-14 after being 1% in the year 2012- 13.The projected 12th
Five Year Plan target is 10% growth rate for the manufacturing
sector and 5.7% for the mining sector in the remaining three
years.
• A sector-wise analysis of the industrial performance depicts that
the main reason for low performance is- contraction in mining
activities and reduced manufacturing output.
Statement II: CORRECT—The industrial sector showed a growth
of 0.4 percent in 2013-14. This poor performance is attributed to
the contraction in mining and slowdown in manufacturing.
• Manufacturing and mining-sector GDP has declined due to
reduction in investment especially by the private corporate
sector during last three years.
• Natural gas production has declined primarily due to declining
level of production from the KG-6 basin. But electricity
generation has increased in comparison to the previous year by
2.1%, due to significant capacity addition in the recent years.
• The steel and cement sectors show capacity underutilisation
due to slowdown in construction sector.
• The “core” industries witnessed a declined from 6.5% growth
during 2012-13, to 2.7% during in 2013-14. This is because of
decline in natural gas and crude oil production, and reduced
growth in fertilizers, coal and refinery products.
49. Statement I: CORRECT—Removal of Infrastructure Bottlenecks:
For improving infrastructure there is a need to alter coal
production by permitting commercial coal mining. Also, a
restructuring of power distribution, upgradation of road and rail
networks, reduction in delays for regulatory approvals, land
acquisition and rehabilitation, require urgent attention. Projects
need to be considered under public-private partnership (PPP)
mode to attract private- sector investment in infrastructure.
Statement II: CORRECT—Facilitating Growth of Small
Businesses: The informal sector lacks easy access to credit and
technology while it a major contributor in GDP. Also, India’s ‘Ease
of Doing Business’ ranking by the World Bank has been reduced
from 131 to 134 out of the 189 countries in 2014. This needs to be
CORRECTed by building a consensus among the States on best
practices to be applicable to all the states and also to promote
self-certification, e-returns, and e-filings to make business
environment friendly for entrepreneurs and corporates as well.
• There is a need to promote structural changes in Manufacturing
industries in medium term for Indian economy. The medium-
term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to progress from
lower to higher technology consuming sectors; from lower to
higher value-added-sectors; and from lower to higher
productivity sectors.
50. Statement I: CORRECT—The government of India has decided
to withdraw from the Industrial sector, and in accordance with this
decision, it decided to privatise the public sector enterprises in a
gradual and phased manner.
• The approach adopted by the government in this regard is to
bring down its equity shares in all non-strategic Public sector
enterprises to 26% or lower.
• For the purpose of privatisation, the government has adopted
route of disinvestment which involves the sale of the public
sector equity to the private sector.
• In the first round of dis-investment it was decided to (a) offer a
randomly structured portfolio of shares each with notional
reserve price based on a complex valuation procedure and (b)
to off-load the shares to institutional investors as a buffer
between the Government and the stock market.
Statement II: CORRECT—The Government has decided to permit
up to 49% disinvestment of equity so that the government would
continue to hold 51%. A firm is legally regarded as a public sector
firm in India if the Government holds more than 50% of equity.
A company so classified is then subject to all the rules,
regulations, procedures, etc., connected with government
ownership. Thus, a firm in which government ownership goes
below 50% can be effectively regarded as being in the private
sector even if the government has a dominant share holding.

51. Statement I: CORRECT—Raw material used by industries should
be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky
and weight-losing material (ores) are located close to the sources
of raw material such as steel, sugar, and cement industries.
Perishability is a vital factor for the industry to be located closer to
the source of the raw material. Agro-processing and dairy
products are processed close to the sources of farm produce or
milk supply respectively.
Statement II: CORRECT—Labour supply is an important factor in
the location of industries. Some types of manufacturing still
require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and
flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of
industry upon the labours. Industries which use more power are
located close to the source of the energy supply such as the
aluminium industry. Earlier coal was the main source of energy,
today hydroelectricity and petroleum are also important sources of
energy for many industries.
52. Statement I: CORRECT—The artisans use local raw materials
and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes with
the help of their family members or part time labour. Finished
products may be for consumption in the same household or, for
sale in local (village) markets, or, for barter. Capital and
transportation do not wield much influence as this type of
manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the
tools are devised locally.
Statement II: CORRECT—Small scale manufacturing is
distinguished from household industries by its production
techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the
home/cottage of the producer). This type of manufacturing uses
local raw material, simple power-driven machines and semiskilled
labour. It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.
Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil, etc.,
have developed labour-intensive small scale manufacturing in
order to provide employment to their population.
53. Statement I: CORRECT—Agro processing involves the
processing of raw materials from the field and the farm into
finished products for rural and urban markets. Major agro-
processing industries are food processing, sugar, pickles, fruits
juices, beverages (tea, coffee and cocoa), spices and oils fats and
textiles (cotton, jute, and silk), rubber, etc.
Agro processing includes canning, producing cream, fruit
processing and confectionery. While some preserving techniques,
such as drying, fermenting and pickling, have been known since
ancient times, these had limited applications to cater to the pre-
Industrial Revolution demands.
Statement II: INCORRECT—Mineral industries use minerals as a
raw material. Some industries use ferrous metallic minerals which
contain ferrous (iron), such as iron and steel industries but some
use non-ferrous metallic minerals, such as aluminium, copper and
jewellery industries. Many industries use non-metallic minerals
such as cement and pottery industries.
54. Statement I: CORRECT—Public Sector Industries are owned and
managed by governments. In India, there were a number of Public
Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Socialist countries have many state
owned industries. Mixed economies have both Public and Private
sector enterprises.
(b) Private Sector Industries are owned by individual investors.
These are managed by private organisations. In capitalist
countries, industries are generally owned privately.
(c) Joint Sector Industries are managed by joint stock companies
or sometimes the private and public sectors together establish
and manage the industries.
Statement II: CORRECT—Traditional Large-Scale Industrial
Regions are based on heavy industry, often located near coal-
fields and engaged in metal smelting, heavy engineering,
chemical manufacture or textile production. These industries are
now known as smokestack industries. Traditional industrial
regions can be recognised by:
• High proportion of employment in manufacturing industry.
• High-density housing, often of inferior type, and poor services.
• Unattractive environment, for example, pollution, waste heaps,
and so on.
• Problems of unemployment, emigration and derelict land areas
caused by closure of factories because of a worldwide fall in
demand.
55. Statement I: CORRECT—The Ruhr Coal-field, Germany has
been one of the major industrial Regions of Europe for a long
time. Coal and iron and steel formed the basis of the economy,
but as the demand for coal declined, the industry started
shrinking. Even after the iron ore was exhausted, the industry
remained, using imported ore brought by waterways to the Ruhr.
The Ruhr region is responsible for 80% of Germany’s total
steel production. Changes in the industrial structure have led to
the decay of some areas, and there are problems of industrial
waste and pollution. The future prosperity of the Ruhr is based
less on the products of coal and steel, for which it was initially
famous, and more on the new industries like the huge Opel car
assembly plant, new chemical plants, universities. Out of town
shopping centres have appeared resulting in a ‘New Ruhr’
landscape.
Statement II: CORRECT—The iron and steel industry forms the
base of all other industries and, therefore, it is called a basic
industry. It is basic because it provides raw material for other
industries such as machine tools used for further production. It
may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large
quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace
with carbon (coke) and limestone. The molten iron is cooled and
moulded to form pig iron which is used for converting into steel by
adding strengthening materials like manganese.
56. Statement I: CORRECT—Cotton textile industry has three sub-
sectors, i.e., handloom, power loom and mill sectors. Handloom
sector is labour-intensive and provides employment to semi-
skilled workers. It requires small capital investment. Why did
Mahatma Gandhi propagate Khadi as part of the independence
movement? This sector involves spinning, weaving and finishing
of the fabrics.
The power loom sector introduces machines and becomes
less labour intensive and the volume of production increases.
Cotton textile mill sector is highly capital intensive and produces
fine clothes in bulk.
Statement II: CORRECT—Cotton textile manufacturing requires
good quality cotton as raw material. India, China, USA, Pakistan,
Uzbekistan, Egypt produce more than half of the world’s raw
cotton. The UK, NW European countries and Japan also produce
cotton textile made from imported yarn. Europe alone accounts
for nearly half of the world’s cotton imports. The industry has to
face very stiff competition with synthetic fibres hence it has now
shown a declining trend in many countries.
57. Statement I: CORRECT—Manufacturing industries not only help
in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our
economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on
agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and
tertiary sectors.
Statement II: CORRECT—Industrial development is a
precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from
our country. This was the main Philosophy behind public sector
industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at
bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in
tribal and backward areas. Export of manufactured goods
expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign
exchange.
58. Statement I: CORRECT—Industrial locations are complex in
nature. These are influenced by availability of raw material,
labour, capital, power and market, etc. It is rarely possible to find
all these factors available at one place. Consequently,
manufacturing activity tends to locate at the most appropriate
place where all the factors of industrial location are either
available or can be arranged at lower cost. After an industrial
activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are
located in or near the cities. Thus, industrialisation and
urbanisation go hand in hand.
Statement II: INCORRECT—In the pre-Independence period,
most manufacturing units were located in places from the point of
view of overseas trade such as Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, etc.
Consequently, there emerged certain pockets of industrially
developed urban centres surrounded by a huge agricultural rural
hinterland. The key to decision of the factory location is the least
cost. Government policies and specialised labour also influence
the location of industry.
59. Statement I: CORRECT—Before 1800 AD iron and steel industry
was located where raw materials, power supply and running water
were easily available. Later the ideal location for the industry was
near coal fields and close to canals and railways. After 1950, iron
and steel industry began to be located on large areas of flat land
near sea ports. This is because by this time steel works had
become very large and iron ore had to be imported from
overseas.
Statement II: CORRECT—In India, iron and steel industry has
developed taking advantage of raw materials, cheap labour,
transport and market. All the important steel producing centres
such as Bhilai, Durgapur, Burnpur, Jamshedpur, Rourkela, Bokaro
are situated in a region that spreads over four states — West
Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh. Bhadravati and
Vijay Nagar in Karnataka, Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh,
Salem in Tamil Nadu are other important steel centres utilising
local resources. India’s steel production increased from one
million tonne in 1947 to 30 million tonnes in 2002.
60. Statement I: CORRECT: Before 1947, there was only one iron
and steel plant in the country - Tata Iron and Steel Company
Limited (TISCO). It was privately owned. After Independence, the
government took the initiative and set up several iron and steel
plants. TISCO was started in 1907 at Sakchi, near the confluence
of the rivers Subarnarekha and Kharkai in Jharkhand. Later on
Sakchi was renamed as Jamshedpur. Geographically,
Jamshedpur is the most conveniently situated iron and steel
centre in the country.
Statement II: CORRECT—Sakchi was chosen to set up the steel
plant for several reasons. This place was only 32 km away from
Kalimati station on the Bengal-Nagpur railway line. It was close to
the iron ore, coal and manganese deposits as well as to Kolkata,
which provided a large market. TISCO gets coal from Jharia
coalfields, and iron ore, limestone, dolomite and manganese from
Odisha and Chhattisgarh. The Kharkai and Subarnarekha rivers
ensured sufficient water supply. Government initiatives provided
adequate capital for its later development.
61. Statement I: CORRECT—Natural fibres are obtained from wool,
silk, cotton, linen and jute. Man-made fibres include nylon,
polyester, acrylic and rayon. The cotton textile industry is one of
the oldest industries in the world.
Till the industrial revolution in the 18th century, cotton cloth
was made using hand spinning techniques (wheels) and looms. In
18th century power looms facilitated the development of cotton
textile industry, first in Britain and later in other parts of the world.
Today India, China, Japan and the USA are important producers
of cotton textiles.
Statement II: CORRECT—India has a glorious tradition of
producing excellent quality cotton textiles. Before the British rule,
Indian hand spun and hand woven cloth already had a wide
market. The Muslins of Dhaka, Chintzes of Masulipatnam, Calicos
of Calicut and Gold-wrought cotton of Burhanpur, Surat and
Vadodara were known worldwide for their quality and design.
But the production of hand woven cotton textile was expensive
and time consuming. Hence, traditional cotton textile industry
could not face the competition from the new textile mills of the
West, which produced cheap and good quality fabrics through
mechanised industrial units.
62. Statement I: INCORRECT—The first successful mechanised
textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854. The warm, moist
climate, a port for importing machinery, availability of raw material
and skilled labour resulted in rapid expansion of the industry in the
region. Initially this industry flourished in the states of Maharashtra
and Gujarat because of favourable humid climate.
But today, humidity can be created artificially, and raw cotton is
a pure and not weight losing raw material, so this industry has
spread to other parts of India. Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai,
Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry and
Panipat are some of the other important centres.
Statement II: CORRECT—It is located in Gujarat on the banks of
the Sabarmati River. The first mill was established in 1859. It soon
became the second largest textile city of India, after Mumbai.
Ahmedabad was therefore often referred to as the ‘Manchester of
India’. Favourable locational factors were responsible for the
development of the textile industry in Ahmedabad.
Ahmedabad is situated very close to cotton growing area. This
ensures easy availability of raw material. The climate is ideal for
spinning and weaving. The flat terrain and easy availability of land
is suitable for the establishment of the mills.
63. Statement I: CORRECT—Textile industry includes cotton, jute,
wool, silk, and synthetic fibre textiles. India is on of the leading
producers of textile goods. It is one of the largest and most
important sector in the economy in terms of output, foreign
exchange earnings, and employment in India
India enjoyed monopoly in the production of textile goods from
1500 BC to 1500 AD. Indian cotton and silk textiles were in great
demand all over the world. It was the arrival of the British in India
and the Industrial Revolution in Britain in 1779 which led to the
downfall of the Indian manufacturing.
The industry suffered a setback in 1947 as good quality cotton
growing area went to Pakistan. Consequently, India had to import
cotton from the African countries.
Statement II: CORRECT—The location of cotton textile industry is
mainly affected by: raw material, proximity to market, moist
weather, capital, skilled and cheap labour, transport, sea-port,
export facility and the domestic and international markets. Cotton
mills and factories: earlier production was in the mills however it
has moved to power looms.
Power loom: The decentralised power-loom sector played a vital
role in meeting the clothing needs of the country. The power loom
industry accounts for almost 83% of the total cloth production.
The handloom sector provides over 12% of the total production.
64. Statement I: CORRECT—Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948. It
defined the broad contours of the policy delineating the role of the
State in industrial development both as an entrepreneur and
authority. It made clear that India is going to have a Mixed
Economic Model.
It classified industries into four broad areas: Strategic
Industries (Public Sector): It included three industries in which
Central Government had monopoly. These included Arms and
ammunition, Atomic energy and Rail transport.
Basic/Key Industries (Public-cum-Private Sector): six
industries vis. coal, iron and steel, aircraft manufacturing, ship-
building, manufacture of telephone, telegraph and wireless
apparatus, and mineral oil were designated as “Key Industries” or
“Basic Industries”. These industries were to be set-up by the
Central Government. However, the existing private sector
enterprises were allowed to continue.
Statement II: CORRECT—Industrial Policy Statement of 1956:
Government revised its first Industrial Policy (i.e. the policy of
1948) through the Industrial Policy of 1956.
It was regarded as the “Economic Constitution of India” or
“The Bible of State Capitalism”.
The 1956 Policy emphasised the need to expand the public
sector, to build up a large and growing cooperative sector and to
encourage the separation of ownership and management in
private industries and, above all, prevent the rise of private
monopolies.
It provided the basic framework for the government’s policy in
regard to industries till June 1991.
65. Statement I: CORRECT—Industrial Policy Statement, 1977. In
December 1977, the Janata Government announced its New
Industrial Policy through a statement in the Parliament. The main
thrust of this policy was the effective pro-motion of cottage and
small industries widely dispersed in rural areas and small towns.
In this policy the small sector was classified into three groups
—cottage and household sector, tiny sector and small scale
industries.
The 1977 Industrial Policy prescribed different areas for large
scale industrial sector- Basic industries, Capital goods industries,
High technology industries and Other industries outside the list of
reserved items for the small scale sector.
Statement II: CORRECT—Industrial Policy of 1980 sought to
promote the concept of economic federation, to raise the
efficiency of the public sector and to reverse the trend of industrial
production of the past three years and reaffirmed its faith in the
Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act and the
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA). New Industrial Policy
during Economic Reforms of 1991
The long-awaited liberalised industrial policy was announced
by the Government of India in 1991 in the midst of severe
economic instability in the country.
66. Statement I: CORRECT—De-reservation of Public sector:
Sectors that were earlier exclusively reserved for public sector
were reduced. However, pre-eminent place of public sector in five
core areas like arms and ammunition, atomic energy, mineral oils,
rail transport and mining was continued. Presently, only two
sectors-Atomic Energy and Railway operations-are reserved
exclusively for the public sector.
De-licensing: Abolition of Industrial Licensing for all projects
except for a short list of industries.
There are only four industries at present related to security,
strategic and environmental concerns, where an industrial license
is currently required-
• Electronic aerospace and defence equipment
• Specified hazardous chemicals
• Industrial explosives
• Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufactured tobacco
substitutes.
Statement II: CORRECT—Disinvestment of Public Sector:
Government stakes in Public Sector Enterprises were reduced to
enhance their efficiency and competitiveness.
Liberalisation of Foreign Investment: This was the first Industrial
policy in which foreign companies were allowed to have majority
stake in India. In 47 high priority industries, up to 51% FDI was
allowed. For export trading houses, FDI up to 74% was allowed.
Today, there are numerous sectors in the economy where
government allows 100% FDI.
Foreign Technology Agreement: Automatic approvals for
technology related agreements.
MRTP Act was amended to remove the threshold limits of
assets in respect of MRTP companies and dominant
undertakings. MRTP Act was replaced by the Competition Act
2002.
67. Statement I: CORRECT—The modern industrial development in
India started with the establishment of the first cotton textile mill at
Mumbai in 1854, predominantly with Indian capital and
entreprenuership. Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with
the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly Valley near Kolkata
with foreign capital and entreprenuership.
Coal mining was first started at Raniganj in 1772. Railways
were introduced in 1854. Tata Iron and Steel Plant was set up at
Jamshedpur in 1907. Several other medium and small size
industries like cement, glass, soaps, chemicals, jute, sugar and
paper followed. The industrial production in pre-independence
period was neither adequate nor diversified.
Statement II: CORRECT—At the time of independence, the
economy was under-developed with agriculture contributing to
more than 60% of the GDP and most of the country’s export
earnings. After 60 years of independance, India has now shown
the signs of becoming a leading economic power. Industiral
development in India can be divided into two phases.
The Government successively increased its control over
different economic sectors during the first phase (1947-1980). In
the second phase (1980-97) it took measures to liberalise the
economy between 1980 and 1992. These measures were
somewhat adhoc. After 1992, the whole process of liberalisation
became more focused and radically different in nature.
68. Statement I: CORRECT—The industrial development in India
began with the establishment of first successful modern cotton
textile mill at Mumbai in 1854. Since then the industry has
witnessed a phenomenal growth. The numbers of mills increased
from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998.
Cotton textiles have an important place in the economy of the
country. It provides employment opportunities to a large number
of people. About one fifth of the total industrial labour is absorbed
by this industry.
Statement II: CORRECT—Production Cotton textile industry
comprises of three sectors: mill sector, handloom and powerloom.
The share of large mill, handloom and powerloom sector in the
total production of cotton cloth in 1998-99 was 5.4%, 20.6% and
74% respectively. The cloth production of cotton textile increased
from 421 crore square metres in 1950-51 to 1794.9 crore square
metres in 1998-99.
The Cotton and synthetic fibre textile industry has made
tremendous progress. Per capita availability of cloth from both the
types was 15 metres only in 1960-61. In the year 1995-96, it has
risen to 28 metres. This has enabled us to export cotton yarn,
cotton fabrics and cotton and synthetic garments on a large seal.
In 1995-96 we earned 2.6 billion dollars by their exports.
69. Statement I: CORRECT—Cotton textile industry is one of the
most widely distributed industries in our country. These mills are
located in more than 88 centres in different parts of the country.
But majority of cotton textile mills are still located in the cotton
growing areas of the Great Plains and peninsular India.
Maharashtra is the leading producer of cotton textile in the
country. Mumbai is the major centre of textile mills. About a half of
the Cotton textile mills are located in Mumbai alone. It is,
therefore, rightly called as ‘Cottonpolis’ of India. Sholapur,
Kohlapur, Nagpur, Pune, Aurangabad and Jalgaon are other
important centres in Maharashtra.
Statement II: CORRECT—Gujarat, which ranks second in the
production of cotton textiles, Ahamedabad is the major centre of
the state. Surat, Bharauch, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Rajkot are
other centres in the state.
Tamil Nadu has emerged as an important producer of cotton
textiles in sourthern states. Coimbatore is an important centre in
the state. Tirunelveli, Chennai, Madurai, Tiruchirapalli, Salem and
Thanjavour are other important centers here.
70. Statement I: CORRECT—In Karnataka, cotton textile industry is
concentrated at Bangalore, Mysore, Belgaum and Gulberga.
Kanpur, Etawah, Modinagar, Varanasi, and Hathras are important
centres in Uttar Pradesh. In Madhya Pradesh this industry is
concentrated at Indore and Gwalior. Howrah, Serampur and
Murshidabad are important Cotton textile centres in West Bengal.
Statement II: CORRECT—Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and
Andhra Pradesh are the other states producing cotton textiles.
The following are the factors for the localisation of textile
industry in Ahmedabad-Mumbai-Pune region.
1. Availability of raw material - A large amount of cotton is grown
in this belt.
2. Availability of capital - Mumbai, Ahmedabad and Pure are the
places where capital for investment is easily available.
3. Means of transport - This region is well connected with the rest
of India by roads and railways. It, therefore, facilities
transportation of finished products.
4. Accessibility to the market - Maharashtra and Gujarat have a
large market to sell textile products here. Developed means of
transportation help in movement of textile products to other
market centres as well as to foreign market. Now a days the
market has become a dominant factor in determining the
location of cotton textile industry.
5. Nearness to ports - Mumbai port facilitates the import of
machinery and good quality of cotton from abroad and export
of the finished products.
6. Cheap labour - Cheap and skilled labour is easily available
from the surrounding areas.
7. Availability of power - Cheap and sufficient power is easily
available here.
71. Statement I: CORRECT—Iron and steel industry is a basic
industry and its products serve as a raw material for a number of
other industries.
Although iron and steel manufacturing activity in India is very
old, modern iron and steel industry started with the establishment
of ‘Bengal Iron and Steel Works’ at Kulti in West Bengal in 1817.
Tata Iron and Steel Company was established at Jamshedpur in
1907. This was followed by ‘Indian Iron and Steel plant’ at
Burnpur in 1919. All the three plants were established in the
private sector. The first public sector iron and steel plant, which is
now known as ‘Visvesvarayya Iron and Steel works’, was
established at Bhadrawati in 1923.
Statement II: CORRECT—The iron and steel industry made rapid
progress after independence. The production capacity has
increased in all the existing units. Three new integrated steel
plants were established at Rourkela, Bhilai and Durgapur. Bokaro
steel plant was established under public sector in 1964.
Bokaro and Bhilai plants were set up with the collaboration of
the former Soviet Union. Durgapur steel plant was set up in
Collaboration with United Kingdom while Rourkela plant was
established with the help of Germany. Vishakhapatnam and
Salem plants were set up afterwards.
72. Statement I: CORRECT—The process of industrialisation in India
can be divided into two parts - before and after 1992. During first
40 years after independence, the Indian economy had diversified
and expanded very fast. But this growth was characterised by
rigid controls and regulations.
In August 1992, Government of India took a bold step by
changing its economic policies from state control to market forces.
A need was felt to give more responsibility to private capital and
enterprise, both domestic as well as foreign. In reponse to this,
the new industrial policy of liberalisation, privatisation and
globalisation was adopted in August 1992. The immediate cause
of this changes in economic policy was to tide over balance of
payment crises but having wide social, economic, political and
geographical implications.
Statement II: CORRECT—Liberalisation means a reduced role for
the Government and a greater role for the market or the liberal
attitude of the Government for the establishment and running of
industries. It was touted as a panacea for the ills of Indian
economy. However, after 15 years of following the path of lit-
eralisation, the results are not that sweet. The gap between the
rich and the poor has increased.
Production of goods of mass consumption has not improved.
Employment opportunities have not increased at the desired rate.
In privatisation there will be transfer of the ownership of public
enterprises to private capital, opening of more industrial areas to
private capital and enterprise. The main aim of privatisation is to
make use of privately owned resources for collective welfare of
the people.
73. Statement I: CORRECT—The CPSEs play a significant role in
Indian economy. According to Department of Public Enterprises,
there are 339 CPSEs as on 31 March 2018. Out of these 339
CPSEs, 257 are in operation and 82 are non-operational during
2017-18. Out of the operating 257 CPSEs, 184 CPSEs were profit
making, 71 loss making and 2 CPSEs at no profit no loss. The
profit of profit making CPSEs (184) stood at '1,59,635 crore, while
the loss of loss- making CPSEs (71) stood at '31,261 crore during
2017-18. The overall net profit of the 257 operating CPSEs went
up by 2.29% to '1,28,374 crore during 2017-18. Further, the
CPSEs contribution to the total Central Exchequer decreased by
2.98% in 2017-18 as against the previous year.
Statement II: CORRECT—Growth of sales (YoY) of over 1700
non-governmental non-financial (NGNF) listed manufacturing
companies was 21.6% in Q1, 19.3% in Q2 and 13.2% in Q3
during 2018-19. According to RBI, NGNF listed manufacturing
companies posted double digit growth rate in nominal sales in Q4
of 2016-17 and continued its recovery path till Q2 of 2018-19 with
minor moderations in between.
In Q3 of 2018-19, moderation was observed in nominal sales
growth of manufacturing companies due to subdued demand
conditions faced by textiles; iron and steel; motor vehicles and
other transport equipments. On the positive side, the demand
scenario improved for consumer driven sectors such as food
products, beverages and pharmaceuticals. The capacity utilisation
of India’s manufacturing sector increased to 75.9% in Q3 of 2018-
19 which is higher than Q3 of 2017-18.
74. Statement I: CORRECT—According to RBI, the growth in gross
bank credit flow to the industrial sector has increased by 6.9% in
March, 2019 compared to the increase of 0.7% in March, 2018.
Credit flow to industries like chemicals and chemical products,
cement and cement products, all engineering industries,
construction, infrastructure, other industries increased in 2018-19
while a sharp decline was noticed in industries like textiles,
petroleum, coal products and nuclear fuel, basic metal and metal
products in 2018-19. Mining and quarrying, food processing,
vehicles, vehicle parts and transport equipment registered lower
growth rate in 2018-19.
Statement II: CORRECT—The Government of India has taken
several industry specific reform initiatives since 2014 that has
significantly improved the overall business environment. To
improve ease of doing business, the emphasis has been given to
simplification and rationalisation of the existing rules and
introduction of information technology to make governance more
efficient and effective. As per the World Bank Doing Business
(DB) Report released on 31 October 2018, India has considerably
improved its ranking to 77th position among the 190 countries and
has leapt 23 ranks over its previous rank of 100.
75. Statement I: CORRECT—Start-ups drive economic growth,
create employment and foster a culture of innovation. In order to
promote innovation and entrepreneurship among enterprising
youth, the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India had announced the
“Start-up India, Standup India” initiative on 15 August 2015. The
initiative aims to create an ecosystem that is conducive for the
growth of Start-ups.
A plan comprising of 19 action points was unveiled on 16
January 2016. As on 1 March 2019, 16,578 new start-ups were
recognised Figure 4: India’s ranking in World Bank Ease of Doing
Business Reports India’s progress in Ease of Doing Business
Report Rankings across 499 districts, 47% Start-ups from Tier II
and III cities and 46% of Recognised Start-ups have at least one
woman director.
Statement II: CORRECT—FDI is a major driver of economic
growth as it enhances productivity by bringing capital, skills and
technology to the host country. The Government is playing a
proactive role in investment promotion through a liberal FDI policy.
During 2018-19, total FDI equity inflows were $44.36 billion as
compared to $44.85 billion during 2017-18. Out of FDI equity
inflows of $44.36 billion during 2018-19, more than 70% have
come mainly from Singapore, Mauritius, Netherlands, Japan and
United Kingdom.
76. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian leather and footwear industry, a
highly employment intensive sector, is the second largest
producer of footwear, second largest exporter of leather garments
and fifth largest exporter of leather goods. The global demand for
footwear is moving towards non-leather footwear, while Indian tax
policies favour leather footwear production. India faces high tariffs
in partner country markets for leather goods and non-leather
footwear. In order to address these challenges, a special package
of '2600 crore under the scheme Indian Footwear and
Accessories Development Programme is being implemented
(2017-20). The special package for the leather industry has the
potential to generate 3.24 lakh new jobs in three years and assist
in formalisation of 2 lakh jobs.
Statement II: CORRECT—The gem and jewellery sector
contributes to exports and employment generation of around 5
million. During the year 2017-18, the gem and jewellery exports
were 13.69% of total merchandise exports in the country. With a
view to strengthen the sector, the Government has taken a
number of steps, such as establishment of Special Notified Zone,
setting up of Common Facility Centres for gems and jewellery
sector, creation of separate ITC HS Code for lab grown diamond,
reduction of GST rates for cut and polished diamonds and
precious stones, exempting Integrated Goods and Service Tax on
import of gold by specified agencies and banks, exemption from
GST on supply of gold by nominated agencies to exporters and
providing financial assistance for participation of international
fairs.
15
Transport and Services of India

1. What was the industrial growth rate in terms of Index of Industrial

Production (IIP) during 2018-19?
(a) E.3.6%
(b) F.4.6%
(c) G.5.6%
(d) H.6.6%
2. India is the ________ largest producer of footwear, second
largest exporter of leather garments.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fifth
3. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MORTH) declared
________ as the ‘Year of Construction’.
(a) 2016-17
(b) 2017-18
(c) 2018-19
(d) 2019-20
4. What is the meaning of whole sale trading?
(a) Bulk business
(b) It is a small business
(c) It is an MSME
(d) It is a trade
5. Most people from ________ expect to have warm, sunny
weather for beach holidays.
(a) Colder regions
(b) Hot regions
(c) Rainy regions
(d) None
6. The warmer places around the ________ and the West Coast of
India are some of the popular tourist destinations in the world.
(a) Hindu Coast
(b) Mediterranean Coast
(c) Atlantic Coast
(d) Arabian Coast
7. ________ along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the
primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic
growth.
(a) The Quaternary Sector
(b) Quandary activities
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None
8. Opportunities emerging from the Information and Communication
Technology based ________ is unevenly distributed across the
globe.
(a) Undevelopment
(b) Development
(c) Growth
(d) None
9. ________ is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and
goods from one place to the other using humans, animals and
different kinds of vehicles.
(a) Development
(b) Growth
(c) Transport
(d) None
10. Most of the movement of goods and service takes place over
land. In early days, humans ________ were carriers.
(a) themselves
(b) yourselves
(c) their
(d) transports
11. Which Roads laid along international boundaries?
(a) Long roads
(b) Widen roads
(c) Border roads
(d) National roads
12. Commuter trains are very popular in UK, USA, Japan and
________.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Afghanistan
(d) India
13. Which sea route passes through the heart of the Old World and
serves more countries and people than any other route?
(a) The Pacific-Indian Ocean Sea Route
(b) The Atlantic-Indian Ocean Sea Route
(c) The Arctic-Indian Ocean Sea Route
(d) The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean Sea Route
14. This canal had been constructed in ________ in Egypt
(a) 1869
(b) 1769
(c) 1969
(d) 1669
15. ________ canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the
Pacific Ocean in the west.
(a) The Panama canal
(b) The Suez canal
(c) The Ganga canal
(d) The Rawi canal

1. Telecommunication is the transmission of signs, signals,
messages, words, writings, images and sounds or information
of any nature by wire, radio, optical.
2. Early means of communicating over a distance included visual
signals, such as beacons, smoke signals, semaphore
telegraphs, signal flags and optical heliographs.
Identify the correct codes given below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
17. Choose from the following statement/statements given below:
1. The hospitality industry is a broad category of fields within the
service industry.
2. Hospitality industry concentrates on customer’s satisfaction by
creating good services and products that will meet their needs.
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
18. Identify the following statement/statements which are correct:
1. Access to health care may vary across countries, communities,
and individuals, influenced by social and economic conditions
as well as health policies.
2. Health care systems are organisations established to meet the
health needs of targeted populations.
Answer the following statements by the codes: (a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
1. The public can be as small as a handful of people or as large
as a village or an entire city; in the case of a pandemic it may
encompass several continents.
2. Public health aims to improve the quality of life through
prevention and treatment of disease, including mental health.
Identify the correct answer codes given below: (a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
20. Choose the statement/statements which are correct:
1. The professional practice is becoming more clinically oriented
as most of the drugs are now manufactured by pharmaceutical
industries.
2. Pharmacists, therefore, are the experts on drug therapy and
are the primary health professionals who optimise the use of
medication for the benefit of the patients.
Identify the correct answers from the given codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
1. Information technology (IT) is the use of computers to store,
retrieve, transmit, and manipulate data or information.
2. Humans have been storing, retrieving, manipulating, and
communicating information since the Sumerians in
Mesopotamia developed writing in about 3000 BC.
Identify the correct answers from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
1. Waste management (or waste disposal) are the activities and
actions required to manage waste from its inception to its final
disposal.
2. Waste management practices are not uniform among
countries, regions, and residential and industrial sectors can all
take different approaches.
Identify the suitable answers by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
23. Identify the wrong statement given below options:
1. Education can take place in formal or informal settings and any
experience that has a formative effect on the way one thinks,
feels, or acts may be considered educational.
2. Formal education occurs in a structured environment whose
explicit purpose is teaching students.
Answer the statements by the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
24. Read the following statements given below:
1. Most nations have institutionalised a system known as
fractional reserve banking under which banks hold liquid assets
equal to only a portion of their current liabilities.
2. In the history of banking, a number of banking dynasties -
notably, the Medicis, the Fuggers, the Welsers, the
Berenbergs, and the Rothschilds - have played a central role
over many centuries.
Identify the correct answer from the given codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
1. Modern banking practices, including fractional reserve banking
and the issue of banknotes, emerged in the 17th and 18th
centuries.
2. Gradually the goldsmiths began to lend the money out on
behalf of the depositor, which led to the development of
modern banking practices.
Choose the correct code for answer:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
26. Choose the correct statement/statements below:
1. Insurance is a means of protection from financial loss. It is a
form of risk management, primarily used to hedge against the
risk of a contingent or uncertain loss.
2. The insured receives a contract, called the insurance policy,
which details the conditions and circumstances under which
the insurer will compensate the insured. Identify the correct
answers:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. In India, there has been a huge growth in service sector
businesses which made up 55% of India’s GDP in 2006-2007.
2. Many sector businesses focus on what is called the
“knowledge economy”.
Answer with the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Internet access is plagued by issues related to quality and
reliability, outages, call drops and weak signals.
2. A significant portion of our population does not have access to
devices such as laptops, computers, smartphones, etc.
Identify the correct answers:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
1. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has identified 302
polluted river stretches on 275 rivers.
2. Forests are critical to achieving sustainable environmental
management. In March 2018, the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change released the Draft National Forest
Policy, 2018.
Choose the correct option for the answer:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
30. Identify the following statements which are correct:
1. Afforestation should be promoted aggressively through joint
forest management (peoples’ participation) and the
involvement of the private sector.
2. By 2030, 40% of cumulative power generation capacity
installed should be non-fossil fuel based. The strategies to
achieve this are given in the chapter on Energy Supply and
Demand.
Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 correct
(d) 2 wrong

1. Trade is essentially buying and selling of items produced
elsewhere.
2. Trading centres may be divided into rural and urban marketing
centres.
Answer the correct statement by the codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 wrong
1. Retail Trading is the business activity concerned with the sale
of goods directly to the consumers.
2. Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous
intermediary merchants and supply houses and not through
retail stores.
Answer the following by the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 correct
(d) 2 correct
33. Consider the following statements regarding service sector:
1. Transport is an organised industry created to satisfy man’s
basic need of mobility.
2. Transport distance can be measured as km distance or actual
distance of route length.
(a) Both are wrong
(c) 1 correct
(d) 2 correct
34. Identify the following statement/statements which is correct
1. Communication services involve the transmission of words and
messages, facts and ideas.
2. The use of telecommunications is linked to the development of
modern technology. Answer the following by the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) 1 correct
(d) 2 correct
1. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford
to pay for them.
2. Professional services are primarily health care, engineering,
law and management.
Answer the following statements by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
1. Tourism is travel undertaken for purposes of recreation rather
than business.
2. The warmer places around the Mediterranean Coast and the
West Coast of India are some of the popular tourist
destinations in the world.
Answer the statements with the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 wrong
(d) Only 2 wrong
37. Identify the following statements regarding the services:
1. Quaternary activities centre around research, development
and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving
specialised knowledge and technical skills.
2. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers perform
quinary activities.
Choose the correct answer code:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
38. Consider the following statement(s) given below:
1. Opportunities emerging from the Information and
Communication Technology based development is unevenly
distributed across the globe.
2. Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-
arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data
interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies.
Identify the correct answers from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
39. Choose the correct statements:
1. Initially, the means of communication were also the means of
transportation.
2. People use different modes of communication to convey the
messages.
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
40. Choose the correct statement from the options given below:
1. Among all the personal communication system internet is the
most effective and advanced one.
2. Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club
of Bombay. Since then, it gained immense popularity and
changed the sociocultural life of people.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
1. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is pursuing a
project to support ASEAN Member states
2. Foreign exchange earnings of India from the export of satellite
launch services increased noticeably in 2015-16 and 2016-17
to ' 394 crore and ' 275 crore from ' 149 crore in 2014-15.
Identify the correct statements by the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
42. Choose from the following statement/statements given below:
1. The service sector is the second of the three economic sectors
of the three-sector theory.
2. The tertiary sector of industry involves the provision of services
to other businesses as well as final consumers.
Identify the wrong statement by the codes:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(d) Both are wrong
1. For the last 100 years, there has been a substantial shift from
the primary and secondary sectors to the tertiary sector in
industrialised countries.
2. Economies tend to follow a developmental progression that
takes them from a heavy reliance on agriculture and mining,
toward the development of manufacturing.
Identify the correct answer from the codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(d) Both are wrong
44. Read the statement/statements given below:
1. Radio and television programs are distributed over frequency
bands which are highly regulated in the European Union.
2. A broadcasting organisation may broadcast several programs
simultaneously, through several channels.
Identify the wrong statement by the codes:
(a) Only 1 wrong
(b) Only 2 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
1. The sixth and seventh media, Internet and mobile phones, are
often referred to collectively as digital media; and the fourth
and fifth, radio and TV, as broadcast media.
2. Users sometimes share the experience with one another by
playing online.
Answer the following statements by the codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
46. Choose the following statement regarding service sector:
1. Education is the process of facilitating learning, or the
acquisition of knowledge, skills, values, beliefs, and habits.
2. Formal education is commonly divided formally into such
stages as preschool or kindergarten, primary school,
secondary school and then college, university, or
apprenticeship.
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 wrong
47. Choose from the statements given below:
1. Primary (or elementary) education consists of the first five to
seven years of formal, structured education.
2. Some education systems have separate middle schools, with
the transition to the final stage of secondary education taking
place at around the age of fourteen.
Answer the statements by the correct codes:
(a) Only 2 correct
(b) Only 1 wrong
(c) Both are wrong
48. Choose the following statements regarding the service:
1. Foreign exchange services are provided by many banks and
specialist foreign exchange brokers around the world.
2. Investment management - the term usually given to describe
companies which run collective investment funds.
Answer the statements with the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both are wrong
1. Insurance brokerage - Insurance brokers shop for insurance
(generally corporate property and casualty insurance) on
behalf of customers.
2. Bank cards - include both credit cards and debit cards.
According to the Nilson Report, JP Morgan Chase is the
largest issuer of bank cards.
Answer the correct codes:
(a) Only 1 correct
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Only 2 correct
50. Choose the correct statements from the given options:
1. Teachers received in-service training for elementary education
in 2015-16 even though the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) has
a provision of 20 days of in-service
2. Training for all teachers. Teacher vacancies are also affecting
the quality of education.
Answer the statements with given codes:
(b) Both are wrong
(c) Only 1 correct
(d) Only 2 correct
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
Explanations
1. The industrial sector performance during 2018-19 has improved
as compared to 2017-18. The growth of industry real Gross Value
Added (GVA) was higher at 6.9% in 2018-19 as compared to
5.9% in 2017-18.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP): The industrial growth rate in
terms of Index of Industrial Production (IIP) during 2018-19
stood at 3.6% as compared to 4.4% growth rate in 2017-18.
The moderation in 2018-19 has been mainly due to subdued
manufacturing activities due to slower credit flow to medium and
small industries, reduced lending by NBFCs owing to liquidity
crunch, tapering of domestic demand for key sectors such as
automotive sector, pharmaceuticals, and machinery and
equipment, volatility in international crude oil prices etc.
2. Leather and Footwear:
• India is the second largest producer of footwear, second largest
exporter of leather garments and fifth largest exporter of leather
goods.
• Challenges: The global demand for footwear is moving towards
non-leather footwear, while Indian tax policies favour leather
footwear production.
India faces high tariffs in partner country markets for leather
goods and non-leather footwear.
• A special package of ' 2600 crore under the scheme Indian
Footwear and Accessories Development Programme is being
implemented (2017-20) which has the potential to generate 3.24
lakh new jobs in three years.
3. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MORTH) declared
2018-19 as the ‘Year of Construction’. The major constraints
faced by the sector: Lack of availability of funds for large projects
as well as for maintenance, Lengthy processes in acquisition of
land and payment of compensation to the beneficiaries,
environmental concerns, time and cost overruns due to
implementation and procedural delays Initiatives.
Process streamlining indicating approval authorities with
enhanced delegation of approval limits, putting in place
mechanisms for inter-ministerial coordination, introducing
innovative project financing for leveraging both private and public
funding, streamlining land acquisition processes, Central Road
Fund (CRF) which is a major source of budgetary support for the
Highway sector was replaced by Central Road and Infrastructure
Fund (CRIF).
4. Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous
intermediary merchants and supply houses and not through retail
stores. Some large stores including chain stores are able to buy
directly from the manufacturers. However, most retail stores
procure supplies from an intermediary source. Wholesalers often
extend credit to retail stores to such an extent that the retailer
operates very largely on the wholesaler’s capital.
5. Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny
weather for beach holidays. This is one of the main reasons for
the importance of tourism in Southern Europe and the
Mediterranean lands. The Mediterranean climate offers almost
consistently higher temperatures, than in other parts of Europe,
long hours of sunshine and low rainfall throughout the peak
holiday season. People taking winter holidays have specific
climatic requirements, either higher temperatures than their own
homelands, or snow cover suitable for skiing.
6. The warmer places around the Mediterranean Coast and the
West Coast of India are some of the popular tourist destinations in
the world. Others include winter sports regions, found mainly in
mountainous areas, and various scenic landscapes and national
parks, which are scattered. Historic towns also attract tourists,
because of their monuments, heritage sites and cultural activities.
7. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has
replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the
basis for
Economic growth. Over half of all workers in developed
economies are in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a
very high growth in demand for and consumption of information
based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants,
software developers and statisticians.
Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and
university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres,
accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of
services. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities
can also be outsourced. They are not tied to resources, affected
by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.
8. Opportunities emerging from the Information and Communication
Technology based development is unevenly distributed across the
globe. There are wide ranging economic, political and social
differences among countries. How quickly countries can provide
ICT access and benefits to its citizens is the deciding factor. While
developed countries in general have surged forward, the
developing countries have lagged behind and this is known as the
digital divide. Similarly digital divides exist within countries.
9. Transport is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and
goods from one place to the other using humans, animals and
different kinds of vehicles. Such movements take place over land,
water and air. Roads and railways form part of land transport;
while shipping and waterways and airways are the other two
modes. Pipelines carry materials like petroleum, natural gas, and
ores in liquidities form.
Moreover, transportation is an organised service industry
created to satisfy the basic needs of society. It includes transport
arteries, vehicles to carry people and goods, and the organisation
to maintain arteries, and to handle loading, unloading and
delivery. Every nation has developed various kinds of
transportation for defence purposes. Assured and speedy
transportation, along with efficient communication, promote
cooperation and unity among scattered peoples.
10. Most of the movement of goods and services takes place over
land. In early days, humans themselves were carriers. Have you
ever seen a bride being carried on a palanquin (palki/doli) by four
persons (Kahars in north India)? Later animals were used as
beasts of burden. Have you seen mules, horses and camels,
carrying loads of cargo in rural areas? With the invention of the
wheel, the use of carts and wagons became important. The
revolution in transport came about only after the invention of the
steam engine in the eighteenth century.
11. Roads laid along international boundaries are called border roads.
They play an important role in integrating people in remote areas
with major cities and providing defence. Almost all countries have
such roads to transport goods to border villages and military
camps.
12. Railways are a mode of land transport for bulky goods and
passengers over long distances. The railway gauges vary in
different countries and are roughly classified as broad (more than
1.5 m), standard (1.44 m), metre gauge (1 m) and smaller
gauges.
The standard gauge is used in the U.K. Commuter trains are
very popular in UK, USA, Japan and India. These carry millions of
passengers daily to and fro in the city. There are about 13 lakh km
of railways open for traffic in the world.
13. The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean Sea Route: This sea route
passes through the heart of the Old World and serves more
countries and people than any other route. Port Said, Aden,
Mumbai, Colombo and Singapore are some of the important ports
on this route. The construction of Suez Canal has greatly reduced
the distance and time as compared to the earlier route through the
Cape of Good Hope, which was longer than the route through
Suez Canal.
14. This canal had been constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port
Said in the north and Port Suez in the south linking the
Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. It gives Europe a new
gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea-route
distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape
of Good Hope route. It is a sea-level canal without locks which is
about 160 km and 11 to 15 m deep.
About 100 ships travel daily and each ship takes 10-12 hours
to cross this canal. The tolls are so heavy that some find it
cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the
consequent delay is not important. A railway follows the canal to
Suez, and from Ismailia
There is a branch line to Cairo. A navigable freshwater canal
from the Nile also joins the Suez Canal in Ismailia to supply fresh-
water to Port Said and Suez.
15. This canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific
Ocean in the west. It has been constructed across the Panama
Isthmus between Panama City and Colon by the US government
which purchased 8 km of area on either side and named it the
Canal Zone. The Canal is about 72 km long and involves a very
deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels (26
m up and down) through these locks before entering the Gulf of
Panama. It shortens the distance between New York and San
Francisco by 13,000 km by sea. Likewise the distance between
Western Europe and the West-coast of USA; and North-eastern
and Central USA and East and South-east Asia is shortened. The
economic significance of this Canal is relatively less than that of
the Suez. However, it is vital to the economies of Latin America.

16. Statement I: CORRECT—Telecommunication is the transmission
of signs, signals, messages, words, writings, images and sounds
or information of any nature by wire, radio, optical or other
electromagnetic systems. Telecommunication occurs when the
exchange of information between communication participants
includes the use of technology.
It is transmitted through a transmission media, such as over
physical media, for example, over electrical cable, or via
electromagnetic radiation through space such as radio or light.
Such transmission paths are often divided into communication
channels which afford the advantages of multiplexing. Since the
Latin term communication is considered the social process of
information exchange, the term telecommunications is often used
in its plural form because it involves many different technologies.
Statement II: CORRECT—Early means of communicating over a
distance included visual signals, such as beacons, smoke signals,
semaphore telegraphs, signal flags and optical heliographs. Other
examples of pre-modern long-distance communication included
audio messages such as coded drumbeats, lung-blown horns,
and loud whistles.
20th and 21st century technologies for long-distance
communication usually involve electrical and electromagnetic
technologies, such as telegraph, telephone, and tele printer,
networks, radio, microwave transmission, fibre, and
communications satellites.
17. Statement I: CORRECT—The hospitality industry is a broad
category of fields within the service industry that includes lodging,
food and drink service, event planning, theme parks,
transportation, cruise line, traveling, airline and additional fields
within the tourism industry.
The hospitality industry is an industry that depends on the
availability of leisure time and disposable income. A hospitality
unit such as a restaurant, hotel, or an amusement park consists of
multiple groups such as facility maintenance and direct operations
(servers, housekeepers, porters, kitchen workers, bartenders,
management, marketing, and human resources, etc.).
Statement II: CORRECT—Hospitality industry concentrates on
customer’s satisfaction by creating good services and products
that will meet their needs. This is a very competitive industry since
there can be various types of product and service such as the
diversity of cuisine, dining options, drive-through option, variety of
beverage, different hotel’s themes, etc. Therefore, it is important
for service providers to establish a good relationship with
customers, so that they will come back for more.
Before structuring as an industry, the historical roots of
hospitality was in the western world in the form of social
assistance mainly for Christian pilgrims directed to Rome. For
such a reason, the eldest public hospital in Europe was the
Ospedale di Santo Spirito in Sassia founded in Rome in the
eighth century statement needs clarity.
18. Statement I: CORRECT—Access to health care may vary across
countries, communities, and individuals, influenced by social and
economic conditions as well as health policies. Providing health
care services means “the timely use of personal health services to
achieve the best possible health outcomes”.
Factors to consider in terms of healthcare access include
financial limitations (such as insurance coverage), geographic
barriers (such as additional transportation costs, possibility to take
paid time off of work to use such services), and personal
limitations (lack of ability to communicate with healthcare
providers, poor health literacy, low income). Limitations to health
care services affects negatively the use of medical services,
efficacy of treatments, and overall outcome (well-being, mortality
rates).
Statement II: CORRECT—Health care systems are organisations
established to meet the health needs of targeted populations.
According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), a well-
functioning health care system requires a financing mechanism, a
well- trained and adequately paid workforce, reliable information
on which to base decisions and policies, and well maintained
health facilities to deliver quality medicines and technologies.
19. Statement I: CORRECT—Public health has been defined as “the
science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life and
promoting human health through organised efforts and informed
choices of society, organisations, public and private, communities
and individuals”. Analysing the health of a population and the
threats it faces is the basis for public health. The public can be as
small as a handful of people or as large as a village or an entire
city; in the case of a pandemic it may encompass several
continents.
The concept of health takes into account physical,
psychological and social well-being. As such, according to the
World Health Organisation, it is not merely the absence of disease
or infirmity.
Public health is an interdisciplinary field. For example,
epidemiology, biostatistics and management of health services
are all relevant. Other important subfields include environmental
health, community health, behavioural health, health economics,
public policy, mental health, health education, occupational safety,
gender issues in health, and sexual and reproductive health.
Statement II: coRREcT—Public health aims to improve the quality
of life through prevention and treatment of disease, including
mental health. This is done through the surveillance of cases and
health indicators, and through the promotion of healthy behaviors.
Common public health initiatives include promotion of
handwashing and breastfeeding, delivery of vaccinations, suicide
prevention, and distribution of condoms to control the spread of
sexually transmitted diseases.
20. Statement I: CORRECT—Pharmacy is the science and technique
of preparing, dispensing, and reviewing drugs and providing
additional clinical services. It is a health profession that links
health sciences with pharmaceutical sciences and aims to ensure
the safe, effective, and affordable use of drugs. The professional
practice is becoming more clini-cally oriented as most of the drugs
are now manufactured by pharmaceutical industries. Based on
the setting, the pharmacy is classified as a community or
institutional pharmacy. Providing direct patient care in the
community of institutional pharmacies are considered clinical
pharmacy.
Statement II: CORRECT—The scope of pharmacy practice
includes more traditional roles such as compounding and
dispensing of medications, and it also includes more modern
services related to health care, including clinical services,
reviewing medications for safety and efficacy, and providing drug
information. Pharmacists, therefore, are the experts on drug
therapy and are the primary health professionals who optimize the
use of medication for the benefit of the patients.
21. Statement I: CORRECT—Information technology (IT) is the use
of computers to store, retrieve, transmit, and manipulate data or
information. IT is typically used within the context of business
operations as opposed to personal or entertainment technologies.
IT is considered to be a subset of information and
communications technology (ICT).
An information technology system (IT system) is generally an
information system, a communications system or, more
specifically speaking, a computer system - including all hardware,
software and peripheral equipment - operated by a limited group
of users.
Statement II: coRREcT—Humans have been storing, retrieving,
manipulating, and communicating information since the
Sumerians in Mesopotamia developed writing in about 3000 BC,
but the term information technology in its modern sense first
appeared in a 1958 article published in the Harvard Business
Review; authors Harold J. Leavitt and Thomas L. Whistler
commented that “the new technology does not yet have a single
established name. We shall call it information technology (IT).”
Their definition consists of three categories: techniques for
processing, the application of statistical and mathematical
methods to decision-making, and the simulation of higher-order
thinking through computer programs.
22. Statement I: coRREcT—Waste management (or waste disposal)
are the activities and actions required to manage waste from its
inception to its final disposal. This includes the collection,
transport, treatment and disposal of waste, together with
monitoring and regulation of the waste management process.
Waste can be solid, liquid, or gas and each type has different
methods of disposal and management. Waste management deals
with all types of waste, including industrial, biological and
household. In some cases, waste can pose a threat to human
health.
Waste is produced by human activity, for example, the
extraction and processing of raw materials. Waste management is
intended to reduce adverse effects of waste on human health, the
environment or aesthetics.
Statement II: CORRECT—Waste management practices are not
uniform among countries (developed and developing nations);
regions (urban and rural areas), and residential and industrial
sectors can all take different approaches.
A large portion of waste management practices deal with
municipal solid waste (MSW) which is the bulk of the waste that is
created by household, industrial, and commercial activity.
23. Statement I: coRREcT—Education is the process of facilitating
learning, or the acquisition of knowledge, skills, values, beliefs,
and habits. Educational methods include teaching, training,
storytelling, discussion and directed research. Education
frequently takes place under the guidance of educators, however
learners can also educate themselves. Education can take place
in formal or informal settings and any experience that has a
formative effect on the way one thinks, feels, or acts may be
considered educational. The methodology of teaching is called
pedagogy.
Statement II: CORRECT—Formal education occurs in a
structured environment whose explicit purpose is teaching
students. Usually, formal education takes place in a school
environment with classrooms of multiple students learning
together with a trained, certified teacher of the subject. Most
school systems are designed around a set of values or ideals that
govern all educational choices in that system. Such choices
include curriculum, organisational models, design of the physical
learning spaces (e.g. classrooms), student-teacher interactions,
and methods of assessment, class size, educational activities,
and more.
24. Statement I: CORRECT—A bank is a financial institution that
accepts deposits from the public and creates credit. Lending
activities can be performed either directly or indirectly through
capital markets. Due to their importance in the financial stability of
a country, banks are highly regulated in most countries.
Most nations have institutionalised a system known as
fractional reserve banking under which banks hold liquid assets
equal to only a portion of their current liabilities. In addition to
other regulations intended to ensure liquidity, banks are generally
subject to minimum capital requirements based on an
international set of capital standards, known as the Basel
Accords.
Statement II: CORRECT—Banking in its modern sense evolved in
the 14th century in the prosperous cities of Renaissance Italy but
in many ways was a continuation of ideas and concepts of credit
and lending that had their roots in the ancient world.
In the history of banking, a number of banking dynasties -
notably, the Medicis, the Fuggers, the Welsers, the Berenbergs,
and the Rothschilds - have played a central role over many
centuries. The oldest existing retail bank is Banca Monte dei
Paschi di Siena, while the oldest existing merchant bank is
Berenberg Bank.
25. Statement I: CORRECT—Modern banking practices, including
fractional reserve banking and the issue of banknotes, emerged in
the 17th and 18th centuries. Merchants started to store their gold
with the goldsmiths of London, who possessed private vaults, and
charged a fee for that service.
In exchange for each deposit of precious metal, the goldsmiths
issued receipts certifying the quantity and purity of the metal they
held as a Bailee; these receipts could not be assigned, only the
original depositor could collect the stored goods.
Statement II: CORRECT—Gradually the goldsmiths began to lend
the money out on behalf of the depositor, which led to the
development of modern banking practices; promissory notes
(which evolved into banknotes) were issued for money deposited
as a loan to the goldsmith. The goldsmith paid interest on these
deposits.
Since the promissory notes were payable on demand, and the
advances (loans) to the goldsmith’s customers were repayable
over a longer time period, this was an early form of fractional
reserve banking. The promissory notes developed into an
assignable instrument which could circulate as a safe and
convenient form of money backed by the goldsmith’s promise to
pay, allowing goldsmiths to advance loans with little risk of default.
26. Statement I: CORRECT—Insurance is a means of protection from
financial loss. It is a form of risk management, primarily used to
hedge against the risk of a contingent or uncertain loss.
An entity which provides insurance is known as an insurer,
insurance company, insurance carrier or underwriter. A person or
entity who buys insurance is known as an insured or as a
policyholder. The insurance transaction involves the insured
assuming a guaranteed and known relatively small loss in the
form of payment to the insurer in exchange for the insurer’s
promise to compensate the insured in the event of a covered loss.
Statement II: CORRECT—The insured receives a contract, called
the insurance policy, which details the conditions and
circumstances under which the insurer will compensate the
insured. The amount of money charged by the insurer to the
policyholder for the coverage set forth in the insurance policy is
called the premium.
If the insured experiences a loss which is potentially covered
by the insurance policy, the insured submits a claim to the insurer
for processing by a claims adjuster. The insurer may hedge its
own risk by taking out reinsurance, whereby another insurance
company agrees to carry some of the risk, especially if the
primary insurer deems the risk too large for it to carry.
27. Statement I: CORRECT—The service sector is an important part
of the economy. For example, in Australia in 2007, 85% of all
businesses were in the service sector. In 2009 there were more
than nine million people employed in the service sector in
Australia, which was 86% of all jobs. In India, there has been a
huge growth in service sector businesses which made up 55% of
India’s GDP in 2006—2007. Computer software businesses in
India are increasing at a rate of 35% per year.
Statement II: CORRECT—Many sector businesses focus on what
is called the “knowledge economy”. They need to keep ahead of
other businesses by understanding what their customers want
and being ready to give it to them quickly and at low cost.
28. Statement I: CORRECT—Internet access is plagued by issues
related to quality and reliability, outages, call drops and weak
signals. The current definition of broadband of 512 kbps speed is
inadequate and not in line with the expected rise in demand in the
future. Existing networks have been strained by limited spectrum
availability and usage, affecting the provision of quality services.
Statement II: CORRECT—A significant portion of our population
does not have access to devices such as laptops, computers,
smartphones, etc. Digital literacy in India is estimated to be less
than 10% of the population. Currently, most digital content is in
English. However, a KPMG-11 report suggested that “Nine out of
every ten new internet users in India over the next five years are
likely to be Indian language users”.
29. Statement I: CORRECT—The Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) has identified 302 polluted river stretches on 275 rivers.
The government is aware of this challenge and has launched
National Mission for Clean Ganga to address this concern.
The total polluted riverine length is 12,363 km. Moreover,
Indian cities face a high risk of air pollution. The rise in air
pollution can be attributed to rapid industrialisation, high
urbanisation, increased use of vehicles, uncontrolled burning of
crop residue and emissions from coal power plants and brick
kilns, etc.
Statement II: CORRECT—Forests are critical to achieving
sustainable environmental management. In March 2018, the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the
Draft National Forest Policy, 2018.
The 1894 and 1952 versions of the forest policy largely
focused on the production and revenue generation aspects. The
National Forest Policy of 1988, for the first time, focused on
environmental sustainability. The new National Forest Policy
seeks to increase the sustainability of forest management in India.
30. Statement I: CORRECT—Afforestation should be promoted
aggressively through joint forest management (peoples’
participation) and the involvement of the private sector. Highly
denuded forests and wastelands in the country could be leased
out to the private sector for specified periods for afforestation.
Participation of people, particularly those dependent on forests for
their livelihood, may also be encouraged along with the private
sector.
Statement II: CORRECT—By 2030, 40% of cumulative power
generation capacity installed should be non-fossil fuel based. The
strategies to achieve this are given in the chapter on Energy
Supply and Demand.
Access to low cost finance especially through the Green
Climate Fund should be encouraged. Review all eight national
missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change in the
light of new scientific information and technological advances.
New national missions on wind energy, waste-to-energy and
coastal areas should be developed.
31. Statement I: CORRECT—Trade is essentially buying and selling
of items produced elsewhere. All the services in retail and
wholesale trading or commerce are specifically intended for profit.
The towns and cities where all these works take place are known
us trading centres.
The rise of trading from barter at the local level to money-
exchange of international scale has produced many centres and
institutions such as trading centres or collection and distribution
points.
Statement II: CORRECT—Trading centres may be divided into
rural and urban marketing centres. Rural marketing centres cater
to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres. They serve
as trading centres of the most rudimentary type. Here personal
and professional services are not well-developed.
These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of
these have mandis (wholesale markets) and also retailing areas.
They are not urban centres per se but are significant centres for
making available goods and services which are most frequently
demanded by rural folk.
32. Statement I CORRECT: Retail Trading is the business activity
concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. Most
of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores
solely devoted to selling. Street peddling, handcarts, trucks, door-
to-door, mail-order, telephone, automatic vend- ing machines and
internet are examples of non-store retail trading.
Statement II coRREcT: Wholesale trading constitutes bulk
business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply
houses and not through retail stores. Some large stores including
chain stores are able to buy directly from the manufacturers.
However, most retail stores procure supplies from an
intermediary source. Wholesalers often extend credit to retail
stores to such an extent that the retailer operates very largely on
the wholesaler’s capital.
33. Statement I: coRREcT—Transport is a service or facility by which
people, materials and manufactured goods are physically carried
from one location to another. It is an organised industry created to
satisfy man’s basic need of mobility. Modern society requires
speedy and efficient transport systems to assist in the production,
distribution and consumption of goods. At every stage in this
complex system, the value of the material is significantly
enhanced by transportation.
Statement II: coRREcT—Transport distance can be measured as
km distance or actual distance of route length; time distance or
the time taken to travel on a particular route; and cost distance or
the expense of travelling on a route. In selecting the mode of
transport, distance, in terms of time or cost, is the determining
factor. Isochrones lines are drawn on a map to join places equal
in terms of the time taken to reach them.
34. Statement I: coRREcT—Communication services involve the
transmission of words and messages, facts and ideas. The
invention of writing preserved messages and helped to make
communication dependent on means of transport. These were
actually carried by hand, animals, boat, road, rail and air. That is
why all forms of transport are also referred to as lines of
communication.
Where the transport network is efficient, communications are
easily disseminated. Certain developments, such as mobile
telephony and satellites, have made communications independent
of transport. All forms are not fully disassociated because of the
cheapness of the older systems.
Statement II: coRREcT—The use of telecommunications is linked
to the development of modern technology. It has revolutionised
communications because of the speed with which messages are
sent. The time reduced is from weeks to minutes. Besides, the
recent advancements like mobile telephony have made
communications direct and instantaneous at any time and from
anywhere.
The telegraph, morse code and telex have almost become
things of the past. Radio and television also help to relay news,
pictures, and telephone calls to vast audiences around the world
and hence they are termed as mass media. They are vital for
advertising and entertainment. Newspapers are able to cover
events in all corners of the world. Satellite communi-cation relays
information of the earth and from space. The internet has truly
revolutionised the global communication system.
35. Statement I: coRREcT—Services occur at many different levels.
Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both
industry and people, e.g. the transport systems. Low-order
services, such as grocery shops and laundries, are more common
and widespread than high-order services or more specialised
ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians.
Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford
to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and
the barber do primarily physical labour. Teacher, lawyers,
physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour.
Statement II: coRREcT—Many services have now been
regulated.
Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining
firefighting departments and supplying or supervising education
and customer-care are among the important services most often
supervised or performed by governments or companies.
State and union legislation have established corporations to
supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport,
telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional
services are primarily health care, engineering, law and
management.
The location of recreational and entertainment services
depends on the market. Multiplexes and restaurants might find
location within or near the Central Business District (CBD),
whereas a golf course would choose a site where land costs are
lower than in the CBD.
36. Statement I: coRREcT—Tourism is travel undertaken for
purposes of recreation rather than business. It has become the
world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs (250
million) and total revenue (40% of the total GDP). Besides, many
local persons are employed to provide services like
accommodation, meals, transport, entertainment and special
shops serving the tourists.
Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail
trading, and craft industries (souvenirs). In some regions, tourism
is seasonal because the vacation period is dependent on
favourable weather conditions, but many regions attract visitors all
the year round.
Statement II: CORRECT—The warmer places around the
Mediterranean Coast and the West Coast of India are some of the
popular tourist destinations in the world. Others include winter
sports regions, found mainly in mountainous areas, and various
scenic landscapes and national parks, which are scattered.
Historic towns also attract tourists, because of the monument,
heritage sites and cultural activities.
37. Statement I: CORRECT—Quaternary activities involve some of
the following: the collection, production and dissemination of
information or even the production of information. Quaternary
activities centre around research, development and may be seen
as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge
and technical skills.
Statement II: CORRECT—The highest level of decision makers or
policy makers perform quinary activities. These are subtly
different from the knowledge based industries that the quinary
sector in general deals with. Outsourcing has resulted in the
opening up of a large number of call centres in India, China,
Eastern Europe, Israel, Philippines and Costa Rica.
It has created new jobs in these countries. Outsourcing is
coming to those countries where cheap and skilled workers are
available. These are also out-migrating countries. With the work
available though outsourcing, the migration in these countries
may come down. Outsourcing countries are facing resistance
from job-seeking youths in their respective countries.
38. Statement I: CORRECT—Opportunities emerging from the
Information and Communication Technology based development
is unevenly distributed across the globe. There are wide ranging
economic, political and social differences among countries. How
quickly countries can provide ICT access and benefits to its
citizens is the deciding factor. While developed countries in
general have surged forward, the developing countries have
lagged behind and this is known as the digital divide. Similarly
digital divides exist within countries.
Statement II: CORRECT—Quinary activities are services that
focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new
and existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation
of new technologies. Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions,
they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector
representing special and highly paid skills of senior business
executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and
legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure of
advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.
39. Statement I: CORRECT—Human beings have evolved different
methods of communication over time. In earlier times, the
messages were delivered by beating the drum or hollow tree
trunks, giving indications through smoke or fire or with the help of
fast runners. Horses, camels, dogs, birds and other animals were
also used to send messages. Initially, the means of
communication were also the means of transportation. Invention
of postoffice, telegraph, printing press, telephone, satellite, etc has
made the communication much faster and easier. Development in
the field of science and technology has significantly contributed in
bringing about revolution in the field of communication.
Statement II: CORRECT—People use different modes of
communication to convey the messages. On the basis of scale
and quality, the mode of communication can be divided into
following categories: Personal Communication System and Mass
Communication System.
40. Statement I: CORRECT—Among all the personal communication
system internet is the most effective and advanced one. It is
widely used in urban areas. It enables the user to establish direct
contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge
and information. It is increasingly used for e-commerce and
carrying out money transactions.
The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with
detailed information on various items. The network through
internet and e-mail provides an efficient access to information at a
comparatively low cost. It enables us with the basic facilities of
direct communication. You might have noticed the proliferation of
cyber cafes in urban areas.
Statement II: CORRECT—Radio broadcasting started in India in
1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay. Since then, it gained
immense popularity and changed the sociocultural life of people.
Within no time, it made a place in every household of the country.
Government took this opportunity and brought this popular mode
of communication under its control in 1930 under the Indian
Broadcasting System. It was changed to All India Radio in 1936
and to Akashwani in 1957.
All India Radio broadcasts a variety of programmes related to
information, education and entertainment. Special news bulletins
are also broadcast at specific occasions like session of parliament
and state legislatures.
41. Statement I: CORRECT—Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) is pursuing a project to support ASEAN Member states
including Myanmar to receive and process data from Indian
remote sensing satellites (Resourcesat-2 and Oceansat-2) and
also to provide training in space science, technology and
applications for the benefit of the ASEAN member countries.
In the case of Satellite Launching, as of March 2017, PSLV
had successfully launched 254 satellites. This includes 37
National Satellites, 8 student satellites built by
universities/academic institutions, one re-entry mission and 209
foreign satellites from 29 countries.
Statement II: CORRECT—Foreign exchange earnings of India
from the export of satellite launch services increased noticeably in
2015-16 and 2016-17 to ' 394 crore and ' 275 crore from ' 149
crore in 2014-15.
Consequently, India’s share in global satellite launch services
revenue has also increased to 1.1% in 2015-16 from 0.3% in
2014-15. In future, Antrix foresees greater utilisation of PSLV,
GSLV and GSLV-Mk-III launch services by the international
community for launching their Low Earth orbit (LEO) satellites.
42. Statement I: INCORRECT—The service sector is the third of the
three economic sectors of the three- sector theory. The others are
the secondary sector (approximately the same as manufacturing),
and the primary sector (raw materials).
The service sector consists of the production of services
instead of end products. Services (also known as “intangible
goods”) include attention, advice, access, experience, and
affective labour. The production of information has long been
regarded as a service, but some economists now attribute it to a
fourth sector, the quaternary sector.
Statement II: CORRECT—The tertiary sector of industry involves
the provision of services to other businesses as well as final
consumers. Services may involve the transport, distribution and
sale of goods from producer to a consumer, as may happen in
wholesaling and retailing, pest control or entertainment.
The goods may be transformed in the process of providing the
service, as happens in the restaurant industry. However, the focus
is on people interacting with people and serving the customer
rather than transforming physical goods.
43. Statement I: CORRECT—For the last 100 years, there has been
a substantial shift from the primary and secondary sectors to the
tertiary sector in industrialized countries. This shift is called
tertiarisation. The tertiary sector is now the largest sector of the
economy in the Western world, and is also the fastest- growing
sector. In examining the growth of the service sector in the early
nineties, the globalist Kenichi Ohmae noted that:
“In the United States 70% of the workforce works in the
service sector; in Japan, 60%, and in Taiwan, 50%. These are not
necessarily busboys and live-in maids. Many of them are in the
professional category. They are earning as much as
manufacturing workers, and often more.”
Statement II: CORRECT—Economies tend to follow a
developmental progression that takes them from a heavy reliance
on agriculture and mining, toward the development of
manufacturing (e.g. automobiles, textiles, shipbuilding, steel) and
finally towards a more service-based structure. The first economy
to follow this path in the modern world was the United Kingdom.
The speed at which other economies have made the transition to
service-based (or “post-industrial”) economies has increased over
time.
Historically, manufacturing tended to be more open to
international trade and competition than services. However, with
dramatic cost reduction and speed and reliability improvements in
the transportation of people and the communication of
information, the service sector now includes some of the most
intensive international competition, despite residual protectionism.
44. Statement I: INCORRECT—Radio and television programs are
distributed over frequency bands which are highly regulated in the
United States. Such regulation includes determination of the width
of the bands, range, licensing, types of receivers and transmitters
used, and acceptable content.
Cable television programs are often broadcast simultaneously
with radio and television programs, but have a more limited
audience. By coding signals and requiring a cable converter box
at individual recipients’ locations, cable also enables subscription-
based channels and pay-per-view services.
Statement II: CORRECT—A broadcasting organisation may
broadcast several programs simultaneously, through several
channels (frequencies), for example BBC One and Two. On the
other hand, two or more organisations may share a channel and
each use it during a fixed part of the day, such as the Cartoon
Network/Adult Swim. Digital radio and digital television may also
transmit multiplexed programming, with several channels
compressed into one ensemble.
When broadcasting is done via the Internet the term
webcasting is often used. In 2004, a new phenomenon occurred
when a number of technologies combined to produce podcasting.
Podcasting is an asynchronous broadcast/narrowcast medium.
Adam Curry and his associates, the Podshow, are principal
proponents of podcasting.
45. Statement I: coRREcT—Each mass medium has its own content
types, creative artists, technicians, and business models. For
example, the Internet includes blogs, podcasts, web sites, and
various other technologies built atop the general distribution
network. The sixth and seventh media, Internet and mobile
phones, are often referred to collectively as digital media; and the
fourth and fifth, radio and TV, as broadcast media. Some argue
that video games have developed into a distinct mass form of
media.
While a telephone is a two-way communication device, mass
media communicates to a large group. In addition, the telephone
has transformed into a cell phone which is equipped with Internet
access. A question arises whether this makes cell phones a mass
medium or simply a device used to access a mass medium (the
Internet). There is currently a system by which marketers and
advertisers are able to tap into satellites, and broadcast
commercials and advertisements directly to cell phones,
unsolicited by the phone’s user. This transmission of mass
advertising to millions of people is another form of mass
communication.
Statement II: coRREcT—Video games may also be evolving into
a mass medium. Video games (for example massively multiplayer
online role-playing games (MMORPGs), such as RuneScape)
provide a common gaming experience to millions of users across
the globe and convey the same messages and ideologies to all
their users.
Users sometimes share the experience with one another by
playing online. Excluding the Internet however, it is questionable
whether players of video games are sharing a common
experience when they play the game individually. It is possible to
discuss in great detail the events of a video game with a friend
one has never played with, because the experience is identical to
each. The question, then, is whether this is a form of mass
communication.
46. Statement I: coRREcT—Education is the process
offacilitatinglearning, or theacquisition ofknowledge, skills, values,
beliefs, and habits. Educational methods include teaching,
training, storytelling, discussion and directed research. Education
frequently takes place under the guidance of educators, however
learners can also educate themselves. Education can take place
in formal or informal settings and any experience that has a
formative effect on the way one thinks, feels, or acts may be
considered educational. The methodology of teaching is called
pedagogy.
Statement II: CORRECT—Formal education is commonly divided
formally into such stages as preschool or kindergarten, primary
school, secondary school and then college, university, or
apprenticeship.
A right to education has been recognised by some
governments and the United Nations. In most regions, education
is compulsory up to a certain age. There is a movement for
education reform, and in particular for evidence-based education.
47. Statement I: coRREcT—Primary (or elementary) education
consists of the first five to seven years of formal, structured
education. In general, primary education consists of six to eight
years of schooling starting at the age of five or six, although this
varies between, and sometimes within countries. Globally, around
89% of children aged 6 to 12 are enrolled in primary education,
and this proportion is rising.
Under the Education for All programs driven by UNESCO,
most countries have committed to achieving universal enrollment
in primary education by 2015, and in many countries, it is
compulsory. The division between primary and secondary
education is somewhat arbitrary, but it generally occurs at about
11 or 12 years of age.
Statement II: coRREcT—Some education systems have separate
middle schools, with the transition to the final stage of secondary
education taking place at around the age of fourteen. Schools that
provide primary education, are mostly referred to as primary
schools or elementary schools. Primary schools are often
subdivided into infant schools and junior school.
In India, for example, compulsory education spans over 12
years, with 8 years of elementary education, 5 years of primary
schooling and three years of upper primary schooling. Various
states in the republic of India provide 12 years of compulsory
school education based on a national curriculum framework
designed by the National Council of Educational Research and
Training.
48. Statement I: CORRECT—Foreign exchange services are
provided by many banks and specialist foreign exchange brokers
around the world. foreign exchange services include:
• Currency exchange - where clients can purchase and sell
foreign currency banknotes.
• Wire transfer - where clients can send funds to international
banks abroad.
• Remittance - where clients that are migrant workers send
money back to their home country.
London handled 36.7% of global currency transactions in 2009 -
an average daily turnover of $1.85 trillion - with more US dollars
traded in London than New York, and more Euros traded than in
every other city in Europe combined.
Statement II: CORRECT—Investment management - the term
usually given to describe companies which run collective
investment funds. Also refers to services provided by others,
generally registered with the Securities and Exchange
Commission as Registered Investment Advisors. Investment
banking financial services focus on creating capital through client
investments.
• Hedge fund management - Hedge funds often employ the
services of “prime brokerage” divisions at major investment
banks to execute their trades.
• Custody services - the safe-keeping and processing of the
world’s securities trades and servicing the associated portfolios.
Assets under custody in the world are approximately $100
trillion.
New York City is the largest centre of investment services,
followed by London.
49. Statement I: CORRECT—Insurance brokerage- Insurance
brokers shop for insurance (generally corporate property and
casualty insurance) on behalf of customers. Recently a number of
websites have been created to give consumers basic price
comparisons for services such as insurance, causing controversy
within the industry.
• Insurance underwriting - Personal lines insurance underwriters
actually underwrite insurance for individuals, a service still
offered primarily through agents, insurance brokers, and stock
brokers. Underwriters may also offer similar commercial lines of
coverage for businesses. Activities include insurance and
annuities, life insurance, retirement insurance, health insurance,
and property insurance and casualty insurance.
• Finance and Insurance - A service still offered primarily at asset
dealerships. The F&I manager encompasses the financing and
insuring of the asset which is sold by the dealer. F&I is often
called “the second gross” in dealerships who have adopted the
model
• Reinsurance - Reinsurance is insurance sold to insurers
themselves, to protect them from catastrophic losses.
The United States, followed by Japan and the United Kingdom
are the largest insurance markets in the world.
Statement II: CORRECT—Bank cards - include both credit cards
and debit cards. According to the Nilson Report, JP Morgan
Chase is the largest issuer of bank cards.
• Credit card machine services and networks - Companies which
provide credit card machine and payment networks call
themselves “merchant card providers”.
• Intermediation or advisory services - These services involve
stockbrokers (private client services). Stock brokers assist
investors in buying or selling shares. Primarily internet-based
companies are often referred to as discount bro-kerages,
although many now have branch offices to assist clients. These
brokerages primarily target individual investors. Full service and
private client firms primarily assist and execute trades for clients
with large amounts of capital to invest, such as large
companies, wealthy individuals, and investment management
funds.
• Private equity - Private equity funds are typically closed-end
funds, which usually take controlling equity stakes in businesses
that are either private, or taken private once acquired. Private
equity funds often use leveraged buyouts (LBOs) to acquire the
firms in which they invest. The most successful private equity
funds can generate returns significantly higher than provided by
the equity markets.
50. Statement I: CORRECT—Teachers received inservice training for
elementary education in 2015-16 even though the Sarva Shiksha
Abhiyan (SSA) has a provision of 20 days of in-service training for
all teachers. The BRCs and CRCs are primarily involved in
administrative work and provide very little resource support to
schools.
In 2017, Section 23(2) of the RTE Act was amended to ensure
that all teachers acquire minimum qualifications prescribed under
the Act by 31 March 2019. To assess the performance and
progress of teachers, the National Council of Educational
Research and Training (NCERT) had developed performance
indicators (PINDICS) in 2013. Fourteen states have adopted or
adapted the PINDICS and two more have initiated its
implementation thus far.
Statement II: CORRECT—Teacher vacancies are also affecting
the quality of education. Out of the total sanctioned posts of 51.03
lakhs, the number of working teachers is 42.03 lakhs, leading to
vacancies of 9 lakh teachers in schools, of which 4.2 lakh teacher
vacancies are in SSA schools.
Thirty-three per cent of schools do not meet the pupil-teacher
ratio. Ironically, despite the overall shortage of teachers, there are
also 2.91 lakh surplus teachers across the country because of an
imbalance in regional demand-supply.
PART-III:
PRACTICE TEST PAPERS
SET 1
Practice Test Paper

1. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer
using the code given below:
1. A galaxy is a huge mass of stars, nebulae and inter-stellar
material.
2. Each galaxy comprises an average of 100 billion stars.
3. Galaxies are the major building blocks of the universe.
4. Galaxies may be regular or irregular in shape.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
2. Examine the following statements and select the correct answer
1. A dark patch on the surface of the Sun is known as a sunspot.
2. Sunspots appear as dark areas because they are about
1500°C cooler than the surrounding chromospheres.
3. The individual sunspot may last from a few days to a few
months.
4. The number of visible sunspots fluctuate in an 11-year cycle.
Codes:
1. The outer most layer of the Earth is known as crust.
2. The Earth crust is above the Mohorovicic (Moho) discontinuity.
3. Earth crust represents less than 1 per cent of the total volume
of the Earth.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
4. The sea of Marmara joins:
(a) Black Sea with the Sea of Azov.
(b) Black Sea with the Aegean Sea.
(c) Mediterranean Sea with the Adriatic Sea.
(d) North Sea with the Baltic.
5. Which one of the following is not correct about igneous rocks?
(a) Igneous rocks are not fossiliferous.
(b) Igneous rocks consist of silicate minerals.
(c) Igneous rocks are rich in natural gas.
(d) Igneous rocks are rich in metallic minerals.
1. The smaller planets nearest the Sun are formed of minerals
and metals.
2. The outer planets were formed at lower temperatures and
consist of swirling clouds of gases.
Codes:
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
7. The term Fiord stands for:
(a) A submerged river valley
(b) An emerged river valley
(c) A submerged glacial valley
(d) An emerged glacial valley
8. The Gutenberg Discontinuity separates:
(a) Mantle and core
(b) The outer core and mantle
(c) The inner core and outer core
(d) The lower crust and mantle
1. Coral reef is characterized by the presence of a lagoon.
2. The seaward slope of a barrier reef is relatively steep.
3. Most barrier reefs are up to one kilometre in width.
4. The Great Barrier Reef forms the largest stretch of reefs in the
world.
10. Which one of the following statements is not correct about
‘badland’ ?
(a) Badland is rugged topography, usually of relatively low relief.
(b) Badland is associated with wet lands.
(c) Badland is devoid of vegetation.
(d) Badland is associated with arid and semiarid region.
1. Granite is a massive homogeneous rock composed of feldspar,
quartz and mica.
2. Basalt is a fine grained rock composed mostly of feldspar,
olivine and pyroxene.
3. Sandstone is composed mostly of quartz with varying amounts
of small rock fragments, feldspar and clay minerals.
4. Limestone is composed of calcite, clay and some impurities.
Codes:
1. Igneous rocks are classified on the basis of texture and
composition.
2. The major kinds of igneous rocks are basalt, gabbro, andsite,
rhyolite and granite.
1. The diffused light after the sunset is known as twilight.
2. The equatorial region has the shortest duration of twilight.
3. Twilight at Mumbai is longer than that of Kolkata.
Codes:
14. The ideal conditions for the origin of temperate cyclones are
found around the:
(a) South of Iceland
(b) West of Greenland
(c) South of New Foundland
(d) West of Canary Islands
15. Consider the following statements about hurricane and select the
correct answer using the code given below:
1. It is a tropical cyclone.
2. The wind speed is generally less than 119 km per hour.
3. It has fully organised and intensified inward- spiralling rain-
bands.
Codes:
16. Consider the following statements about the temperate cyclones
and select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Temperate cyclones are gigantic in size.
2. Their isobars are elliptical in shape.
3. The warm air mass moves faster than the cold air mass.
4. Temperate cyclones come in the form of a family.
Codes:
17. Consider the following facts and select the correct answer using
the code given below:
1. The deep water of oceans is characterized by a salinity of
34.65% (per thousand).
2. The temperature of deep oceans is about -0.5°C.
3. The density of deep water of the oceans is 1.0279.
Codes:
1. Atoll is a ring-shaped island of coral reefs.
2. A coral reef surrounding an island or lying parallel to the shore
of a continent, separated from land by a deep lagoon, is known
as a barrier reef.
3. A reef attached to the shore of a continent or island is called a
fringing reef.
4. Coral formations are not found along the eastern coast of
Brazil.
Codes:
19. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) Corals are not found in the areas of algae.
(b) Algae photosynthesizes some of the food of the coral.
(c) Corals provide some nutrients for algae.
(d) Corals provide shelter for algae.
20. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Young seabed at the active spreading centre of an ocean is
known as oceanic ridge.
(b) An extensive stationary heat source in the Earth’s mantle is
known as hot spot.
(c) Guyot is flat-topped, submerged inactive volcano.
(d) Evaporites are found only in the pacific ocean.
1. The high sea waves generated by the earthquakes are known
as tsunami.
2. The tsunami waves travel at a speed of more than 100 km/hr.
3. The height of the tsunami waves may be up to 30 m.
4. The highest sea waves were generated by the Tohoku
earthquake of Japan.
Codes:
1. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge was discovered by Meteor in 1920.
2. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge was discovered with the help of Echo-
sounder.
3. The experts of Challenger Expedition discovered that the
deepest parts of the ocean lie away from the crest of the
oceanic ridge.
Codes:
1. The web that links all organisms with their physical
environment is known as biosphere.
2. The biosphere extends from the bottom of the ocean trenches
up to 8 km above the sea level.
3. Biosphere is synonymous with ecosphere.
4. Biosphere is found only on Earth in the Solar System.
Codes:
1. The greatest pool of carbon is in the ocean.
2. Hydrogen, oxygen and carbon constitute more than 99% of the
biomass of Earth.
Codes:
1. Plants that are adapted to drought conditions are termed as
xerophytes.
2. Plants lasting for a very short time are known as ephemeral.
3. A plant adapted to growing in saline conditions is known as
halophyte.
4. Plants and trees growing in clusters are known as gregarious.
Codes:
26. Which one of the following statements is not correct:
(a) There are more cold water coral reef than tropical reef.
(b) Cold water corals can survive up to 5°C temperature.
(c) Cold water corals are numerous along the Scandinavian
countries.
(d) Cold water coral reefs are not found along the western coast
of North America.
27. Consider the following about the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972
1. The Act has been adopted by all states except the State of
Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The State of Jammu and Kashmir has a similar law enacted for
the purpose of wildlife protection.
3. The operation of the Act is mandatory in the Union Territories.
4. The Act was amended in 1982 and 1993. Codes:
28. Consider the following statements about Dal Lake of Kashmir and
select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. More than one lakh people are residing in Dal Lake.
2. Dal Lake is a favourite tourist destination.
3. The ecosystems of Dal Lake are degrading because of
anthropogenic factors.
4. Use of polybags is banned in Dal Lake. Codes:
1. In India the National Wetland Conservation Programme
(NWCP) was started in 1986.
2. The objective of conservation of wetlands is to prevent their
further degradation.
3. The objectives of the wetland conservation is to provide
employment to the local communities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Most of the coral formations are found between the Tropic of
Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
2. According to UNO, there are more cold water coral reefs in the
world than tropical warm water reef.
3. The largest cold water coral formation lies in the South Pacific
Ocean.
(c) 1, 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct
31. Consider the following statements about the cold desert biome:
1. Dry atmosphere
2. Night temperature falling below 0°C in winter season
3. Snowfall in the night throughout the year
4. Short growing season
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Sacred groves comprise of patches of forests from a minimum
one acre to several acres.
2. The sacred groves are dedicated to local folk deities.
3. The sanctity of sacred groves varies from one grove to
another.
4. People believe that any kind of disturbance will offend the
deity, causing diseases and natural calamities.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. The main functions of Biosphere Reserves are:
1. To ensure the conservation of landscapes, ecosystems,
species and genetic variations.
2. To understand the patterns and processes of functioning of
ecosystems.
3. To monitor the natural and human-caused changes on spatial
and temporal scales.
Codes:
1. The buffer zone of a Biosphere Reserve surrounds core zone.
2. Limited tourism and grazing of cattle are permitted in the buffer
zone.
3. Cultivation of crops and intensive recreation are permitted in
the transitional zone.
Codes:
1. Oil spills at sea decrease the oxygen level in sea water.
2. Oil spill harms the organisms.
3. Crude oil is denser than water.
Codes:
1. Human activity have extensively altered the global
environment during the last few decades.
2. The global warming is changing the biogeochemical cycles.
3. The effect of climate change is significant in the developed and
developing countries.
4. The global warming has positive ecosystem restoration in
Japan, Thailand and USA.
1. Earthquakes are rated on intensity scale and magnitude scale.
2. The intensity scale was developed in 1902 by Mercalli in 1902.
3. The magnitude scale was developed by Richter in 1935.
4. In the Richter Scale, each whole number represents a 10-fold
increase in the measured wave amplitude.
Codes:
1. Anything that fulfills the need of human beings is known as a
resource.
2. Resource may be natural or man-made.
3. Coal is not a resource for the Eskimos of Tundra.
4. Resource may be renewable or nonrenewable.
Codes:
39. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ellesemere Island - North Atlantic Ocean
(b) Falkland Islands - South Atlantic Ocean
(c) Mindanao Island - North Pacific Ocean
(d) Victoria Island - South Pacific Ocean
1. The highest temperature in North America was recorded in the
Death Valley.
2. The lowest temperature in North America was recorded in
Northice (Greenland).
3. The highest point of North America is Mt. Mckinley.
Codes:
1. Nomadic herding is a more advanced economic activity than
gathering and hunting.
2. Herding activity encompasses the second largest territory on
Earth.
3. The nomadic herders keep yaks, reindeer, sheep and goats.
Codes:
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
1. Humans are continuously evaluating physical environment.
2. Any thing becomes a resource only if humans perceive it as
useful and fulfill the needs of man.
3. Nuclear power does not pollute, but it is not a safe and
inexpensive resource of energy.
4. There are more than 500 nuclear reactors in the world.
Codes:
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
List I List II
(River Dam) (Country)
A. Grand Dixence 1. California (USA)
B. Nurek 2. Italy
C. Oroville 3. Switzerland
D. Vajont 4. Tajikistan
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
1. The smelting of iron has improved significantly during the last
few decades.
2. The change in smelting technology has made great impact on
the location of iron and steel industry.
3. The location of iron and steel industries has transformed the
industrial regions.
Codes:
45. Consider the following statements about plantation agriculture
1. The size of farms is large.
2. Heavy application of fertilisers and insecticides.
3. It is based on exploitation of labour.
4. In most plantation estates, there are factories to process the
product.
Codes:
46. Consider the following statements about the truck farming and
1. The size of holdings is small.
2. It is capital intensive.
3. It is done on scientific lines.
4. It is mainly practised in the developing countries.
Codes:
1. USA is the leading producer of cotton in the world.
2. USA is the leading exporter of cotton in the world.
3. Zimbabwe is the leading producer of copper in the world.
4. India is the leading producer of sugarcane in the world.
Which of the following statement/statements is/ are the correct?
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) 1, 2, and 4 are correct
1. International agreement is the best way to solve those
environmental problems that transcend national boundaries.
2. The World Commission on Environment and Development
(1987) has advocated for the creation of International
Institutions and Policies for the Conservation of Environment.
3. The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987.
4. The main objective of the Montreal Protocol was to reduce
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the environment.
Codes:
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
49. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the
regions where:
(a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet.
(b) Rivers drain out large amount of fresh water into the sea.
(c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet.
(d) Continental shelf is undulating.
1. Roads are characterised by a very wide range of traffic.
2. Americans were the pioneer builders of metalled roads.
3. USA has the longest National Highways in the world.
Codes:
1. Suez Canal is known as the ‘Life Line of Europe’.
2. Soo Canal connects Lake Superior with Lake Huron.
3. Kiel Canal connects Gulf of Bothnia with the Baltic Sea.
4. Welland Canal connects Lake Erie with Lake Ontario.
Codes:
1. China is the leading producer of rice in the world.
2. Australia is the leading producer of wheat in the world.
3. France is the leading producer of sugarbeet in the world.
Codes:
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Karaganda Basin - Coal
(b) Pechora Basin - Copper
(c) Ural Mountains - Iron ore
(d) Isa Mountains - Lead
using the code that follows:
1. Poverty line is the line which indicates the level of purchasing
power required to satisfy the minimum needs of a person.
2. Poverty line represents the capacity to satisfy the minimum
level of human needs.
3. The purchasing power can be expressed in the form of
average monthly expenditure.
Codes:
code that follows:
List II
List I
(Mediterranean Vegetation)
(Country)
A. Chaparral 1. Australia
B. Mallee 2. California (USA)
C. Maquis 3. Chile
D. Mattoral 4. France
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
code given below:
List I List II
(Temperate Grassland) (Country/Region)
A. Downs 1. South Africa
B. Pampas 2. Eurasia
C. Steppes 3. Argentina
D. Velds 4. Australia
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
1. Chaparral vegetation is found in California.
2. Mediterranean scrubs in France are known as Maquis.
Codes:
(d) None of the two is correct
58. Consider the following statements about the ‘Age and Sex
Pyramids’ of the world population:
1. Expanding population have a high percentage in the pre-
reproductive age group.
2. Stable population has relatively equal reproductive and pre-
3. Diminishing population has a low percentage in the pre-
Codes:
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
1. Races are differentiated on the basis of inherited
characteristics.
2. Facial features and hair type are the best guides to a race.
Codes:
60. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic(s) of equatorial
forests?
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a
continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numereous varieties of epiphytes Select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. A policy that endorses the right of ethnic groups to remain
distinct rather than to be assimilated into dominant society is
known as multiculturalism.
2. A secular state is opposite to theocracy. Codes:
1. Briawali (Bikaner) recorded the highest temperature in India
2. Dras (Kargil-Ladakh) recorded the lowest temperature in India
3. Mawsynram records the highest amount of average annual
rainfall in India
4. K2 is the highest peak of India Codes:
63. Which one of the following series is not correctly matched?
Series State
(a) Bijwar Series - Madhya Pradesh
(b)Champion Series - Andhra Pradesh
(c)Damuda Series - Jharkhand
(d)Rialo Series - Delhi
1. Lakes are generally static body of water.
2. Lakes are surrounded by land on all sides.
3. Caspian Sea is the largest lake in the world
4. Chilka is the largest lake in India Codes:
Lake State
(a) Mansar - Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Kanjili - Punjab
(c) Rudrasagar - Uttarakhand
(d) Sasthamkotta - Kerala
1. Canes are used for making ropes, mats and baskets.
2. Tendu leaves are used for making bidis.
3. Assam is the largest producer of tendu leaves.
Codes:
67. River Narmada flows to the west, while most other peninsular
rivers flow to the east. Why?
1. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
2. It occupies a linear rift valley.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
1. The occurrence of El-Nino and La Nina are measured by
Southern Oscillation and Sea Surface Temperature.
2. The production of cereals in India declines in the year of La
Nina.
Codes:
1. The Himalayan Front Fault separates the Northern Plains of
India from the Shiwalik.
2. The Main Boundary Fault separates the Lesser Himalayas
from the Shiwalik.
3. The Main Central Thrust separates the Lesser Himalayas from
the Greater Himalayas.
4. The Great Boundary Fault separates the Aravallis from the
Vindhyan Mountain.
Codes:
1. Geologically, India was a part of the Gondwanaland.
2. Tamil Nadu has some of the oldest rocks of the world.
3. Vindhyan Ranges is rich in coal deposits.
4. Bababudan is rich in iron ore.
Codes:
1. About 50 per cent of India’s population is concentrated in about
10 per cent of its area.
2. India’s 31 per cent population is urban.
3. India’s over 65 per cent urban population is living in Class I
city.
Codes:
72. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) River Bhima originates from Maharashtra.
(b) River Ghataprabha originates from Karnataka.
(c) Mandvi is the main river of Goa.
(d) River Amravati originates from Tamil Nadu.
1. The decadal growth of population between 2001-11 has
registered the sharpest decline since Independence.
2. India’s population was over 1.21 billion in 2011.
3. Between 2001-2011 the male population grew more than the
female population.
Codes:
1. The population of children (0-6 years) has recorded a decline
in the 2011 Census.
2. The population of people aged 60 and over in 2011 was more
than 8 per cent.
3. India’s population over 60 years is declining.
Codes:
1. The literacy rate taking into account the total population in the
denominator is termed as ‘crude literacy rate’.
2. The literacy rate calculated taking into account the 7 years and
above population is known as ‘effective literacy rate’.
Codes:
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) None of the two
1. The percentage of illiterate families has decreased in 2011 as
compared to 2001.
2. The percentage of illiterate families is higher in Goa as
compared to Kerala.
Codes:
77. Consider the following statements about the population of India
(Census 2011):
1. The birth rate per 1000 population in India is 19.
2. The deaths per 1000 population in India is 6.
3. The population in India below 15 years of age is 29 per cent.
4. The population above 65 years in India is about 8 per cent.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The average annual water availability in India is about 1869
billion cubic metres (BCM).
2. About 85 per cent of the water resources is used for irrigation.
3. The per capita availability of water is estimated to be 2820 m3.
Codes:
79. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) About 90 per cent of coal production in India is of non-coking
coal.
(b) The best quality of coal in India is found in the Raniganj
mines.
(c) Neyveli (Tamil Nadu) has the largest deposits of lignite.
(d) Singrauli coal mines lie in Madhya Pradesh.
80. Consider the following statements about the objectives of the
Eleventh Five Year Plan and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. To accelerate growth rate of GDP from 10 to 12 per cent.
2. To increase agricultural growth rate to 4 per cent.
3. To create 58 million new employment opportunities.
4. To reduce educated unemployment rate to below 5 per cent.
Codes:
1. Coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity are the
conventional sources of energy.
2. Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal and biogas are the non-
conventional sources of energy.
3. About 67 per cent of the total energy consists of coal energy.
4. Most of the coal of India has more ash content.
Codes:
1. Races are differentiated on the basis of inherited physical
characteristics.
2. It is always difficult to draw a hard and fast line between the
races.
3. The skin colour is a major differentiating factor of race.
4. The Indian ethnic groups have a great similarity in colour of
skin.
Codes:
1. In India, productivity of sugarcane is 50 per cent more than
that of Brazil.
2. In Egypt, productivity of rice is three times more than that of
India.
3. In U.K., productivity of wheat is three times more than that of
India.
4. In Argentina, productivity of maize is three times more than
that of India.
Codes:
84. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the
New Agricultural Policy of India 2000?
(a) Private sector investment in agriculture would be encouraged.
(b) Protection will be given to farmers against adverse effects of
implementation of WTO Agreement.
(c) Restrictions would be imposed on the movement of
agricultural commodities from one state to another state.
(d) Protection of farmers against fluctuation of prices.
1. Crops which are grown to make the field clean are known as
‘cole crops’.
2. Crops which are grown to benefit each other are known as
‘complementary crops’.
3. Crops which produce liquid energy (ethanol) are known as
‘energy crops’.
Codes:
1. The Dravidians most likely established irrigation farming in
Indus Valley.
2. The Dravidians entered the sub-continent of India from the
eastern parts of the Mediterranean Sea.
Codes:
1. Cotton textile is the largest industry in India
2. Cotton textile contributes about 35% of the total industrial
production.
3. Cotton textile provides employment to about 18% of the
workforce.
4. About 17% of India’s total exports consist of textile.
Codes:
88. Consider the following statements about the small and medium
enterprises and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. The small and medium industries contribute 8 per cent of the
GDP.
2. They contribute 45 per cent of manufactured output.
3. They constitute 40 per cent of the export.
Codes:
89. Consider the following statements about the World Trade
Agreement on agriculture and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. It contains provisions on market access, domestic support and
export subsidies.
2. It includes tariff reduction, such as quotas, variable levies,
minimum import prices and discretionary restraint agreements
Codes:
90. Which one of the following is not correct about the automobile
industry in India?
(a) Hindustan Motors Ltd. was established in 1951 near Mumbai.
(b) The Premier Automobiles Ltd. was established in India in
1947.
(c) The passenger cars were delicensed in 1993.
(d) The automobile industry was delicensed in 1991.
91. Consider the following statements about the iron and steel
industry:
1. Iron and steel are capable of more extensive application than
any other metal.
2. Iron and steel have great strength and toughness.
3. Iron and steel have low elasticity.
4. Iron ore has relatively high ductility.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
1. Petroleum supplies more than half of the world’s energy
requirements.
2. It is a raw material for a number of industries.
3. It provides fuel for heat and lighting.
4. It occurs in great abundance.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. A well-knit and coordinated system of transport plays an
important role in the sustained economic growth of the country.
2. The principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers
is railways.
3. The first railway line was developed between Bombay and
Thane in 1950.
Codes:
(a) India has the largest road system in the world.
(b) The length of National Highways/ Expressways in India is
over 90 thousand km.
(c) The length of unmetalled roads in India is more than that of
metalled roads.
(d) Construction and maintenance of National Highways is the
responsibility of the Central Government.
(a) Huskies are an important form of transport in the polar
regions.
(b) Yaks are more efficient in the rugged terrain.
(c) Llama is well adapted as a pack animal in the Rockies
Mountains.
(d) Buffaloes and elephants are important in tropical regions.
1. An assemblage of minerals bound together is known as a rock.
2. All the rocks have two or more than two minerals.
3. Rock may be as hard as granite or may be soft as chalk.
4. Coal is a rock as well as a mineral.
Which of the following statement/statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
97. Consider the following statements about the metamorphic rocks
1. Metamorphic rocks are those rocks that have been
recrystallized in a solid state.
2. Metamorphic rocks are the results of changes in temperature,
pressure, or the composition of pore fluids.
3. Gneiss is a fine grained metamorphic rock. Codes:
1. Climate is the single most important factor influencing
weathering.
2. Chemical weathering is significant in polar regions.
3. Chemical weathering results into thick regolith.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The hunters and gatherers society is sustainable on great
diversity of plants and animals.
2. The ‘agricultural revolution’ occurred during the Holocene
Period.
3. The agricultural revolution was started in the Nile Valley.
4. The agricultural revolution facilitated sedentary settlements
and complex social system.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. A number of crops required for food and industrial uses can be
produced efficiently in tropical and subtropical areas.
2. The Europeans started the plantation agriculture in the tropical
and subtropical areas.
3. Plantation crops include cotton, sugarcane and groundnuts.
4. Plantation agriculture requires large scale local cheap labour.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
101. Which one of the following is not the function of Biosphere
Reserves?
1. To ensure the conservation of landscapes, ecosystems,
species and genetic variations.
2. To understand the patterns and processes of functioning of
ecosystems.
3. To promote eco-tourism.
4. To monitor the natural and human-caused changes on spatial
and temporal basis.
Which of the above statement/statements is/ are correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
102. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
1. World Heritage Sites are designated as having outstanding
universal value under the convention of the World Cultural and
National Heritage.
2. The UNESCO Convention 1972 provides a framework for the
designation of World Heritage Sites.
3. The first list of World Heritage Sites was published in 1978.
4. The Agra City Development is following the UNESCO
guidelines for the conservation of Taj Mahal as a World
Heritage Site.
Codes:
1. The Biological Diversity Agreement-1992 is the first
international attempt to protect earth’s biodiversity.
2. The Biodiversity Agreement was signed by all the participating
countries of the earth Summit.
3. The Climate Change Framework is a legally binding
agreement in which the global warming was addressed on an
international scale.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Mediterranean vegetation is known as sclerophyllous.
2. The trees of the Mediterranean biome have well developed
roots.
3. The Mediterranean vegetation has deep roots and hard leaves.
4. The Mediterranean vegetation has even and high branches.
Codes:
105. With reference to an initiative called the ‘The Economics of
Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB), which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic
Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the
economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It represents an approach that can help decision-makers
recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystem
and biodiversity.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Climate change is a cumulative impact of the
anthropogenically driven changes on the earth’s surface.
2. The major drivers of climate change are land use changes,
increase in green house gases, nutrient deposition and
introduction of exotic and evasive species.
3. The agricultural production is decreasing because of climate
change.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
107. Consider the following statements about sustainable
agriculture in India:
1. To increase agricultural productivity through biotechnology.
2. Development of Automatic Weather Stations at the Panchayat
Level.
3. To create model villages in dry farming and rain fed areas.
4. Application of insecticides and pesticides. Which of the
following statements are correct?
108. A biome is located only in the northern hemisphere. The
winters are long and cold, the summers are brief and warm,
and precipitated is limited. The natural vegetation is evergreen
forest. Agriculture is very limited. The above characteristics are
found in which of the following biomes?
(a) Mediterranean biome
(b) Taiga forests
(c) Temperate forests
(d) Temperate grasslands
109. The Vulture Breeding Centers are located at:
(a) Solapur
(b) Pinjore
(c) Junagarh
(d) Guwahati
110. Which one of the following countries is most suitable for eco-
tourism?
(a) Brazil
(b) Kenya
(c) Thailand
(d) Zaire
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (c)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a)
76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d)
86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (c)
96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (d)
106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (a)
SET 2
Practice Test Paper

1. The shape of our galaxy is like a flat disc.
2. The dimension of our galaxy is about a hundred thousand light
years.
3. The Sun is about 33,000 light years away from the centre of
the Milky Way.
4. The solar system is about 12 light years across.
Codes:
1. Comets are among the most unpredictable bodies in the solar
system.
2. Comets are made up of frozen gases.
3. Comets follow elongated orbits.
4. Comets are visible only after they have moved within the orbit
of the Saturn.
Codes:
1. The primary seismic waves are analogous to sound waves.
2. The primary waves can travel through the solid, liquid and
gaseous mediums.
3. The speed of primary waves is more in the sedimentary rocks
than that in the granite and basalt.
Codes:
1. The outer zone of the lithosphere is known as crust.
2. The Earth’s crust consist of brittle rocks.
3. The lithosphere is a much thicker zone than the crust.
4. Below the crust is the solid mantle.
Codes:
1. Sedimentary rocks are impervious.
2. The layers of sedimentary rocks may be horizontal or tilted.
3. Sedimentary rocks contain joints.
4. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
Codes:
6. Consider the following statements :
1. A graph of the area of the Earth’s surface above any given
elevation or depth above below the sea level is known as
Hypsographic Curve.
3. A small stationary heat source in the Earth’s mantle is known
as a hot-spot.
4. The zone of ocean in which salinity increases rapidly with
depth is known as halocline.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. The term Hamada stands for:
(a) A coastal lowland eroded by sea waves.
(b) A depositional plain in an arid region.
(c) A flat rocky surface in a desert without superficial matter other
than boulders, etc.
(d) A karst depositional plain.
8. The undulations and configurations that give Earth surface its
texture, the heights and depths of local relief including both
natural and human made features is known as:
(a) Altitude
(b) Hypsographic curve
(c) Topography
(d) Terrain
9. Consider the following statements about the Alpine glaciers and
1. Valley glacier is a subtype of Alpine glaciers.
2. Piedmont glacier is associated with Alpine glaciers.
3. Outlet glacier is a type of valley glacier.
4. Coalesced glacier is one of the types of Alpine glaciers.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 is correct
10. Which one of the following is not correct about the base level?
(a) It is a hypothetical level below which a stream cannot erode.
(b) It is the lowest operative level of denudation.
(c) Base level is represented by sea level.
(d) It does not change over the period of geological time.
(a) The in-site break down of rocks is known as weathering.
(b) A weathering process by which concentric sheets, slabs,
sheets or flakes are successively broken loose and stripped
away from a rock mass is known as exfoliation.
(c) Mechanical weathering is confined to deserts.
(d) Climate is the single most important factor influencing
weathering.
(a) Most metamorphic rocks develop as a result of plate collision
deep in the roots of folded mountain belts.
(b) The original material, prior to metamorphism, may be
sediment, metamorphic or igneous.
(c) Gneiss is a fine grained metamorphic rock.
(d) Schist is a medium grained or coarse grained metamorphic
rock.
13. Consider the following statements about the ground inversion of
temperature and select the correct answer using the code that
follows:
1. Ground inversion occurs during long winter nights.
2. Ground inversion occurs in cloudless clear skies.
3. Ground inversion occurs at high relative humidity.
4. Ground inversion occurs when the ground is covered with ice.
Codes:
1. Relative humidity increases with the decrease in temperature.
2. Relative humidity increases with the increase in temperature.
3. Relative humidity increases with the increase in water vapour
in the air at constant temperature.
Codes:
15. Which one of the following is not correct about the ice cap?
(a) It is a dome-shaped glacier.
(b) It buries mountain peaks.
(c) It is found only at the mountain peaks.
(d) It is less extensive than an ice sheet.
16. Consider the following statements about weather conditions and
1. Cloudy nights are relatively cooler.
2. Cloudy nights are relatively warmer.
3. Cloudy days are relatively cooler.
Codes:
17. Which one of the following is not correct about the cold water
currents?
(a) Wind induced upwelling is common in the cold water currents.
(b) Upwelling of cold water currents make the air chilled.
(c) Upwelling of water in a cold water current contributes to fog
banks of California.
(d) Downwelling of water has a direct effect on the climate.
code given below:
Table I (Ocean Trench) Table II (Ocean)
A. Aldrich/Tonga Trench 1. South Indian Ocean
B. Aleutian Trench 2. South Pacific Ocean
C. Puerto Rico/Narer
3. North Pacific Ocean
Trench
4. North Atlantic
D. Sunda Trench
Ocean
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
(a) Turbidity current is an underwater avalanche of abrasive
sediments.
(b) Turbidity currents are responsible for deep sculpturing of
submarine canyons.
(c) Turbidite have cosmic origin.
(d) Turbidite are coarse grained layers of nearshore origin.
using the code as follows:
1. The surface layer of the ocean is known as Europhic Zone.
2. The temperature and salinity are almost uniform in the photic
zone of the oceans.
3. The surface zone contains about 2% of the total volume of the
ocean water.
Codes:
1. The length of adult fishes varies from less than one centimetre
to 20 metres.
2. The weight of fishes varies between 0.1 gram and about
41,000 kilogram.
3. Some of the fish can swim at a speed of 113 km per hour.
Codes:
(a) Tide caused by the gravitational and inertial interaction of the
Moon and the Earth is known as Lunar Tide.
(b) Tide caused by the gravitational and inertial interaction of the
Sun and Earth is known as Solar Tide.
(c) The highest tides occur in the North Pacific Ocean.
(d) The difference in height between consecutive high and low
tides is known as tidal range.
1. The scientific study of the interaction between organisms and
environment is known as ecology.
2. The term ecology was coined by Odum, E.P.
Codes:
1. Ecotone stands for transition on the ground between two plant
communities.
2. The physical environment of a biotic community is known as
ecotope.
3. The entire communities of a region are known as biota.
4. The period of soil formation is known as biostay.
Codes:
25. Which one of the following biosphere reserves is/are correct?
1. Moist deciduous forests are found in Himachal Pradesh and
Uttarakhand.
2. Alpine forests are found between 1000 and 2000 metres above
the sea level in the Himalayas.
26. Which one of the following sets is on the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves?
(a) Cold desert, Kanchenjunga, Nokrek and Simlipal
(b) Nanda Devi, Panchmarhi, Simlipal and Sundarban
(c) Gulf of Mannar, Nanda Devi, Amarkantak and Panna
(d) Cold desert, Nanda Devi, Sundarban and Sheshachalam
27. The Earth Summit resulted the following documents:
1. Rio Declaration of Environment and Development
2. Environment and Female Empowerment.
3. Agenda 21
4. Forest Principles
Codes:
28. Consider the following statements about the biome located in the
Northern Hemisphere. The biome is located in the interior parts,
characterized with insufficient rainfall. There is great annual range
of temperature. The herbivores such as bison, antelope, horses
and asses are numerous. Which of the following biomes has the
above characteristics?
(a) Temperate Grasslands
(b) Temperate Forests
(c) Mediterranean Biome
(d) Boreal Biome
1. The concept of sustainable development is particularly useful
to the world of poor.
2. Sustainable development involves a progressive
transformation of economy and society.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of a
desert?
(a) A region where the rate of evaporation is higher to that rate of
precipitation.
(b) A region characterized by sand dunes.
(c) A region devoid of forests and vegetation.
(d) A region where the average annual rainfall is less than 20 cm.
cold desert fauna and flora?
(a) Cold deserts have alpine mesophytes vegetation.
(b) Birch, juniper and rhododendron and grasses are the main
vegetation.
(c) Some flora grow in the permanently frozen soil.
(d) Animals and birds have usually long legs.
1. The sacred groves have been threatened because of the
disappearance of traditional belief system.
2. The traditional beliefs and rituals are considered as mere
superstition.
3. Encroachment has led to shrinkage of sacred groves.
Codes:
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The National Biosphere Reserves Programme in India was
initiated in 1986.
2. One of the objectives of the Biosphere Progaramme in India
was to ensure participation of local inhabitants for effective
management of the Biosphere Reserves.
3. To integrate scientific research with traditional knowledge of
conservation.
4. To promote eco-tourism.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Consider the following statements about the ‘Biodiversity Hot
Spot’:
1. A biodiversity hotspot must contain at least 1500 species of
vascular plants (>0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics.
2. The area has lost at least 70% of its original habitat.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) The polluted water usually contains pathogens.
(b) Pathogens include virus and bacteria.
(c) Polluted water causes Chickengunia.
(d) Polluted water causes cholera and typhoid.
36. The major concern for the urban areas in India are:
1. Growing air and water pollution.
2. Increasing household and hazardous waste.
3. Increasing road accidents.
4. Increasing mobility in large cities.
Consider the above statements and select the correct answer
1. More than a million earthquakes occur around the world each
year.
2. The Chinese scientists claim to have been successful in
predicting about fifteen earthquakes in recent years.
3. The Chinese scientists rely heavily on animals to sense
various underground changes prior to an earthquake.
4. Effective scientific earthquake prediction is not possible till
date.
Codes:
38. Which one of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed
farming’?
(a) Cultivation of both food and cash crops.
(b) Cultivation of the two or more crops in the same field.
(c) Keeping of animals and cultivation of crops together.
(d) None of the above.
1. The lowest temperature in Africa is recorded at Ifrane
(Morocco).
2. The highest temperature in Africa is recorded at Azizia (Libya).
3. The highest point in Africa is Kilimanjaro.
4. The lowest point in Africa is the shore of Lake Assal.
Codes:
1. The highest temperature in South America was recorded at
Rivadavia (Argentina).
2. The lowest temperature in South America was recorded at
Sarmiento (Argentina).
3. Iquique (Chile) is the driest place in the world.
4. The Peninsula of Valdes (Argentina) is the lowest place in
South America.
Codes:
1. Primitive herding is an unregularized migratory undertaking.
2. Nomadic herders migrate in search of fodder and water.
3. Nomadic migration may be horizontal or vertical.
Which one of the following is/are correct?
42. The environmental ‘crisis’ is attributed largely to:
1. The Judeo-Christian-Islamic belief that humans had been
placed on Earth to subjugate nature (environment).
2. The failing of capitalism.
3. The capitalist economy is annihilating space and place.
4. Environmental issues entered the political arena in the early
1960s.
Codes:
43. Which one of the following dams is not correctly matched?
(a) Aksombo – Ghana
(b) Hoover Dam – USA
(c) Kurobegawa Dam – Japan
(d) Warragemba – South Africa
(a) Houston – Petrochemical industries
(b) San Diego – Ship building industry
(c) Seattle – Aircaft industry
(d) St Louis – Textile industry
45. Consider the following statements about the extensive agriculture
1. It is highly mechanised.
2. The per hectare yield is low.
3. The per worker production is high.
4. It is practiced in the sparsely populated regions of the world.
Codes:
1. The term ‘Green Revolution’ refers to major biogenetic
advance in agricultural technology.
2. The high yielding varieties of rice and wheat are neutral to
scale.
3. The sharecroppers were appreciably benefitted by the new
seeds.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
1. Before the industrial revolution, industrial activity was limited.
2. Before the Industrial Revolution every major civilization was
involved in a few basic industrial activities.
3. Before the Industrial Revolution the basic industrial activities
were bread-making, brick-making, pottery and textile
manufacturing.
4. Each household was producing clothing, furniture and shelter.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
48. Consider the following statements about the location of steel
industry:
1. The shift in the location of a steel plant is determined by the
global as well as the local factors.
2. In the case of steel industry, major changes began in the early
1970s.
3. In recent decades, steel industry got established in Brazil,
South Korea and Japan.
49. Arrange the following countries in descending order in respect of
production of sugarcane and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. Brazil
2. China
3. India
4. Cuba
Codes:
(a) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(c) 1, 3, 2 and 4
(d) 3, 2, 4 and 1
1. Railway traffic is cheaper to that of roadways.
2. USA has the longest network of roads in the world.
3. The public railway system was started first by UK.
Codes:
1. The manufacturing of electric goods was started in 1880.
2. Hydro-turbines and thermal generators are heavy industries.
3. Heavy industries are located near the multipurpose projects.
Codes:
1. The WTO was created by Uruguay Round Negotiation (1986-
94).
2. The WTO co-operates with international organisations.
3. The WTO is a forum for trade negotiation.
4. The WTO administers trade agreements.
Codes:
53. Arrange the following countries in the descending order of
production of gold and select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. Australia
2. China
3. South Africa
4. USA
Codes:
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(b) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(d) 4, 3, 2 and 1
1. In the developed countries the most attractive tourist places
are the theme parks, world fairs, large shopping centres and
Disney World.
2. The main attraction of tourism in the developing countries are
cultural centres, natural beauty and sea beaches.
3. Dependence on tourism makes a country vulnerable from the
economic point of view.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) Aden – Bab-al Mandab
(b) Bandar Abbas – Strait of Hormuz
(c) Houston – Strait of Florida
(d) Istanbul – Strait of Bosporus
56. Consider the following statements about the Mediterranean
vegetation and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. The vegetation is called sclerophyllous.
2. It has leathery leaves.
3. Figs and olive are its typical species.
Codes:
(a) United Nations Environmental Programme – Nairobi
(b) International Telecommunication Union – Geneva
(c) International Atomic Energy Agency – Vienna
(d) UNESCO – Paris
1. Blister copper is 99 per cent pure metal.
2. Blister copper is suitable for manufacturing electric wire.
3. Gold, silver, lead and zinc impurities must be extracted through
a refining process.
Which of the following statement(s) is correct?
1. Antarctica is larger than Europe or Australia.
2. No permanent population exists on Antarctica.
3. Scientific teams maintain a continuous existence on Antarctica.
4. The Antarctica Treaty (1961) banned commercial mining
activity.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. The Soo Canal connects Lake Superior with Lake Huron.
2. The Welland Canal connects Lake Erie with Lake Ontario.
3. Niagra Falls lie between Lake Erie and Lake Huron.
Codes:
1. Doggar Bank lies in Baltic Sea
2. Grand Bank lies in North Sea
Codes:
62. Consider the consequences of population aging and select the
1. The aging population will place increasing stress on pension
and related social benefits.
2. Degenerating diseases such as cancer, heart problems and
arthritis will become increasingly common.
3. There will be shortage of workers to support the growing
population.
4. The implications of population aging for poorer countries will
be more serious.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India.
2. Kharbude Tunnel is the longest tunnel in India.
3. Ladakh is the largest plateau in India.
4. Marina Beach (Chennai) is the longest sea beach of India.
Codes:
1. Banas is a left hand tributary of Chambal.
2. Jawai is a left hand tributary of Luni.
3. Girna is a left hand tributary of Tapi.
4. Rihand is a left hand tributary of Son.
Codes:
65. Which one of the following lakes is not correctly matched?
(a) Wular – Largest fresh water lake in India
(b) Tso Morari – Located in Himachal Pradesh
(c) Lavasa – Artificial lake
(d) Asthamudi – Lagoon lake
1. Gahirmatha crocodile project lies in Odisha.
2. Guindy National Park lies in Chennai.
3. Nagarhole National Park lies in Karnataka.
4. Pin Valley National Park lies in Sikkim.
Codes:
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 are correct
1. Saramati Peak lies in Nagaland.
2. Lamatol Range lies in Tripura.
3. Mikir Hills lie in Assam.
1. Fifty peaks of the Himalayas rise over 7500 m (25,000 feet).
2. The highest peaks of the world have been created by the
collision of Peninsular India into the Eurasian Plate.
3. The Himalaya rises less than 6 cm per year.
4. At present, an approximate balance exists between the rate of
rise and the rate at which the Himalayas are eroded.
Codes:
69. Consider the following statements about the Indian Monsoon
regions:
1. Monsoon areas are characterized by marked seasonality.
2. The typical vegetation monsoon region is deciduous forest.
3. The moist deciduous forests of India are in a healthy condition.
4. Population densities are usually high in the monsoon regions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
70. Kylas Peak lies in the state of:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Uttar Pradesh
1. The southern most point of India is known as Indira Point.
2. The western most point of India is the Rajheera Creek.
3. The northern most point of India is Indira Col.
4. The eastern most point of India is Walang Town.
Codes:
City State
(a) Bailadila - Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chikmagalur - Karnataka
(c) Kodarma - Jharkhand
(d) Mayurbhanj - Odisha
(a) Aroya-Konda – Andhra Pradesh
(b) Dewodi Munda – Odisha
(c) Tulasi Peak – Jharkhand
(d) Mahadeo Hills – Madhya Pradesh
74. Consider the following statements about soils:
1. In rice, the soils with low percolation rates are ideal for
economizing on water.
2. Land submergence is beneficial for obtaining high yields of
rice.
3. The light sandy soils involve a high application of costly inputs
besides a considerable wastage of water.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) The sex ratio in children below 6 years is 914 girls per 1000
of boys.
(b) In 2001, the sex ratio was 927/1000.
(c) In 2011, the sex ratio has increased in all the age groups.
(d) The overall sex ratio of India in 2011 was 943/1000.
1. Literacy rates for 1951, 1961 and 1971 Censuses relate to
population aged five years and above.
2. Literacy rates for 1981, 1991, 2001 and 2011 Censuses relate
to population aged seven years and above.
3. The 1981 literacy rates exclude Assam where the 1981 census
could not be conducted.
4. The 1991 literacy rates exclude Jammu and Kashmir as no
census was conducted there in that year.
Codes:
1. The literacy rate of Odisha is higher than that of Andhra
Pradesh.
2. The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is higher than that of
Karnataka.
3. The literacy rate of Jharkhand is higher than that of
Chhattisgarh.
Codes:
78. Consider the following statements about the initiatives taken in
the Census of 2011 and select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. Video Conferencing by the Census Commissioner to
personally talk to more than 640 Principal Census Officers.
2. Conference of the Military and Paramilitary Organisations was
conducted at New Delhi.
Codes:
79. Consider the following statements about the agricultural density:
1. The agricultural density of population in the world is the highest
in Bangladesh.
2. The agricultural density in India is 846 persons per sq km.
3. The agricultural density of Pakistan is higher to that of India.
4. The agricultural density of the world is 526 persons per sq. km.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The new alluvial soils are known as khadar.
2. The old alluvial soils are called as Bhangar.
3. Black soil is called as Regur.
4. Black soil has a low moisture holding capacity.
Codes:
1. Kolar, Hutti and Ramgiri are the main gold mines of India.
2. Hutti Gold Mine Company is India’s only producer of gold.
3. The entire production of Kolar gold mines is sold to the
Reserve Bank of India.
4. Hutti gold fields of Raichur are used for industrial purposes
through the State Bank of India.
Codes:
82. Consider the following statements about the objectives of the
Eleventh Five Year Plan and select the correct answer using the
code that follows:
1. To reduce drop out rates of children from elementary education
to below 20 per cent.
2. To increase literacy rate to 90 per cent.
3. To reduce gender gap in literacy from 21 per cent to 10 per
cent.
4. To increase the percentage of each child going to higher
education from the present 10 per cent to 15 per cent.
Codes:
83. Consider the following and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. The Centre for Social Forestry is located at Lucknow.
2. The Centre for Forest Productivity is located at Jabalpur.
3. The Temperate Forest Research Centre is located at Shimla.
4. The Institute of Wood Science and Technology is located at
Bangalore.
Codes:
84. Consider the following statements about the people of Arunachal
Pradesh, Ladakh and Sikkim and select the correct answer using
1. They have the double eye lids.
2. They have lank and straight hair.
3. They have very little hair on their face.
Codes:
1. High Yielding Varieties (HYV) revolutionised Indian agriculture
in 1964-65.
2. The average consumption of chemical fertilisers in India is
about 128 kg per hectare per annum.
3. In India, about 87 per cent of wheat crop is covered by HYV
seeds.
4. The use of cowdung as a manure is declining in Indian
agriculture.
Codes:
86. Which one of the following is not correct about the social forestry?
(a) It refers to forests planted by people.
(b) Social forestry is done on government lands.
(c) The main objective of social forestry is to provide fodder and
fuel to the people.
(d) Community forestry is a part of social forestry.
87. Consider the following statements about the objectives Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojna (PMKSY) and select the correct
1. The major objective of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of
investments in irrigation at the field level, and expand cultivated
area.
2. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of
water.
Codes:
88. Consider the following statements about rain-fed agriculture:
1. Rain-fed agriculture is complex, diverse and risk-prone.
2. Most of the Indian rural population lives in the rain-fed
agricultural areas.
3. Variability in rainfall results in wide variations and instability in
yields.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
89. Consider the following statements about the cotton textile industry
1. Textile industry is labour intensive.
2. Textile industry is export oriented.
3. India exports more textile goods than China.
Codes:
90. Consider the following statements about privatisation in India and
1. Privatisation means allowing the private sector to set up more
and more of such industries as were previously reserved for
public sector.
2. Under privatisation, existing enterprises of the public sector are
either wholly or partially sold to private sector.
3. Transferring of public sector industries to private sector is
called privatisation.
4. It enhances the importance of private sector in economic
development.
Codes:
91. Consider the following statements about the Chotanagpur Plateau
and select the correct answer using the code that follows:
1. The Chotanagpur Industrial Region stretches over Jharkhand,
West Bengal and north Odisha.
2. The Chotanagpur Plateau is often called as the ‘Ruhr of India’.
3. It is rich in fossil fuel and metallic minerals.
4. It has shortage of labour force.
Codes:
92. The Agra Delhi Industrial region is known for the production of:
(a) Agricultural machinery and engineering goods
(b) Agricultural machinery and textile goods
(c) Agricultural machinery and precision instruments
(d) Chemical products and leather goods
1. Chhotanagpur Plateau has great variety of metallic and non-
metallic minerals.
2. Mica, manganese, copper and limestone are found in
Chhotanagpur Plateau.
3. Singhbhum iron ore deposits lie to the east of Jamshedpur.
4. Jharia coal mine lies to the north of Jamshedpur.
Codes:
1. Some raw materials are ubiquitous found everywhere.
2. Most raw materials are non-ubiquitous, or are localized.
3. The industrialists are social workers providing jobs to the
workers.
Indian economy?
(a) In Indian economy, the per capita income is increasing at a
faster rate.
(b) India economy is an underdeveloped economy.
(c) Indian economy is a mixed economy.
(d) Indian economy is a planned developing economy.
96. Which one of the following is not the objective of the WTO?
(a) It helps to promote peace and prosperity across the world.
(b) Disputes are settled through the International Court of
Justice.
(c) Free trade reduces the cost of living and increases the
household income.
(d) Good governance accelerates economic growth.
1. Railway plays an unimportant role in passenger transport.
2. Crude oil in USA is transported by railway.
3. The densest railway network is found in the east-central USA.
4. The main transcontinental railway lines follow an east-west
direction.
Codes:
98. Consider the following statements about the earth’s crust:
1. The deepest inner portion of the earth is known as core.
2. The core of the earth represents about one-third of its entire
mass of the earth.
3. The core is differentiated into two – a liquid inner core
surrounded by a dense solid inner core.
1. Krishnasagar Dam is located Shimsha River.
2. Nagarjuna Sagar lies on Krishna River.
3. Shivaji Sagar lies Bhima River.
Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Relief refers to vertical elevation differences in the landscape.
2. The undulating form of earth’s surface is called topography.
3. Hypsographic curve shows the distribution of earth’s surface
by area and elevation.
Which of the above statements are correct is/are correct?
1. A broad, looping bend in a river is known as meander.
2. A river meander results because erosion occurs on the outside
of a curve in the stream channel.
3. The velocity of a river stream is maximum along the concave
slope.
4. The deposition occurs on the inside of the curve of a stream
where the velocity is low.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
102. Consider the following about agricultural revolution:
1. The second agricultural revolution was started in Great Britain.
2. The second agricultural revolution promoted the cultivation of
grasses.
3. There was substantial increase in the productivity of crops
after the second agricultural revolution.
4. The second agricultural revolution increased the ability to feed
a growing population.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
103. Consider the following statements about dairy farming:
1. Dairy farming is practised close to the urban centres.
2. Dairy farming is a capital intensive farming.
3. The New Zealand dairy farmers focus on less perishable
products of milk.
4. The Europe and North America specialize in fluid milk.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
1. The objectives of biosphere reserves is to promote economic
development which is culturally acceptable, economically
viable and environmentally sustainable.
2. To develop community spirit in the management of natural
resources.
3. To benefit the local communities directly and the world
communities indirectly.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
105. Consider the following statements about the World Heritage
Sites and select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. UNESCO funds numerous World Heritage Sites.
2. UNESCO maintains a list of the World Heritage Sites.
3. UNESCO maintains a list of World Heritage in danger facing
pollution and other natural hazards.
4. Natural Heritage sites promote eco-tourism.
Codes:
(a) Biodiversity Conservation : Stockholm
(b) Convention for the Protection of
: Vienna
Ozone Layer
(c) Access to Genetic Resources by
: Koyoto
all
: Ramsar
(d) Convention on
Wetland
107. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES), which of the following statement/statements is/are
correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an
International Agreement between Governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to
better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the states that have joined it, but
this convention does not take the place of national laws.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Organic farming is a sustainable agricultural system.
2. It helps in maintaining the stability of ecosystem and ecology.
3. It is practiced in the hilly areas of Uttarakhand and Himachal
Pradesh.
4. It provides adequate food to the growing population.
1. Sea level has risen about 130 metres (400 feet) since the last
Ice Age.
2. The last Ice Age was about 18,000 years ago.
3. The most vulnerable area along the Arabian Sea coastline will
be the coastal areas of Karnataka.
4. The islands of Lakshadweep Archipelago would be totally lost
due to 1 meter sea level rise.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Citrus India (ancestor of oranges) is associated with Nokrek.
2. Wild Ass is associated with the Kachchh Biosphere Reserve
3. Fossil Park of the World is associated with the Cold Desert
Biosphere Reserve.
4. Aksai-Chin is known as ‘Little Tibet’.
Which of the following statements are correct?
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a)
26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c)
56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (b)
66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (d)
86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (c)
106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (d)
SET 3
Practice Test Paper

1. Black Holes are known as Neutron Stars.
2. Black Holes are the smallest dwarfs.
3. Black Holes have relatively lesser gravitational force.
4. If the Earth were to collapse to the density of a white dwarf, it
would have a diameter equivalent to the length of a football
field.
Codes:
(a) The meteoroids are termed as ‘shooting stars’.
(b) Meteoroids become luminous when they enter the
atmosphere.
(c) All meteoroids fall on Earth in the form of ash.
(d) Meteoroids travel in the space at great speed.
1. The secondary waves are called transverse waves.
2. The secondary waves are analogous to light waves and water
ripples.
3. The secondary waves can not travel through the liquid
medium.
Codes:
1. The part of continent under marine water is known as
continental shelf.
2. The slope of a continental shelf is less than 1 degree.
3. The continental shelf reaches a depth up to about 200 m.
Codes:
1. Metamorphic rocks may be hard or soft.
2. Mica is found in metamorphic rocks.
3. Mineral composition is changed in metamorphic rocks.
4. Metamorphic rocks contain bands.
Codes:
1. Region of the Earth’s crust just above the mantle is known as
asthenosphere.
2. Region of the upper mantle just below the lithosphere is known
as asthenosphere.
3. Asthenosphere is the least rigid portion of the Earth’s interior.
Codes:
(d) Only 3 is correct
(a) The maximum load of a river moves in suspension.
(b) A river erodes its vertical bank more than the gentle bank.
(c) More the load of a river less is the erosive capacity.
(d) A river transports more load when the velocity is high.
(a) Barchans are sand-dunes of crescent-shape.
(b) Barchans are found in the deserts of enormous sand.
(c) Barchans are transverse in character.
(d) Barchans are migratory.
1. Denudation is usually defined as a broader term than ‘erosion’.
2. It includes weathering and all processes which can wear down
the surface of the Earth.
Codes:
10. Which one of the following is correct about the ‘bedrock’?
(a) The rock of the Earth’s crust that lies below the folded
mountains.
(b) The rock below the soil.
(c) The rock below the plains.
(b) The rock under the underground water table.
1. Igneous rocks are records of the thermal history of the Earth.
2. The origin of igneous rocks is closely associated with the
movement of tectonic plates.
3. Igneous rocks play an important role in the spreading sea-floor.
4. Igneous rocks play an important role in the origin of mountains
and drift of continents.
Codes:
12. The term adiabatic change of temperature stands for:
(a) Heating of ascending air.
(b) Heating of descending air.
(c) Cooling of ascending air.
(d) Heating or cooling of ascending or descending air through
expansion or compression.
13. Consider the following about the Daylight Saving Time and select
the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Time is set ahead one hour in the spring and is set back one
hour in the autumn in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Time is set ahead on the first Sunday in April and is set back
on the last Sunday in October.
3. This adjustment in time is done in all the states of USA.
Codes:
14. Consider the following statements about the tropical cyclones and
1. Tropical cyclones have closed isobars.
2. The isobars are circular in shape.
3. They give human friendly rainfall.
4. They have an eye in the centre.
Codes:
15. Consider the following statements about the tropical cyclones and
select the correct answer using the code that follows:
1. In tropical cyclones, air is essentially homogenous.
2. Tropical cyclones are without fronts.
3. The cyclonic motion in tropical cyclones begins because of
coriolis force.
4. Tropical cyclones are destructive by nature.
Codes:
(a) The open tropical oceans have abundant sunlight and CO2.
(b) The open tropical oceans are generally rich in surface
nutrients.
(c) The tropical oceans have strong thermoclines.
(d) The tropical oceans away from land are oceanic deserts.
17. Consider the following statements about climate change:
1. Because of climate change, the quality of fruits, vegetables,
tea and coffee will be adversely affected.
2. Demand for irrigation will increase because of extreme events.
3. There will be increase in pest and diseases to crops.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) Diego Garcia lies in the North Indian Ocean.
(b) Seychelles lies in the South Indian Ocean.
(c) Mauritius lies to the east of Madagascar.
(d) Socotra Island lies in the North India Ocean.
1. Once a tsunami is generated, its steepness is extremely low.
2. This lack of steepness, combined with the wave’s very long
period (5 to 20 minutes), enables it to pass unnoticed beneath
ships at high sea.
3. As the tsunami approaches the shore, the period of the wave
remains constant, velocity drops and wave height greatly
increases.
Codes:
1. The Pycnocline lies between 100 m and 1000 m below the sea
surface.
2. It contains about 18% of the total volume of oceanic water.
3. There is rapid decrease of temperature in this zone.
Codes:
(a) The ocean’s salinity varies from about 3.3% to 3.7% by
weight.
(b) The world ocean contains some 5000 trillion kilograms of salt.
(c) About 48% of the dissolved gas in sea water is nitrogen.
(d) About 30% of the gas dissolved in the ocean is oxygen.
1. East to west or west-to east current is known as transverse
current.
2. Transverse current lead to the formation of tropical cyclones
along the Brazilian coast.
1. Phosphorus is abundant in nature.
2. Phosphorus is an excretory product.
3. Phosphorus cycle can be disrupted by the use of chemical
fertilizers.
4. Phosphates in the soil are taken into the plant for protection.
Codes:
1. The biotic components of an ecosystem consist of plants,
animals and micro-organisms.
2. The abiotic components include climate, water, sea-waves,
soil, salinity, minerals, topography and habitat.
3. The non-living (abiotic) components set the stage for
ecosystem operation.
Codes:
25. A region is characterized with warm temperature over 18°C
throughout the year and the rainfall is between 150 and 200 cm
with seasonal surplus and deficit of water. The region is in the:
(a) Equatorial Evergreen Biome
(b) Monsoon Deciduous Biome
(c) Mediterranean Biome
(d) Savanna Biome
26. Which one of the following is not the objective of Biosphere
Reserves?
(a) To conserve biological and cultural diversity.
(b) To promote research in biodiversity conservation.
(c) To promote ecotourism.
(b) To provide facilities for education.
1. Agenda 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century.
2. Agenda 21 is an action plan of the United Nations related to
sustainable development.
3. Agenda 21 is the outcome of the Earth Summit held in Rio-de
Janeiro in 1992.
4. Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken
globally, nationally and locally by organizations.
Codes:
1. Timberline decreases in elevation equator-ward in both the
hemispheres.
2. Alpine tundra communities occur in the Andes near the
equator.
Codes:
1. A bay at the mouth of a river formed by the subsidence of the
land or by rise in sea level is known as an estuary.
2. Fresh water from the river mixes with saline sea water in an
estuary.
3. Estuaries are the most productive water bodies in the world.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
30. Consider the following statements responsible for about the
formation of hot deserts:
1. Subtropical High Pressure
2. Intensification of agriculture
3. Cold ocean currents on the western sides of hot desert
4. Presence of mountains on the eastern side of the hot deserts
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. When surface water is polluted, ground water also become
contaminated.
2. Surface water flows rapidly and flushes pollution downstream.
3. The groundwater once contaminated, remain polluted forever.
32. Consider the following statements about the Biosphere Reserves:
1. The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme was launched
in 1952.
2. The Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme is an International
Scientific Programme.
3. The objective of the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme is
to set a scientific basis for the improvement of the relationship
between people and their environment globally.
4. It proposes an interdisciplinary research agenda.
Which of the above statement/statements is/ are correct? Select
the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following statements about the Biosphere Reserves
1. Biosphere Reserve is a site which must contain an effectively
protected and minimally disturbed core area.
2. The core area of a Biosphere Reserve should be typical of a
bio-geographical unit.
3. The Biosphere Reserve is large enough to sustain viable
populations representing all tropic levels in the ecosystem.
Codes:
34. The people of our planet, especially our youth and the generation
which follows them, will hold us accountable for what we do or fail
to do ...” this statement was made in the:
(a) Cartagena Protocol
(b) Earth Summit
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) Ramsar Convention
1. Mangroves help in combating the global warming.
2. The mangroves are adversely affected by tsunami.
3. Pichavaram mangroves lies along the coast of Tamil Nadu.
Codes:
The possible effect of climatic change on India may be:
1. Increase in floods.
2. Decrease in agricultural productivity.
3. Increase in water-borne diseases.
4. Increase in landslides in hilly areas.
(a) 1 only
1. A natural event that has a dramatically negative effect on
humans is known as a disaster.
2. All hazards are not disasters.
3. A hazard adversely affects human society.
4. A hazard may be geological, hydrological, atmospheric or
biological.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
38. Consider the following crops of India:
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
Which of the above is/are predominantly rain-fed crops?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. The lowest temperature in the world is recorded at Vostok.
2. Vinson Massif is the highest point in Antarctica.
3. In average height Antarctica is the highest continent in the
world.
4. Ice and snow covers over 98% of Antarctica.
Codes:
1. Hunters differ from gatherers in that they employ more
sophisticated methods to secure food.
2. Hunting is primarily a communal activity.
3. The tools and implements utilized by hunters include traps,
snares and lethal weapons.
4. Hunting exists today in low latitude zones.
Codes:
1. The highest concentration of population is in the rice growing
plains and deltas.
2. Green Revolution is a big success in the rice growing area of
Brahmaputra Valley.
3. The size of fields in the rice growing areas of the world is too
small for modern technology.
Codes:
1. Energy is spatially variable.
2. Fire was used by man about 2.5 million years ago.
3. U.S.A. lead the world in per capita consumption of energy.
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
43. Which one of the following is not a mega city (population over 10
million)?
(a) Cairo
(b) Lagos
(c) New York
(d) Rome
44. Consider the following statements about the nomadic herding and
1. Subsistence nomadic herding is done in the semi-arid regions
of the world.
2. It is an ecological system of agriculture.
3. It is the most simple form of pastoralism.
Codes:
45. Consider the following statements about the Mediterranean
agriculture and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. More emphasis on the orchards of citrus fruits.
2. Highly mechanised.
3. Irrigation is practiced during the summer season.
4. Wheat and barley are the main cereal crops.
Codes:
1. China has only about 12 per cent of its area under cultivation.
2. China is the largest producer of grains in the world.
3. Vast stretches of China are desolate.
4. Upland dry rice cultivation is practised occurs inland in the
north China.
Codes:
47. Arrange the following oil consuming countries in a descending
order and select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. China
2. Japan
3. Russia
4. U.S.A.
Codes:
(a) U.S.A. China, Japan and Russia
(b) U.S.A., China, Russia and Japan
(c) China, U.S.A., Japan and Russia
(d) China, U.S.A. Russia and Japan
1. Sugar is extracted from rutabagas, carrot and turnip.
2. White Irish potato and Jerusalem artichoke are tuber crops.
Codes:
1. Pipelines are used to carry liquid and solid materials.
2. Pipelines are cheap mode of transport of material.
3. Pipelines can be laid in any type of terrain.
4. The maintenance cost of pipeline is low.
Codes:
1. Gulf of Aqaba connects Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
2. Bab-al Mandab connects Red Sea with the Arabian Sea.
3. Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Arabian
Sea.
Codes:
1. Citrus crops (primarily oranges, grapes and lemons) represent
the most commercialized form of Mediterranean agriculture.
2. Irrigation must be available to sustain productive citrus in the
Mediterranean region.
3. Greece is the leading producer of oranges and lemons in
Europe.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
52. Consider the following statements about Genetically Modified
Organisms (GMOs):
1. Bt cotton was the first transgenetic crop in India.
2. The Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) are the regulated
products since 1989.
3. The Genetically Modified Organism became a necessity after
the collapse of national restrictions under WTO agreement.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
1. The percentage of workers employed in manufacturing is
decreasing.
2. Deindustrialization is taking place in the developed countries.
3. Deindustrialization is seen as a negative development.
4. Much of the manufacturing in the more developed world is
being transferred to less developed countries.
Codes:
(a) Strait of Malacca lies between Malaysia and Sumatra.
(b) Strait of Molucca lies between Sulawesi and New Guinea.
(c) Strait of Makassar lies between Sumatra and Sulawesi.
(d) Strait of Sunda lies between Java and Sumatra.
1. Temperate grasslands are known as the ‘bread–basket’.
2. Temperate grasslands are among the most modified regions of
the world.
3. Temperate grasslands are confined to the Northern
Hemisphere.
Codes:
56. “The climate of the region is ‘extreme’, rainfall is scanty and the
people used to be nomadic herders.”
The above statement best describes which of the following
regions?
(a) African Savannah
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Australian Downs
1. Manufacturing activity includes the factories that produce
goods.
2. Production system includes the suppliers and markets for
products.
3. Manufacturing system includes services and information.
Codes:
58. Consider the following statements about the protectionism in Free
Trade:
1. GATT founded in Geneva with 23 members.
2. First GATT meeting held in Havana in 1948.
3. WTO establish as a replacement for GATT.
4. The first two ministerial conferences were held in London.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The major tribes of the world are known as the ‘First People’.
2. Indigenous people belong to different religions.
3. They are the victims of the past and present colonialism.
Codes:
1. Earth is the home of over seven billion people.
2. The world population is growing by about 100 million people
per year.
3. The density of population of the world is about 60 persons per
sq km.
Which of the following options is correct?
(c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
61. Consider the following statements about the international
migration:
1. Most migrants are older adolescents or young adults.
2. Males are typically more migratory.
3. Most of the migrants from the developing countries are single
adults.
4. The higher-skilled people are more migratory.
Codes:
1. Bhakra is the highest dam in India.
2. Chilka is the largest brakish water lake in India.
3. Loktak is the largest fresh water lake in India.
Codes:
(a) Aghil Pass connects Ladakh with Tibet.
(b) Shipki La is through the Satluj Gorge.
(c) Rohtang Pass lies in Himachal Pradesh.
(d) Zojila connects Srinagar with Ladakh.
code given below:
List I List II
(Lake) (State)
A. Lonar 1. Gujarat
B. Narayan Sarovar 2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Surajtal 3. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Surinsar 4. Maharashtra
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
code given below:
List I List II
(Biosphere Reserve) (State)
A. Agasthamalai 1. Assam
B. Manas 2. Kerala
C. Marine 3. Meghalaya
D. Nokrek 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
(a) Blue Mountain — Mizoram
(b) Abor Hills — Manipur
(c) Diphu Pass — Arunachal Pradesh
(d) River Kalang — Assam
67. Consider the following statements about the Indian Monsoon:
1. During the active monsoon period, there is a trough of low
pressure extending along the Gangetic valley into West
Bengal.
2. During the monsoon breaks the monsoon trough shifts towards
the foot of the Himalayas.
3. When the monsoon trough shifts towards the foot of the
Himalayas, there is sudden increase in rainfall over most parts
of the country.
4. The breaks of monsoon are more frequent in the month of
August.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Glacier State/Mountain
(a) Chonglungma - Karakoram
(b) Milam - Uttarakhand
(c) Rimo - Himachal Pradesh
(d) Zemu - Sikkim
1. Nanda Devi is the highest peak of India.
2. The rainiest place in India is Mawsynram.
3. The lowest rainfall in India is recorded at Phalodi (Rajasthan)
Codes:
–
(a) Forest Research Institute
Dehradun
(b) Institute of Rain and Moist
– Jorhat
Deciduous Forest
(c) Institute of Forest Genetics and –
Tree Breeding Coimbatore
(d) Temperate Forest Research –
Institute Dalhousie
1. Shimsha is a left hand tributary of Kaveri.
2. Kabani is a right hand tributary of Kaveri.
3. Tungbhadra is a right hand tributary of Krishna.
Codes:
(c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
1. It is not unusual that in some years, some parts of the country
are in the grip of drought, while floods ravage some others.
2. The Konkan coast Malabar coast have less than 20% of
variability of rainfall.
3. Rann of Kutch has more variability of rainfall as compared to
the plains of Punjab.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
73. In the demographic transition, India is in the third stage (late
expanding) with declining birth rate and low death rate. Consider
the main reasons of this stage in India and select the correct
1. Changing status of women
2. Effective family planning
3. Increased standard of living
4. Lower infant mortality rate
Codes:
1. Upto the Census 1981, the literacy rate was worked out taking
into account the total population.
2. In the Census 1991, population below 6 years was excluded
from the total population for the purpose of literacy rate.
3. In the Census 1991, population above 7 years was counted for
the purpose of literacy rate.
Codes:
1. Population in the age group of 0-14 years and above 60 years
is known as non-working population.
2. Population in the age group of 15-60 years is known as
working population.
3. Higher proportion of working population is beneficial for the
economic development.
4. In India, the percentage of population of citizens above 60
years of age is increasing.
Codes:
1. The Census Operations in India are carried out in two phases
—the Houselisting and Housing Census followed by population
enumeration.
2. The objective of the Houselisting and Housing Census is to
systematically list out all the structures, houses and
households throughout the country.
Codes:
77. Consider the following statements about the biosphere reserves
1. They conserve the biodiversity of natural ecosystems and
landscape.
2. They contribute to sustainable economic development.
3. They provide facilities for long term ecological studies and
research.
Codes:
1. India is rich in mineral, water and forest resources.
2. Indian natural resources are not fully developed.
3. India has harnessed 60 per cent of its water resources.
4. Indians are not using their resources judiciously.
Codes:
1. Privatisation is the general process of involving the private
sector in the ownership or operation of a state owned
enterprise.
2. It implies parting with government ownership or management
of the public sector enterprises.
Codes:
80. Consider the following statements about the factors responsible
for modern migration:
1. People migrate in search of new land.
2. People migrate in the hope of work and wealth.
3. People migrate to have cultural tolerance.
4. People migrate because of push-pull factors.
Which of the above factors is/are responsible for migration?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
81. Construction is not allowed in which of the following categories of
land in the Aravallis?
1. Gair Mumkin (uncultivable hill)
2. Gair Mumkin Rada (Foothills, pastures)
3. Rund (Rocky areas between two hills)
4. Gair Mumkin Behad (Low-lying fallow)
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
82. Consider the following statements about contract farming:
1. Contract farming helps in increasing production and
productivity of contracted produce with desired quality.
2. The companies entering in contract farming remain assured of
the desired quality and quantity of agricultural produce at the
time of sowing of the crop.
3. Contract farming is beneficial only for the small and marginal
farmers.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. A person whose per capita consumption in the rural areas is
below Rs. 368 per month is treated as below the poverty line.
2. A person whose per capita consumption in urban areas is
below Rs. 559 per month is treated as below the poverty line.
Codes:
84. Consider the following statements regarding intensive cultivation
in monsoon Asia:
1. Intensive cultivation is best developed in the monsoon lands of
Asia.
2. Double or treble cropping is practised in a year.
3. Most of the work is done by hand labour.
4. The ploughing is done with the aid of buffaloes.
85. Consider the following statements about maize cultivation:
1. Maize crop is grown both in the tropical and temperate
countries.
2. It is cultivated in 160 countries of the world.
3. China is the leading producer of maize in the world.
4. USA has the highest average yield of maize in the world.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
86. Consider the following statements about watershed (catchment)
1. Watershed is a geographical area that drains to a common
point.
2. Watershed is an ideal planning unit for conservation of soil and
water.
3. A watershed may comprise one or several villages.
4. A watershed approach enables a holistic development of
agriculture and allied activities in the area.
Codes:
87. Consider the following statements about the problems industries
face in India and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. Shortage of power resources
2. Inadequate infrastructure
3. Outdated machinery
4. Non-availability of good quality raw material
Codes:
88. Consider the following statements about the objectives of
privatisation in India and select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. To provide better service to customers
2. To ensure proper planning and execution
3. To overcome the problem of corruption
4. To fix responsibility of management
Codes:
89. Consider the following about the Industrial Policy 1991 and select
the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Industrial licensing would be abolished except the strategic
and hazardous projects.
2. Foreign investment would be encouraged.
3. Disinvestment of Public Sector Units’ shares.
4. General reduction in custom duties.
Codes:
90. Consider the following statements about the impact of
multinational corporations on the Indian economy and select the
1. Construction of a chain of hotels.
2. Encouragement to cottage and small scale industries.
3. Heavy remittance abroad.
4. Transfer of technology a myth.
Codes:
1. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a geographical region.
2. Economic laws are more liberal in SEZ.
3. SEZ are confined to the developing countries.
4. India passed the Special Economic Zone Act in 2005.
Codes:
92. Consider the following statements about the balance of payment:
1. The balance of payment position of a country reflects on its
economic health.
2. The balance of payment of a country is a systematic account
of all the different transactions occurred between the residents
of a country and the rest of the world during a particular period
of time.
3. The balance of payments maintains detailed classified records
of different types of receipts against exports of goods, services.
4. The balance of payment is much wider than the balance of
trade.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
93. Consider the following statements about ‘inclusive development’
The word ‘inclusive’ implies not excluding any section of society.
1. Inclusive growth means a growth process which yields broad-
based benefits and ensures equality of opportunity for all.
2. The inclusive growth implies an equitable allocation of
resources with benefits accruing to every section of society.
3. Inclusive development means providing health recreation and
education facilities to all.
Codes:
1. Public finance is also termed as government finance.
2. It is an important sector of finance and economics.
3. Government’s financial year extends from Ist April to 31st
March.
4. The Budget is presented to the Parliament on the last day of
February.
Codes:
1. Air transport is relatively independent of physical barriers.
2. Aircraft of one type or another have made it possible to reach
the remotest parts of the earth.
3. Commercial airlines came into being after the Second World
War.
4. Aircrafts have been developed on water and ice.
Codes:
96. Consider the following statements about the earth crust:
1. The outermost layer or shell is known as crust.
2. The earth’s crust is generally defined as the part of the Earth
above the Mohorovicic discontinuity.
3. The earth’s crust represents less than 1% of the earth’s total
volume.
4. Mantle is rich in iron and nickle.
Which one of the following statement/ statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
97. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River Main River
1. Dudh-Ganga : Godavari
2. Girna : Mahanadi
3. Musi : Kaveri
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) None of the three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
98. River capture is possible in the:
(a) Chotanagpur Plateau
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Himalayan Mountains
(d) Nilgiri Hills
1. A river erosion removes the regolith.
2. A river erodes by the process of downward cutting.
3. In the hilly and mountainous regions, there is no head-ward
erosion.
4. Loose rock debris is washed down-slope into drainage system.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Shifting cultivation is practised today exclusively in tropical
areas.
2. Shifting cultivation involves selecting a location, removing
vegetation, and sowing crops on the cleared land.
3. Land preparation is minimal in shifting cultivation.
4. Livestock are playing an important role in shifting cultivation.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Commercial grazing is known as ranching.
2. Ranching is limited to areas of European overseas expansion
and closely related to the needs of urban population.
3. Cattle and sheep are the major ranch animals.
4. Ranching is associated with areas of low population density.
Codes:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1. Biosphere Reserves are not a substitute or alternative, but a
reinforcement to the existing potential areas.
2. Biosphere Reserves are demarcated to conserve biodiversity
within the ecosystem
3. To provide areas of multi-faceted research and monitoring.
4. To provide facilities for education and training.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Desert and semi-desert biomes are caused by the presence of
dry air and low precipitation.
2. Hot deserts and semi-desert biomes are under the influence of
descending air.
3. The desert and semi-desert biomes lie in the high pressure
systems from 8 to 12 months of the year.
4. On the western side of the hot deserts are found the cold water
currents.
Codes:
104. According to the Living Planet Report, Zoological Society
London Earth may be heading into the sixth ‘Mass Extinction of
Species’:
1. Because the way water is used and taken out of fresh water
system.
2. Because of the fragmentation of fresh water systems.
3. Because human activity resulting in habitat loss.
4. Because of climate change and over-exploitation of resources.
105. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of
the following statement/statements is/are correct?
1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil
society and indigenous people.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and
institutions in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly
and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest
management.
3. It assists the countries in their REDD+ (Reducing Emission
from Deforestation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial
and technical assistance.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
106. Consider the following statements about tourism:
1. Tourism is a means by which both tourists and host
communities create their respective identities.
2. Tourism offers significant opportunities for cultural contact.
3. Tourism creates opportunities for cultural understanding and
cultural conflict.
4. Tourism removes imbalances in economic power.
1. Carbon capture and storage is known as sequestration.
2. The sequestration technologies are designed to tackle global
warming by capturing CO2 at power stations, industrial sites,
etc.
3. Carbon sequestration describes short-term storage of carbon
dioxide.
4. The natural sinks of carbon are oceans, forests, soils etc.
(a) The Convention of Migratory Species of World Animals was
held at Bonn (Germany) in 1979.
(b) The Convention on Protection of Ozone Layer was held in
Vienna (Austria) in 1985.
(c) The Cartagena Protocol in Living Modified Organism was held
in Paris (France) in 2002.
(d) The Wetland Convention was held at Ramsar (Iran) in 1971.
109. The objective of land legislation reforms are:
1. To generate greater access of landless rural poor to land
2. To achieve an egalitarian social condition.
3. To eliminate exploitation in land relations.
4. To increase agricultural productivity.
Which of the statement/statements is/are correct?
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
110. Which one of the following countries has the lowest Buddhist
population?
(a) India
(b) Myanmar
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Vietnam
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (d)
86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (c)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (c)
106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a)
SET 4
Practice Test Paper

1. The planets of the solar system have differences in planetary
composition.
2. The composition of the planets appears to be related to
distance from the Sun.
3. Planets close to the Sun were formed from rocks and metals
that crystallised at high temperature.
4. The outer planets were formed from elements that formed
solids (condensed) at high temperature.
Codes:
1. International Date Line is located at 180o longitude.
2. International Date Line is not a straight line.
3. China has two time zones.
4. Australia has three time zones.
Codes:
1. Igneous rocks are records of the thermal history of the Earth.
2. The origin of igneous rocks is closely associated with the
movement of plate tectonics.
3. The volcanoes are the best examples of igneous rocks.
Codes:
1. All the processes acting at or near the surface of the Earth are
known as weathering.
2. Weathering is not effective in hard granite.
3. Frost action is an important form of physical weathering.
4. Frost action is limited to mid-latitudes and high altitudes.
Codes:
5. Examine the following facts about planet Mars and select the
1. The length of day on Mars is 24.62 hours.
2. The length of year is 1.88 days of Earth year.
3. The temperature on Mars varies between –173°C and 37°C.
Codes:
1. A process that bends and forms beds of various rocks
subjected to compressional forces is known as folding.
2. The process whereby displacement and fracturing occurs
between two portions of Earth’s crust is known as faulting.
3. Faulting is usually associated with earthquake activity.
Codes:
7. The Moho Discontinuity separates:
(a) Asthenosphere and mantle
(b) Upper mantle and lower crust
(c) Mantle and core
(d) Inner solid core and outer liquid core
1. Loess is a German word, used for the fine grained soils of
Rhine Valley.
2. Loess is very fertile soil in irrigated areas.
3. The largest deposits of loess are found in the Huang He Valley.
4. Loess is found in Mississippi Valley, Patagonia and New
Zealand.
Codes:
1. A spectacular glowing light display in the ionosphere is known
as Aurora.
2. Aurora is stimulated by the interaction of the solar wind with
hydrogen.
3. In the Northern Hemisphere, it is known as Aurora Borolis.
4. In the Southern Hemisphere, it is known as Aurora Australis.
Codes:
(a) During chemical weathering, rocks are decomposed.
(b) During chemical weathering, the internal structure is
destroyed.
(c) New minerals are created during chemical weathering.
(d) Chemical weathering does not occur in dry deserts.
1. Sedimentary rock sequence preserve records of erosion
through time.
2. Each bedding plane of a sedimentary rock is a remnant of
what was once a surface of the Earth.
3. Each rock layer is the product of a previous period of erosion.
4. The texture of sedimentary rock and fossils are important
indicators of global change.
Codes:
12. The sky looks blue because of:
(a) Absorption of blue light in the atmosphere.
(b) Reflection of blue colour of the oceans.
(c) Selective absorption of radiation by the atmosphere.
(d) Selective scattering of radiation by the atmosphere.
(a) The Southern Hemisphere records more rainfall than the
Northern Hemisphere.
(b) The maximum rainfall occurs in a belt about 10 to 20 degrees
wide near the equator.
(c) Low rainfall is recorded between 20° and 30° North and
South.
(d) Latitudes 0° to 10° South have more rainfall than latitudes 0°
to 10° North.
tropical cyclones?
(a) Tropical cyclones give torrential rainfall.
(b) They are known as Taifu in Philippines.
(c) They originate around 8o north and south of equator.
(d) They do not occur in the South Atlantic Ocean.
1. The temperature at which a given mass of air becomes
saturated is termed the dew-point temperature.
2. Air is saturated when the dew-point temperature and air
temperature are the same.
Codes:
16. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about
the affect of climate change:
1. Climate change will lead to extreme weather events.
2. The extreme weather events will affect agricultural productivity.
3. Cold waves and frost will decrease.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
17. The following statements are related to climate change:
1. Because of climate change organic content in the soil will
decrease.
2. Increase in soil temperature will increase soil erosion.
3. Extreme events will lead to salinization.
4. Rise in sea level will lead to salt water ingression.
Which of the above statement/statements/is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
18. The continental rise lies between:
(a) The continent and the continental shelf.
(b) The continental shelf and the continental slope.
(c) The continental slope and the deep ocean.
(d) The abyssal plain and the oceanic trench.
1. The density of water is mainly a function of its salinity and
temperature.
2. Cold, salty water is denser than warm, less salty water.
Codes:
1. The periodic rise and fall in the sea level is known as tide.
2. Tides are caused due to the gravitational force of the Sun and
the Moon.
3. Moon exerts more influence than the Sun in the occurrence of
tides.
4. Spring tides occur on the New Moon and the Full Moon.
Codes:
1. The height of the ocean surface averaged over a few decades
is known as mean sea level.
2. Tide caused by gravitational and inertial interaction of Moon
and the Earth is known as lunar tide.
(a) Above water bridge of sand connecting an offshore feature to
the mainland is known as a tombolo.
(b) An arch-shaped depression in the deep ocean floor with very
steep sides is known as an oceanic trench.
(c) Most of the oceanic trenches occur in the Pacific Ocean.
(d) The western part of Indian Ocean is deeper as compared to
the eastern part.
1. A food chain is the sequence of energy transfer from the lower
levels to the higher trophic levels.
2. All animals depend on plants for their food.
3. Fox may eat grass.
Codes:
1. Trees are large woody perennial plants.
2. Shrubs are woody perennial plants that have several stems.
3. Lianas are woody plants they are like vines supported on trees
and shrubs.
4. Herbs lack woody stems and are usually tender plants.
Codes:
25. A biome is characterized with continental climate, high annual
range of temperature and water surplus throughout the year.
These are the characteristics of which one of the following
biomes:
(a) Boreal Biome
(b) Equatorial Biome
(b) Monsoon Biome
(d) Savanna Biome
26. Consider the following statements about causes of desertification
1. Deforestation
2. Increase in human population
3. Increase in cattle population
4. Increase in industrialization
Codes:
27. Consider the following about the main goals of convention on
Biological Diversity and select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. To conserve biodiversity
2. Sustainable use of components of biodiversity
3. Sharing of benefits arising from the commercial and other
utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way.
Codes:
1. Excessive salinization occurs in semi-arid areas.
2. Salinization results from excessive potential
evapotranspiration.
3. Salts dissolved in soil water are brought to surface horizons
and deposited as surface water evaporates.
4. The salt deposits kill plants when the salts accumulate near
the root zone.
Codes:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correc
29. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about
mangrove?
1. Mangroves are large flowering shrubs or trees.
2. Mangroves’ seeds germinate in the saline muddy water.
3. Mangrove grows in dense thickets along muddy coasts.
4. Mangroves are significantly found in muddy tropical continental
shelves.
Codes:
30. Desert plants conserve water by following methods:
1. They are mostly shrubs.
2. Leaves are absent or reduced in size.
3. Leaves and stems are succulent and water storing.
4. Root system is well developed and spread over large area.
Which of the above statements is/are correct. Select the answer
1. The Wild Life (Protection) Act was passed in 1972.
2. National Parks are declared in areas of adequate ecological,
geo-morphological natural and cultural significance.
3. Grazing is not allowed in sanctuaries.
4. National Park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Biosphere Reserve (BR) is an international designation by
UNESCO for representative parts of natural landscapes.
2. Biosphere Reserves is a representative of natural and cultural
landscape.
3. Biosphere Reserve extends over large area of terrestrial or
coastal/marine ecosystems.
4. Biosphere Reserves promote sustainable development.
Codes:
1. A biosphere reserve is demarcated into four inter-related
zones.
2. The core zone should be kept absolutely undisturbed.
3. The core zone conserves the wild relatives of economic
species.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Consider the following statements about the Environmental Laws
of India and select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act - 1972
2. The Water (Prevention and Control - 1975 of Pollution) Act
3. The Forest (Conservation Act) - 1980
4. The Environmental Protection Act - 1986
Codes:
1. Global warming is adversely affecting the ice sheets of the
Arctic and Antarctic regions.
2. If there is one metre increase in the sea level than millions of
people of India, would have to migrate from the coastal areas.
Codes:
1. In India, water shortage is attributed to rapid urbanization,
industrialization, growth of population and inefficient use of
water.
2. The lowering of underground water-table is increasing the cost
of tube-wells installation.
3. Deeper water table is increasing the input cost of agriculture.
4. Straw burning in Punjab is mainly because ploughing it into
soils is time and energy consuming.
Codes:
1. Water, wind, solar and tidal are renewable sources of energy.
2. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are the non-renewable
sources of energy.
3. Coal is abundant but exhaustible.
4. USA is the leading producer of coal in the world.
Codes:
1. The highest temperature in Europe was recorded at Seville
(Spain).
2. The lowest temperature in Europe was recorded at Ust-
Shchugor (Russia).
3. The highest point of Europe is Mt. Blanc.
4. The lowest point of Europe is the Caspian depression.
Codes:
1. Primitive hunters maintain a balance between the supply and
harvest of animal resources.
2. Modern hunters have seriously damaged the environment.
3. The Eskimos are increasingly abandoning hunting.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Iowa and Illinois are known for Maize cultivation.
(b) Quebec and Ontario are the main wheat and maize producing
states of Canada.
(c) California is known for citrus fruits in North America.
(d) New Mexico and Texas are the main cotton producing states
of USA.
41. Consider the following statements about the consumption of
source of energy at the global level:
1. Oil accounts for 40 per cent of the energy used.
2. Coal accounts for 23 per cent of the energy used.
3. Natural gas accounts for 22 per cent of the energy used.
4. Hydroelectricity accounts for 5 per cent of the energy used.
5. Nuclear power accounts for 4 per cent of the energy used.
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. In 1989 Earth was declared to be the ‘Planet of the Year’.
2. The world celebrates the Earth Day on 22nd April.
3. The United Nations Conference on Human Environment was
held in Stockholm in 1972.
4. The Bhopal tragedy of leak of methyl isocyanate from a
pesticide factory occurred in 1984.
1. Japan is rich in copper deposits.
2. Japan is one of the leading exporters of iron and steel
products.
Codes:
44. Consider the following statements about the intensive
subsistence agriculture and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. Small size of holdings
2. Small and scattered fields
3. Use of domestic labour
4. Dominance of cash crops
Codes:
45. Consider the following statements about the commercial dairy
farming and select the correct answer using the code that follows:
1. It is highly mechanised.
2. The farmers are well-off.
3. It is labour intensive.
4. There is fixed ratio between agricultural land and number of
cows to be kept in the dairy.
Codes:
46. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of equatorial
forests?
1. Tall closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy.
2. Large number of species of fauna and flora.
3. Presence of numerous types of climbers and epiphytes.
4. Hard and heavy wood.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
1. Saudi Arabia has the largest known reserves of oil.
2. Venezuela has more oil reserves than Russia.
3. Germany is consuming more petroleum than Russia.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Commercial raising of plants and animals in water is known as
aquaculture.
2. The coastal areas of China and Japan are the leading
aquaculture areas of the world.
3. Some of the Japanese farmers have permanently converted
some rice fields into fish production areas.
4. The future of fish in human diet is bright.
Codes:
1. River journey is longer than road journey.
2. Rhine river is the most busy waterway in the world.
3. The Rhine river passes through France, Belgium and
Germany.
4. The Rhine river passes through Germany and Netherlands.
Codes:
1. Sea of Marmara connects the Aegean Sea with the Black Sea.
2. The Strait of Otranto connects the Adriatic Sea with the Ionian
Sea.
3. The Strait of Messina connects the Mediterranean Sea with the
Tyrrhenian Sea.
Codes:
1. The world pattern of copper mining activity has not changed
drastically in recent decades.
2. The mining area of copper in USA lies in the Appalachian
region.
3. Ural is the main iron-ore producing region of Russia.
Codes:
52. Consider the following factors responsible for the rapid industrial
development in India:
1. Substantial market
2. Available resources
3. Adequate skilled and unskilled labour
4. Availability of latest modern technology
Codes:
53. Consider the following statements about the impact of tourism on
local ways of life:
1. Tourism encourages local crafts and economies.
2. Tourism destroy local culture.
3. Tourism dramatically change local environments.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Bass Strait lies between Queensland (Australia) and
Tasmania.
(b) Cook Strait separates the North Island of New Zealand from
the South Island.
(c) Foveaux Strait lies between Stewart Island and New Zealand.
(d) Torres Strait separates Australia from New Guinea.
55. Arrange the following countries according to the density of
population in a descending order and select the correct answer
1. Lebanon
2. Iran
3. Israel
4. Turkey
Codes:
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
56. Which one of the following is not an evergreen species?
(a) Beach
(b) Elm
(c) Hickory
(d) Spruce
1. The largest protected ecosystem today is that of Antarctica.
2. The first areas to be preserved as national parks were
Yosemite and Yellowstone in the U.S.A.
3. Kenya’s national parks attract the largest number of
international tourists in the world.
Codes:
58. Consider the following statements about the equatorial forests:
1. The tropical rain forests are found in lower latitudes.
2. Rainfall in the tropical rain forests exceeds 200 cm per annum.
3. Evergreen dense vegetation dominates tropical rain forest.
4. Soils of the equatorial forests are rich in humus content.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The tribal communities have a close relationship with land and
environment.
2. They have a very strong feelings about their identity.
Codes:
60. The fertility rate of a country is affected by:
1. Biological factors
2. Nutritional well-being
3. Joint Family System
4. Industrialization and Urbanization
Consider the following factors and select the correct answer using
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. ‘Over-population’ is a relative term, and areas that are densely
populated are not necessarily over-populated.
2. South Korea with a density of population about 490 persons
per sq km is not over populated.
3. Mexico with a population of 55 persons per sq km is over-
populated.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
62. Which one of the following peaks is not correctly matched?
Peak State
(a) Mehasani – Odisha
(b) Kudremukh – Karnataka
(c) Kalsubai – Maharashtra
(d) Gorakhnath – Uttar Pradesh
63. Which one of the following is the highest pass?
(a) Balcha Dhura
(b) Banihal Pass
(c) Khardungla
(d) Pir Panjal Pass
(a) Sankh is a tributary of River Brahmani.
(b) Ken is a tributary of River Yamuna.
(c) Tawa is a tributary of River Narmada.
(d) Bhima is a tributary of River Godavari.
1. The elephant grass is grown in West Bengal.
2. The Khus Khus grass is grown in Rajasthan.
3. Sabai grass is found in the Sub-Himalayan Tarai region.
Codes:
1. Rupnarayan is a river of West Bengal.
2. Rupnarayan originates from the plateau of Jharkhand.
3. Rupnarayan flows through the Rarh Plain.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. A poor monsoon rainfall year is one in which there are
prolonged breaks in July and August.
2. In the year of poor monsoon, the Easterly Jet Stream is strong.
Codes:
68. Balcha Dhura connects:
(a) Jammu with Kashmir
(b) Kashmir with Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim with Tibet
(d) Kumaun (Uttarakhand) with Tibet
(a) Rajasthan is the largest state of India in terms of area.
(b) Madhya Pradesh is the second largest state of India in terms
of area.
(c) Maharashtra is the third largest state of India in terms of area.
(d) Karnataka is the fourth largest state of India in terms of area.
code given below?
List I List II
(Iron ore) (District)
A. Bonaigarh 1. Chikmagalur
B. Badampahar 2. Sundargarh
C. Dalli Rajahara 3. Mayurbhanj
D. Kudermukh 4. Durg
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
1. Pulicat Lake lies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
2. Point Calimere lies in the Gulf of Mannar.
3. Asthamudi Lake lies in northern Kerala.
4. Kiliveli Lake lies in Tamil Nadu.
Codes:
72. The suitability of soil for irrigation depends on:
1. High water holding capacity
2. Low salt content
3. High permeability and infiltration rate.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
73. Which one of the following districts recorded the highest
percentage growth in the Census of 2011?
(a) Kurung Kumey (Arunachal Pradesh)
(b) Pulwama (Jammu and Kashmir)
(c) Serchip (Mizoram)
(d) Yanam (Puducherry)
1. Any person above the age of 7 years, who can read and write
in any language, is treated as literate.
2. The literacy rate of females was more in the decade 2001-2011
as compared to males during the same decade.
3. The lowest female literacy rate is in the state of Jammu and
Kashmir.
Codes:
(a) Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India.
(b) Lakshdweep has the second highest literacy rate in the
country.
(c) Bihar has recorded the lowest female literacy rate.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir has the literacy rate below the national
level.
(a) Buddhism was founded in reaction to aspects of Hinduism.
(b) A major attraction of the teachings of Gautam Buddha was
the rejection of the millions of Hindu gods.
(c) Buddha opposed the greater social mobility.
(d) Buddha questioned the rigid caste system.
1. A sanctuary may be declared either by the state government or
the central government.
2. Human interaction is allowed in the buffer zone of a sanctuary
3. Hunting of birds is allowed in a sanctuary with the permission
in limited quantity.
Codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Niti Aayog (Planning Commission) of India makes an
assessment of the material, capital and human resources of
the country.
2. It formulates a plan for the most effective and balanced
utilisation of the resources of the country.
3. It determines the priorities and proposes the allocation of
resources for the due completion of priorities.
4. It determines the conditions for the successful execution of the
plan.
Codes:
79. Which one of the following is correct about planning?
(a) Physical planning is more important than financial planning.
(b) Financial planning is more important than physical planning.
(c) Physical planning and financial planning are equally
important.
(d) Physical planning and financial planning are complementary.
80. The western influence is felt in many ways in the lifestyle of
North-East India.
1. The development of plantation agriculture.
2. The introduction of Christianity.
3. The introduction of English language.
4. The plural societies of North-east India make economic
development uneven.
81. Consider the following statements about the contract farming:
1. It is a system of farming in which agro-processing/exporting
units enter into a contract with farmers to purchase a specified
quantity of any agricultural commodity.
2. Contract farming functions as a tool to minimize price risk for
farmers.
3. Private companies entering into such contracts provide
technological and capital support to contracted farmers.
4. Only genetically modified cereals are preferred in contract
farming.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Minerals in India are the prime sources of basic metals and
energy.
2. India is rich in coal to meet the national requirements.
3. The oil reserves in India are putting serious hurdles in
economic growth.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
1. The New Agricultural Policy was announced in July 2000.
2. The aim of the New Agricultural Policy is to achieve the target
of 4 per cent growth in agricultural sector per annum.
3. The focus of the new policy is on efficient use of resources and
technology.
4. One of the objectives of the new agricultural policy is to
provide adequate credit to the farmers.
Codes:
1. Arable crops are like sweet-potato, urad, turmeric and ginger.
2. Green-gram, cow-pea, onion and radish are catch/contingent
crops.
3. Rice and wheat are energy crops.
4. Maize, potato and vegetables are cleaning crops.
Codes:
85. Which of the following statements is not correct about the tube
well irrigation?
(a) Installation of tube-wells have lowered the water-tables.
(b) Tube-wells have environmental advantages over canal-fed
irrigation as they use local water supplied.
(c) Tube well irrigation is benefitting the big and the small farmers
equally.
(d) Tube wells encourage downward water movement in the soil
to avoid salinization.
86. Which one of the following is not correct about the Indian
industrial development?
(a) Adequate raw material is not available.
(b) Industrial sickness.
(c) There is adequate emphasis on research and development.
(d) Private sector is more efficient.
87. Consider the following about the WTO Agreement and select the
1. Its headquarters is located at Geneva, Switzerland.
2. It was established on Ist January, 1995.
3. It was created by Uruguay Round Negotiations (1986–94).
Codes:
88. Consider the following statements about the evolution of Indian
industries and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. Industrial development is considered as one of the important
indicators of socio-economic development.
2. Before the rise of modern industries, India was known all over
the world for its cottage industries.
3. The arrival of English people resulted in the decay of traditional
handicrafts.
4. In the later part of the 19th century, the growth of industries
was rapid in India.
Codes:
89. The main objectives of Special Economic Zones are:
(a) To eradicate unemployment.
(b) To promote foreign trade.
(c) To accelerate the process of industrialisation.
(d) To reduce regional inequalities.
90. Despite having large deposits of coal, why does India import
millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its coal reserves for the future
and import it from other countries for present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are
not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the
country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has
to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The national rail road was the major freight hauler at
Independence.
2. After Independence, road transport grew rapidly in India.
3. Both rail and road transport remain important today.
Codes:
92. Consider the following statements about sustainable development
1. There should be a sustained rise in the per capita income.
2. Natural resources should be utilised judiciously.
3. Sustainable development aims at making use of natural
resources in such a way as not to reduce ability of the future
generations to meet their own needs.
Codes:
93. Consider the following statements about the earth crust:
1. The outer shell of crystalline surface rock is known as earth
crust.
2. The thickness of earth crust ranges between 5 and 60 km from
oceanic crust to mountain ranges.
Codes:
1. The texture of a rock refers to size, shape and arrangement of
its constituent mineral grains.
2. The basaltic magmas are more fluid than silicic magma.
3. The basaltic magma extrudes as quiet fissure eruption.
4. Basaltic magma occur on the ocean floor and as flood basalt
on continents.
Codes:
95. The term ‘wind-gap’ is associated with:
(a) Glacier
(b) Running water
(c) Underground water
(d) Wind action
1. Running water is the most important agent of erosion.
2. A river system consists of a main channel and all of the
tributaries that flow into it.
3. A river consists of collection system, transport system and
dispersing system.
4. A river system is known as drainage system.
1. A portion of arriving energy bounces directly back into space
without being converted into heat or performing any work.
2. Earth’s atmosphere and surface are heated by solar energy.
3. The heat budget of atmosphere energy comprises of
shortwave radiation inputs (ultraviolet light, visible light and
near-infrared wavelengths) and long-wave radiation outputs
(thermal infrared, or heat).
4. A balance of energy input and output exists in our atmosphere.
Codes:
98. Consider the following statements about rice cultivation:
1. In intensive subsistence rice cultivation the size of holding is
small.
2. The rice crop in this type agriculture is submerged under water.
3. The soil depletion is minimum in intensive rice cultivation.
4. There is a close relationship between wet rice cultivation and
high population densities.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The Mediterranean agriculture is known as mixed
subsistence/commercial agriculture.
2. Mixed farming involves both crops and livestock.
3. In mixed farming crops are sown mixed with each other in the
same field.
4. The contemporary mixed farming is intensive and commercial.
1. Man and Biosphere (MAB) is an Inter-Governmental Scientific
Programme.
2. The main objective of the MAB is to improve the relationship
between men and their environment.
3. It proposes an interdisciplinary agenda for the sustainability
ecosystems.
4. The agenda of MAB is defined and monitored by the World
Bank.
Which of the above statement/statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Biosphere Reserves are sites of excellence where new and
optimal practices to manage nature and human activities are
tested and demonstrated.
2. After their designation, biosphere reserves remain under
national sovereign jurisdiction. yet they share their experience
and ideas, regionally, nationally and internationally within the
World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The core area of a biosphere reserve should be kept
absolutely undisturbed.
2. The buffer zone which surrounds the core zone is managed in
ways that protect the core zone.
3. The transitional zone is the outermost part of the biosphere
reserves which grazing and settlements are not allowed.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. A few of the hot deserts are right on the sea coast.
2. The sea coast deserts are influenced by cold offshore ocean
currents.
3. The sea coast deserts experience summer fog.
4. The driest desert of the world lies in the heart of the Sahara
Desert.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The tropical rain forest is girdled with a lush green biome.
2. The Amazon region is the largest tract of tropical rain forests.
3. The soils of the tropical rain forests are rich in humus contents.
4. The Amazon tropical forests are known as ‘selvas’.
Codes:
105. Consider the following statements about the protected area
in India and select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. National Parks constitute about 1.2 per cent of the total
geographical area of India.
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries constitute about 3.60 per cent of the total
geographical area of India.
3. The total protected area of India is about 4.83 per cent of the
total geographical area of India.
Codes:
106. Which one of the following statements is not correct as a
unit of measurement?
(a) Economic distance is related to the mode of movement, traffic
distances, and various regulations regarding movement.
(b) Economic distance is defined as the cost incurred to
overcome physical distance.
(c) Cognitive distance is the objective distance.
(d) Social distance is measured by the amount of interaction
between groups and communities.
107. Consider the following statements about India’s Action Plan
on Climate Change:
1. India’s Action Plan on Climate Change hinges on the
development and use of new technology.
2. The National Nuclear Mission is a major initiative in this
direction.
3. The emphasis will be on energy efficiency and natural resource
conservation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
108. The main objectives of the New Forest Policy of India were:
1. To recognize the natural relationship between the tribal people
and forests.
2. To extend the forest cover to more than two-thirds of the land
in the hills and mountains.
3. Restriction on the diversion of land except for the cultivation
tea, coffee, rubber, spices, palm and oil-bearing plants.
4. To discourage the forest based industries.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
109. Which one of the following planets has the shortest day?
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
110. Which one of the following planets has the longest period of
revolution?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Neptune
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (c)
56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b)
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (c)
76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c)
86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b)
96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a)
106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (d) 109. (a) 110. (b)
PART-IV:
PREVIOUS YEARS’ PAPERS
Previous Year Paper 2010
1. A new type of EI Nino called EI Nino Modoki appeared in the
news. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Normal EI Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas EI
Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.
2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic
ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of
hurricanes with greater frequency.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in
the area described above?
(a) Mustard
(b) Cotton
(c) Pepper
(d) Virginia tobacco
3. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the
largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
4. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the
country. What could be the reason?
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is / are the correct reasons?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. The approximate representation of land use classification in India
is
(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%
6. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat.
(b) It flows into Gulf of Kutch.
(c) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kutch.
7. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the
most likely geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from
Siberia.
2. Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial
soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at
present.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts
to about less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth, 95% is
bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are
(a) Beas and Chenab only.
(b) Beas and Ravi only.
(c) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only.
(d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna.
11. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil.
What is the main reason for this colour?
(a) Abundance of magnesium
(b) Accumulated humus
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
(d) Abundance of phosphates
12. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for
considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock
systems of India?
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in
them.
(b) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them.
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over
them.
(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this
context.
13. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of
the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
14. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern
hemisphere?
(a) Temperature
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Pressure
15. With reference to the mineral resource of India, consider the
following pairs:
Mineral 90% Natural Resources in
1. Copper Jharkhand
2. Nickel Odisha
3. Tungsten Kerala
Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Dam/Lake River
(a) Govind Sagar : Satluj
(b) Kolleru Lake : Krishna
(c) Ukai Reservoir : Tapi
(d) Wular Lake : Jhelum
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (b)
Explanations
1. El nino modoki is a coupled ocean atmosphere phenomenon in
the tropical pacific. It is different from conventional el nino and
characterised by strong anomalous warming in the eastern
equatorial pacific.
Whereas, El nino modoki is associated with strong anamolous
warming in the central pacific and cooling in eastern and western
tropical pacific.
2. Mustard is principally grown in arid areas. Cotton is grown in
black soil region,which does not require 200 cm of rainfall. Virginia
tobacco cannot exist above 125 cm rainfall. Conditions given are
conducive for the growth of pepper.
3. Types of forest – Area
Montane wet temperature–3.45%
Sub tropical dry evergreen–0.36%
Tropical moist deciduous–33.92%
Tropical wet evergreen–8.75%
4. In Tamil Nadu, major soils are red sandy,alluvial and red loamy
soils. Tamil Nadu has one of the most skilled labour forces in
India.
5. The approximate representation of land use classification in India
is option (D), because net sown area is 46% and total forest area
is 26.96%.
6. Luni is an endorheic river which makes an inward flowing pattern
in semi arid zone of Rajasthan. Luni originates in Western slopes
of aravalli ranges. After flowing for 495 kms in a South Westerly
direction in Rajasthan, the river disappears in the Marshy lands of
Rann of Kutch.
7. Siberian cold winds would have no barrier without Himalayas.
Without himalayas, monsoon winds would not be deflected
towards North India. Without himalayas, indo-gangetic plain would
be devoid of such alluvial soils because these souls are deposited
by Himalayan rivers.
8. The latitude that pass through Sikkim also pass through
Rajasthan. 27° latitude passes through gangtok of Sikkim and
alwar of Rajasthan.
9. Freash water comprises of ice caps-68%
Ground water-30%
Other sources-0. 9%
Less than 1% of world’s fresh water (0. 0007%) of all water on
Earth is accessible for direct human consumption.
10. Beas flows through Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh. Chenab
flows through Manali district. Ravi flows through chamba district.
Sutlej flows through kalpa, bilaspur, etc. districts. Yamuna makes
boundary between Himachal Pradeshand uttarakhand. It flows
through mahan district and enters Himachal Pradesh in sirmur
district.
11. Red soils have been developed over Archean granite, gnesis and
other crystalline rocks,the sediments of the cuddapah and
vindhyan basins and mixed Dharwarian group of rocks.
Their colour is due to ferric oxides occuring as thin coating on
the soil particles. While iron oxide occurs as haemetite the colour
is red and when it occurs in the hydrate form as limonite, the soil
gets yellow colour.
12. Around 98% of coal reserves of India are found in gondwana rock
system. This significant coal seems to have been found in the
rocks of lower gondwana age. The lower gondwana coalfields are
present in the states of Andhra, Assam, odisha and westbengal.
Although upper gondwana coals have been found in Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra but in the field of production
the lower gondwana fields are more important.
13. Mediterranean climate type is associated with all the above
features. The climate is known for warm to hot in dry Summers
and mild to cool in wet winters. The cause of this climate is
directly linked to large bodies of water such as Mediterranean Sea
and ocean currents. Almost no rainfall during the summer. Most of
the rainfalls during the cooler winter.
14. Deflection of wind towards left in southern hemisphere and right
in northern hemisphere is mainly due to rotation of Earth and
Ferrel’slaw talks about law of diversion, i.e., left andright in South
and north hemisphere respectively.
15. Most of nickel reserves of India are found in cuttack, keonjar and
mayurbhanj districts of odisha (92%). About 175 million tonnes of
nickel is estimated in odisha.
Copper is mostly found in Bihar-jharkhand (44%). Tungsten is
produced only in Degana mine in Rajasthan.
16. Govind Sagar dam is on sutlej near Punjab. Kolleru lake is
located between Krishna and godavari river valleys and serves as
natural flood balancing reservoir for both the rivers. River
Budaneru drains into kolleru lake. Ukai reservoir is on tapi river.
Wular lake is on river Jhelum.
1. Two important rivers–one with its source in Jharkhand (and
known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source
in Odisha–merge at a place only a short distance from the coast
of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important
site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
Which one of the following could be this?
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur on sea
(c) Gopalpur on sea
(d) Simlipal
2. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly
as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability.
(c) the rain forest species are slow-growing.
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.
3. In the context of global oil prices “Brent crude oil” is frequently
referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major source classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 ad 3
(d) 1,2,3
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on
Earth?
(a) 1,4
(b) 2,3
(c) 2,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
5. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia.
How is La Nina different from EI Nino?
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature
in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas EI Nino is characterised by
unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific
Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India,
but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can
be checked.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
7. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable
climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids
with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export
oriented industry in this field?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal pradesh
(c) Madhya pradesh
(d) Uttar pradesh
8. Salinisation occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the
soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the
effects of salinisation on the irrigated land?
(a) It greatly increases the crop production.
(b) It makes some soils impermeable.
(c) It raises the water table.
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water.
9. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed
of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and
Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and
Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
10. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent
than in northern hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to
northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to
northern hemisphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance
can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and
Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf
of Siam and Andaman Sea.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with
high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the
following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?
(a) paddy and cotton
(b) wheat and jute
(c) paddy and jute
(d) wheat and cotton
13. What could be the main reasons for the formation of African and
Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this
context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower
stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this
context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet
and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their
upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in
its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series.
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas.
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain
chains.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
16. A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above
characteristics?
(a) Andhra pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil nadu
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. (b)
Explanations
1. Brahmani is a seasonal river in Odisha which is formed by
confluence of Sankh and South Koel rivers where Sankh
originates near Jharkhand-Chhattisgarh border and South Koel
also from Jharkhand, near Lohardaga, which both rivers sourced
from Chota Nagpur Plateau. Bhitarkanika National Park and
Mangrove Forest lies at confluence of rivers Brahmani and
Baitarni.
2. Due to poor soil quality, the growth of vegetation in tropical
rainforest is good where minerals and neutrients gets vanished
due to excess rains. Such type of rain forest soil are poor where
nutrients are stored inside the plants. The soil of tropical
rainforests are leached and devoid of nutrients. When tree cover
is removed, its regeneration is difficult which replaces forest by
Savanna vegetation.
3. Brent Crude is a classification of sweet light crude oil serving as
benchmark price for buying oil globally. It is extracted from North
Sea having 0.37% of sulphur and serving as biggest
classifications of crude oil with Brent Crude, Brent Sweet Light
Crude, Oseberg, Ekofisk and Forties.
4. Photosynthesis is a process used by plants to convert light
energy from Sun into chemical energy which can be used as
energy for organisms. Such energy is stored in carbohydrate
molecules which are synthesised from carbon dioxide and water.
In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is removed from air to make
plant food from carbon, thus statement 1 removes instead of
adding carbon dioxide.
5. It is studied that El Nino and La Nina, both occur in equatorial
Pacific Ocean where atmosphere above it change from neutral
state for many seasons that appears as natural part of global
climatic system. It is believed that El Niño events are linked with
warming of central and eastern tropical Pacific, while La Niña
events sustains cooling of areas. In case of La Nina years, trade
winds are strong due to enhanced pressure gradient among
eastern and western Pacific which enhanced upwelling along
coast of South America. La Nina during summer season, Indian
monsoon rainfall tends to appear greater as normal, in northwest
India.
6. Micro irrigation is an irrigation method which conserves water and
fertilizer by allowing water to drip slowly to roots, either onto soil
surface or directly to root zone by network of valves, pipes, tubing
and emitters. With Micro irrigation:
• Fertilizer and nutrient loss is minimised with local application.
• Water application efficiency is high.
• Field levelling is not required.
• Irregular shaped fields are easily accommodated.
• Recycled non-potable water can be safely used.
• Moisture in root zone can be maintained at field capacity.
• Type of Soil plays less important role in frequency of irrigation.
• Soil erosion and Weed growth are lowered.
Statement 1 is correct as Micro irrigation helps in checking loss of
nutrients. Statement 2 is incorrect as micro irrigation is not the
only means of irrigation in dry land farming. Statement 3 is correct
as Micro irrigation will be able to check depletion of ground water
to some extent.
7. As seen, the cool climatic Orchids appears from colder mountain
ranges where average temperature is colder in summer with day
temperature of around 14 °C and 21 °C and the night temperature
at 7 °C and11 °C. It is seen that the medium climate Orchids
results from similar conditions from lower altitude as compared to
colder climate orchids. The warm climate Orchids appears in
tropical and subtropical areas without much fluctuation in
temperatures. From the above discussion we see that Arunachal
Pradesh where 1250 varieties of orchids are available which will
be the best suited place.
8. Salinisation is a process by which an increase the concentration
of water soluble salts in the soil. Salinity affect plant growth where
high salts concentration results in high osmotic potential which
makes plant to use excess energy to absorb water.
9. Asteroids are hot gases which are closer to Sun where ices
remain as solid. Comets are extra planetary elements which
appears from outside of solar system and remained farther from
the Sun where ice will not melt. Basically asteroids and comets
differs due to their composition as Asteroids are made from
metals and rocky material, while comets are made of ice, dust
and rocky material, so only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
10. Westerlies are normally stronger in areas where there is no land
as land amplifies flow pattern by making the wind current to move
more north south. It plays an important role in bringing warm,
equatorial waters and winds to western coasts particularly in
southern hemisphere due to its huge oceanic stretch. It is
strongest in Southern Hemisphere because of the absence of
varied heating rates which results because of no land masses, so
only statement 1 is correct which makes option (a) correct.
11. It is seen that Malacca Strait appears as mainly and singly
navigation channel which covers more than one third of cargo
movement, hence by deepening its channel will lower the repair
and waiting period of heavy liners, hence statement 1 is correct.
By opening new canal in Kra Insthums will also lower the
navigation time and distance, hence statement 2 is also correct.
12. It is known that the lower deltaic plains of Ganges and
Brahmaputra are characterised by swamps and sundarbans
where people can easily grow Paddy and Jute crops as both
these crops are water intensive and both needs the temperature
above 25°C, so with this explanation option (c) is correct.
13. African and Eurasian desert belt lies in vicinity of cold currents
having desiccating effect on air, so with this we see that statement
2 is incorrect. Normally it is seen that deserts are mostly located
around 20-30° north and south of Equator along Tropics of Cancer
and Capricorn. The hot air at equator rises and spreads north and
south before cooling which further gets condense and tends to
release moisture over tropical zones creating equatorial zone of
low atmospheric pressure. Two tropical zones are at high
pressure close to the poles which are two low cooler pressure
belts. When denser air sinks to two subtropical high pressure
belts, it creates a wind which is hot without moisture that normally
appears from Sahara, hence statement 1 is correct, so the best
option is (a).
14. From the surface of the earth upto altitude of 10-20 km,
temperature decreases with increase in altitude which is known as
troposphere. This happens because the Sun rays will able to
penetrate from the atmosphere rather than heating the surface
from below. Now above this belt is stratosphere, where
temperature increases with increase in height which extends uptil
45 km. In this belt, the airflow is less turbulent as there will be no
up/down movement of air, so there will be no interruption for Jet
planes, hence option (b) is correct.
15. During early years, Tethys sea flows that further moves away
during early Eocene that was noticed by closeness of Indian and
Asian plates. Such marine deterioration continued till final
appearance of Himalaya around Tethys sea came into picture.
Both plates after colliding slow down the speed of northerly drift of
Indian Plate and changes drift direction. With this, Indian Plate
rotate and forms syntaxial bends at northeastern and
northwestern extremities of Himalayas.
16. Among the following states, Gujarat’s northern part is arid and
semi-arid which produces cotton apart from Maharashtra and
Andhra Pradesh.
1. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as
evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space.
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space.
3. Movement of asteroids in space.
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,3,4
2. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speed of
several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they
reach the surface of the earth. What prevents them from reaching
the surface of the Earth?
(a) The earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer
space.
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them
from reaching the surface of the Earth.
(d) None of the above are correct.
3. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea
buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing
desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas
of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3,4.
4. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed
farming’?
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field.
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.
(d) None.
5. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through
northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network
in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above
characteristics?
(a) Arunachal pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green
manure?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
7. Consider the following factors:
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2,3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2,3,4
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rain fed crop/crops?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
9. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for
Himalayas being young fold mountains?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2,4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1,2,3,4
10. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height
from the Earth’s surface, because
1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s
surface.
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
11. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly
raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
(c) all the solar radiations.
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation.
12. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to
reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where
he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but
he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach
his village is to walk in the
(a) direction facing the polestar.
(b) direction opposite to the polestar.
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left.
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right.
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to
northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India
decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the
Tropical Savannah Region?
(a) Rainfall throughout the year
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) definite dry and wet season
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d)
Explanations
1. It is noted that Redshifts in spectral lines of distant stars initially
was observed in 1926 attributed as phenomenon to expansion of
universe, so statement 2 is correct. In 1963, while working on
satellite designed two scientists realised microwaves which they
tested through satellite’s antenna and found mysterious
microwaves, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect as
supernova explosions helped astronomers to find distance of
galaxy and redshift of it, hence correct option is (a).
2. Electrically charged particles while travelling at much higher
speed from space cannot reach to Earths surface because of
Earth’s magnetic field which diverts such particles towards its
poles, so this shows that option A is correct.
3. It is a plant which grows near sandy soil along the rivers. The
shrubs are used for soil and water conservation. It is applied for
natural medicine with its harvested fruit containing acid. It is rich
in vitamins C, A, and E with high commercial values, so option (d)
is correct.
4. Mixed farming featured cultivation of crops with domestication of
animals which together generates income, which makes
statement C correct. Mixed farming involves cultivation of arable
crops like wheat, barley, oats or rye along with industrial crops like
sugar beet, hops, tobacco or flax, which makes statement A
incorrect. In mixed farming crop along with animal is done on
similar piece of land, so option (b) is incorrect.
5. Himachal Pradesh is located at north of Rajasthan at different
latitude, so it is incorrect. Option A is correct as Arunachal
Pradesh lies on similar latitude with more than 70% area under
forest with 15% of the total forest cover being protected by
Department of Environment and Forests, which was declared as
Protected Area. Hence option (a) is correct.
6. Cowpea is a kharif crop which is used as pulse, fodder and green
manure crop, so 1 is correct.
Green gram is a pulse crop which is rich in proteins, which is also
used as pulse, fodder and green manure crop, so 2 is also
correct. Pigeon pea is a food crop which is used as cover crop,
green manure, inter crop, etc., hence it is correct, so the best
option is (d).
7. Ocean currents are caused due to wind, density differences in
water masses, gravity, and events such as earthquakes. They are
equivalent to winds in atmosphere where transfer of heat from
Earth’s rotation appears, so statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct,
hence option (b) is correct.
8. Sesamum is rainfed crop which is grown on marginal, dry and
slopy lands, so it is correct. It is noted that maximum area sown to
groundnuts in India is rainfed which depends on summer
monsoon rainfall, so is also correct. There are many rainfed
cereals in India such as sorghum, pearl millet, finger millet, so it is
also correct, hence correct option is (d).
9. Fold mountains results from collision among landmasses which
makes point of collision to rise high and forms a mountain.
Himalayas are folded mountains as they are formed by folding of
rocks along the edges of continents due to force, pressure and
collision. Further High Himalayas have rivers with steep gradients
that appears from differential uplift of Himalayas where parallel
ridges are located, so this makes 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct, hence
option (d) is correct.
10. Statement 1 is correct as temperature will decrease when height
increases as the air near surface gets heated which become
lighter and the higher air gets cools and becomes heavy.
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct as water vapour forming 1% of
air varies in troposphere and will decrease fast with altitude,
hence correct option is A since only statement 1 is correct.
11. Carbon dioxide controls temperature in atmosphere as its
molecules in air tends to absorb infrared radiation. The carbon
dioxide in atmosphere are transparent to visible radiation which
delivers sun’s energy to earth, so with this option (d) is correct.
12. The star in night sky which does not move is called as Polaris,
Pole star or North Star, which tells you of north direction. Since
the direction of the village is on left from where he happen to see
pole star, so in such case the person will have to walkdown by
keeping polestar on left, hence option (c) is correct. Option (a) is
incorrect as if the person walks in direction of polestar, then he will
walk towards north, which is incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect as
the person if walking in opposite direction of polestar will move
towards south. Option (d) is incorrect as if the person while
walking keeps the polestar towards his right, then he will tends to
move towards west direction.
13. Statement 1 is correct as duration of monsoon season decrease
from south to north India and from the east to west India.
Statement 2 is correct as amount of rainfall decreases from east
to west due to decrease in humidity of winds, hence both
statements are correct which makes option (c) correct.
14. The tropical savannas region lies in tropical climatic zone where
temperature is warm throughout the year. Such region has mean
temperatures above 18°C with definite wet and dry seasons,
hence option (d) is correct. Option (a) is incorrect as such region
have annual rainfall during wet season only and not all through
the year.
1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical feature and region
(a) Abyssinian Plateau–Arabia
(b) Atlas mountains–Northwest Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands–Southwest Africa
(d) Okavango Basin–Patagonia
2. Variations in the length of day time and night time from season to
season are due to
(a) the earth’s rotation on its axis.
(b) the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner.
(c) latitudinal position of the place.
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.
3. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large
peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from central India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
4. On the planet earth, most of the fresh water exists as ice caps
and glaciers. Out of the remaining fresh water, the largest
proportion
(a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds.
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers.
(c) exists as groundwater.
(d) exists as soil moisture.
1. Nokrek Bio-Sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range
3. Namdapha National Park: Daphla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2,3
(d) None
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes
in the surface of the earth?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
National Park River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
8. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the
regions where
(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet.
(b) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea.
(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet.
(d) continental shelf is undulating.
9. Which of the following is / are unique characteristic /
characteristics of equatorial forests?
1. Presence of tall closely set trees with crowns forming a
continuous canopy.
2. Coexistence of a large number of species.
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3.
10. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents
is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason /
reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land and water.
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans.
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior.
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
11. Which of the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India
are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
13. Consider the following crops :
1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a) 1,4
(b) 2,3
(c) 1,2,3
(d) 2,3,4
14. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be
nomadic herders. The above statement best describes which of
the following regions?
(a) African Savanna
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Siberian Tundra
15. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by
the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
Explanations
1. Option (a) is incorrect as Abyssinian Plateau is located in Ethiopia
and not in Arabia. Option B is correct as Atlas Mountains is
located in North western Africa which is about 2500 km. Option
(c) is incorrect as Guiana Highlands is a plateau which is a type of
low mountain region in South America located north of Amazon
and south of Orinoco River. Option (d) is incorrect as Okavango
Basin is located in South western Africa and not in Patagonia.
2. The three reasons that contributes in variations of day and night
time seasons are:
1. Tilting of Axis
2. Revolution of Earth around the Sun
3. North Pole pointing in similar direction
3. Narmada River is among the major rivers in peninsular India
which flows from east to west towards rift valley, so statement 1 is
correct.
Narmada enters structural channel between Vindhya and Satpura
ranges and flows across Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in Gulf of
Khambhat, so statement 2 is also correct but that is not the
reason for flow towards west.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
4. On Earth, apart from ice caps and glaciers, the fresh water in
maximum proportion exists as groundwater which approximates
25 to 30% as described from the global distribution table, so
option (c) is correct.
Global Water Distribution Percent of Fresh Water

Oceans, Seas, and Bays -
Ice Caps, Glaciers and Permanent Slow 68.7
Groundwater -
Fresh 30.1
Saline -
Soil Moisture 0.05
Ground Ice and Permafrost 0.86
Lakes -
Fresh 26
Saline -
Atmosphere -
Swamp Water 0.04
Rivers 0.03
Biologic Water 0.006
Total 100.0
5. Statement 1 is correct as the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve which is
a national park is located in West Garo Hills. Statement 2 is
incorrect as Logtak (Loktak) Lake is located in Manipur and not
within Barail Range as these are mountain ranges which
separates Barak and Brahmaputra Valleys of Assam. Statement 3
is incorrect as Namdapha National Park borders to south and east
by Patkai hills and not by Daphla Hills, so only option ais correct.
6. 1 is correct as Electromagnetic radiation brings changes in
Earth’s surface through rainfall, wind, and certain climatic factors.
Statement 2 is correct as Geothermal energy is thermal energy
generated and stored in Earth which helps in mitigation of climate
change. Statement 3 is correct as Gravitational Force is
responsible for landslides, river flow and related diastrophic
changes in earth’s surface. Statement 4 is correct as plate
movements create rift valleys, mountains and several large scale
physical features which brings dynamic changes on earth’s
surface. Statement 5 is incorrect as rotation of earth is
responsible for climate and does not relate to large changes on
earth’s surface. Statement 6 is not correct as revolution of earth
results in seasonal changes only without concerning any changes
on earth’s surface, so the correct option is (a).
7. Ramganga river flows through Jim Corbett National Park and not
Ganga river, so it is incorrect. Kaziranga National Park is located
on flood plains of Brahmaputra River and not on Manas river, so
this also incorrect. Silent Valley National Park is an ecologically
diverse area located on Kunti river and not on Kaveri river, hence
it is also incorrect. From the options given in the question, none of
them is correct, so correct option is (d).
8. It is seen that the world’s most productive fishing grounds are
located where warm and cold currents meet as these regions tend
to have regular foggy conditions and because of this lot of weeds
are found in that area which makes the fishes to attract for their
feed, so option (c) is correct.
9. Statement 1 “Presence of tall closely set trees with crowns
forming a continuous canopy “ is correct as equatorial forests has
different types of trees and other plants that are growing closely in
small area where crowns of trees about 65 feet to 130 feet high
which are tightly packed together that looks as canopy from
above and not allow sunlight to enter. Statement 2 “Coexistence
of a large number of species” is correct as in such forest, there
are 750 species of tree and 1500 species of flowering plant in 4
square miles of forest. Statement 3 “Presence of numerous
varieties of epiphytes” is correct as many epiphytes plant grow on
trees, as all 3 statements are correct, so correct option is (d).
10. Temperature at coastal is not so hot as compared to portion
inside the continent as water having higher heat capacity as
compared to soil and rock allows ocean to take longer time to
heat and to cool the land. Since coastal areas have more
moderate temperatures as compared to inland areas because of
heat capacity, the areas near ocean remains cooler during day
with moderate temperature range as to inland areas, which clearly
supports option (a) as annual temperature range of continent and
inside of continent differs due to thermal difference among land
and water.
11. Laterite soil in India contains iron and aluminium that is rusty red
in colour due to presence of iron oxide found in hot and wet
tropical areas. Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and coconut mostly
grows in such soil. We see that the description clearly satisfies
statements 1 and 4, so correct option is (c).
12. Statement 1 is correct as shale a non-conventional natural gas
which is found in Gondwana rock. Statement 2 is correct as
Koderma was considered as the mica capital of India. Statement
3 is incorrect as Dharwar is famous for Uranium deposits and not
petroleum, as both statements 1 and 2 are correct so correct
option is (a).
13. Kharif crops are monsoon crops which are planted for autumn
harvest that gets cultivated at the time of monsoon such as
Cotton, groundnut and rice, so 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 4
Wheat is incorrect as it is a Rabi crop, hence option (c) is correct.
14. Option (a) is incorrect as in African Savanna has tropical
grassland with warm temperatures all round the year with highest
rainfall. Option (b) is incorrect as in Central Asia Steppe, the
climate is sub-humid and semi-arid with annual precipitation is 18
to 10 inches with snow ranges from 4 to 20 inches deep. Option
(c) is not correct as North American Prairie has less rainfall with
moist and dry climates. Option (d) is correct as Siberian Tundra
has limited rainfall with extreme climate where nomadic herding is
main activity.
15. Thunderstorm is a storm with lightning and thunder which is
produced by cumulonimbus clouds. Thunder appears when
lightning on crossing sky makes air around it so hot that it
produces powerful explosion. Statement 1 is incorrect as thunder
is not produced by meeting of giant cumulonimbus clouds but
takes place in such clouds. Statement 2 is incorrect as thunder in
sky is produced by lightning and not by separating nimbus clouds.
Statement 3 is also incorrect as thunder in the sky is not produced
by aggressive upward movement of air and water particles, but by
expanding and contracting of air. As all given statements are
incorrect, so correct option is (d).
1. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane
production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional
method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in
this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the
conventional method of cultivation.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1,2,4
(c) 2,3,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
2. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each
other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
Programme Project Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Ministry of
Programme Agriculture
Ministry of
2. Desert Development
Environment and
Programme
Forests
3. National Watershed Ministry of Rural
Development Project for Development
Rainfed Areas
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1,2,3
(d) None
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak Nagaland
Which pair is correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
5. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the
evolution of organisms?
1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of
the following plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
7. Consider the following countries :
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,4,5
(d) 1,3,5
Region often in news Country
1. Chechnya Russian Federation
2. Darfur Mali
3. Swat Valley Iraq
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
9. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called
‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following
‘statements:
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal
seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane
only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no
shale gas sources have been found.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the
following statement :
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3
11. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3,4
12. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of
the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
13. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates
14. Consider the following rivers:
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
Wetlands Confluence of rivers
Confluence of Beas and
1. Harike Wetlands
Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana Confluence of Banas and
National Park Chambal
Confluence of Musi and
3. Kolleru Lake
Krishna
Which of the above pairs is are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
Hills Region
1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India
4. Mikir Hills North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
17. Turkey is located between:
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
18. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities
in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-2-1
19. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed
Development Programme’?
1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Region Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur Area nut
2. Mewat Mango
3. Coromandel Soya bean
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1,2,3
(d) None
21. Consider the following towns of India:
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Kamal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional
sarees/fabric?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2,3
(d) 1,3,4
National Highway Cities connected
1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1,2,3
(d) None
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (d)
Explanations
1. Sustainable Sugarcane is a method of sugarcane production
which makes use of less seeds and water which mainly relates to
agriculture system. Such initiatives enhance productivity of water,
land and labour further decreases pressure on water resources.
The main idea of such initiative is to increase the nursery with
single bud chips, transplanting of young seedling after grading,
releasing adequate moisture by saving 40% of water usage and
further encourages organic methods of nutrient and plant
protection. This descriptions shows that SSI involves lowering of
seed cost as compared to standard methods of cultivation,
practicing of drip irrigation and practicing of intercropping, which
describes that statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct, hence option (b)
is correct.
2. Ten Degree Channel is a channel which is approximately 10 km
wide which separates Little Andaman and Car Nicobar Islands in
Bay of Bengal.
Little Andaman and Car Nicobar Islands together form the Union
Territory of India as Andaman and Nicobar islands. The Channel
runs along East West orientation and lies on 10 degree line of
latitude, North of equator.
3. Drought Prone Area Programme is started by Ministry of Rural
Development in 1973-74 which aims to relieve impact of droughts
that happens on crops, livestock, humans and productivity of land
mainly to drought proofing areas. Desert Development
Programme was started in 1977-78 by Department of Land
Resources, Ministry of Rural Development which mainly concerns
with hot desert areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana and cold
desert areas of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.
National Watershed Development Project is started by Ministry of
Agriculture. It is aimed at treating ruined lands using less cost and
right technologies. This clearly states that statements 1, 2 and 3
are incorrect, hence option (d) is correct.
4. Dampa Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram
which was also declared as Tiger Reserve, so statement 1 is
correct. Gumti wildlife sanctuary is in Tripura and not in Sikkim, so
statement 2 is incorrect. Saramati peak is above surrounding
peaks which is on boarder of Nagaland, so statement 3 is correct.
Since statements 1 and 3 are correct, so option (c) is correct.
5. Evolution result in alteration of heritable traits of biological species
over succeeding production. Continental drift theory based on
large continent Pangaea broke glacial cycle leaving signs of
evolution at both stages which influences evolution. With
presence of unique primates found in Australia and South
America, the effect of continental drift on evolution exits whose
final evolution stage Genus Homo took place in last glacial cycles.
With this we see that most appropriate answer is option (c) as
both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
6. Rhododendron plants grows on Montane Grasslands and
Shrublands wile indigenous oaks and maples found in Temperate
Broadleaf and Mixed Forests on Himalayas so both
Rhododendron and Oak are correct making option A as correct.
Sandal wood does not naturally grown on Himalayas but grows in
tropical dry region, so it is incorrect.
7. Arctic Council is high level intergovernmental forum comprising of
eight Arctic States which includes Canada, Denmark, Finland,
Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and United States, that
addresses issues faced by Arctic governments and local people
of Arctic. The options in the question suggests that Denmark,
Russian Federation and United States of America are part of
Arctic Council while Japan and United Kingdom are not, so option
(d) is correct.
8. Chechnya is located in South West Russian Federation, so it is
correct. Darfur is located in Western Sudan and not in Mali, so it is
incorrect. Swat valley is located in North West Pakistan and not in
Iraq, so it is also incorrect. Hence the above options states that
option (a) is correct.
9. Coalbed methane is a form of natural gas extracted from coal
beds and contains very little heavier hydrocarbons: propane or
butane while Shale gas is made up of methane. Statement 1 is
incorrect as Coalbed methane is a form of natural gas extracted
from coal beds and has butane and propane as hydrocarbons,
while shale gas carries methane and not a mixture of propane
and butane. In India, shale reserves are there in Cambay, Assam-
Arakan, Gondwana, Krishna Godavari, Kaveri and Indo Gangetic
plain, while Coalbed methane is only available at Asansol in West
Bengal, so statement 2 is also incorrect. Since both statements 1
and 2 are incorrect, so option (d) is the right choice.
10. Changpa is the name of semi-nomadic people belongs to tribal
community of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. Changpa of
Ladakh raising yaks and goats while nomadics will take care of
herds. They were the pastrols of Pashima goats.
11. Coral reefs are different marine ecosystems carrying calcium
carbonate structures which is secreted by corals. These are found
in abundant in the areas of Gulf of Mannar, Palk bay, Gulf of
Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and in Lakshadweep
islands, so it seems that option A is correct. Since coral reefs are
not found in Sunderbans, this eliminates options (b) and (d).
12. Soil Erosion is degradation of soil which removes the trees and
other vegetation that holds the soil together. If vegetation is
removed, soil surface gets loosen through running water and
wind. The rain water which absorbed by soil runs off the surface
carrying soil, so it is the main cause of soil erosion. Statement 1 is
incorrect as Terrace cultivation is a method of farming that
protects soil where flat platforms are constructed in steps in series
with slope and water gets retained on each terrace that helps to
raise crops. Statement 3 is incorrect as tropical climate is not
related to soil erosion, hence only statement 2 is correct, hence
option B is correct.
13. Monsoon Climate is a seasonal reversal in wind patterns which
carries dramatic change in precipitation which starts from south
west direction in summers and while returning reverses its
direction from North East. This description shows that option (c) is
correct. Option (a) is not correct as The Equatorial Climate carries
hot average temperature throughout the year with precipitation
from 60 mm to 2000 mm. It is not in effect with reversal winds.
14. The rivers which flow through Arunachal Pradesh are Siang,
Kameng Subansiri, Dirang, Lohit, Tawang, Dibhang and Tirap. It is
seen that Lohit and Subansiri are tributaries of Brahmaputra River
that flows through Arunachal Pradesh, so both 2 and 3 are
correct. 1 is incorrect as Barak river originates in Manipur and
flows through Mizoram and Assam, so option (b) is correct.
15. Harike Wetland is a man-made wetlands located in Punjab which
is near the confluence of Beas and Sutlej rivers, so 1 is correct.
Keoladeo is National Park located in Madhya Pradesh near the
confluence of Gambhir and Banganga rivers and not near
confluence of Banas and Chambal, so it is not correct. Kolleru
lake in Andhra Pradesh is a fresh water lake lies between Krishna
and Godavari river deltas, so it is incorrect. Since 2 and 3 are
incorrect, it eliminates options (b), (c) and (d).
16. Cardamom hill lies in southern part of Western Ghats in Kerala
and Tamil Nadu while Coromandel coast is coast of Tamil Nadu,
where Cardamom hill is not located so 1 is not correct. Kaimur hill
is located in Vindhyas that spreads from Madhya Pradesh to Bihar
which is away from Konkan coast, so 2 is not correct. Mahadeo
hill is located in Madhya Pradesh in Central India, so 3 is correct.
Mikir hill is part of Karbi angling plateau located in North East
India, so 4 is correct. Since 3 and 4 are only correct, so option (c)
is correct.
17. Turkey is located in Middle East with its territory in Europe and
Asia and having its coastal boarders on Mediterranean sea on
South-West and Black sea on North, so option (b) is correct.
Option (a) is incorrect as Caucasus having border of Europe and
Asia lies in between Black sea and Caspian sea. Option (c) is
incorrect as Egypt is located between Gulf of Suez and
Mediterranean Sea. Option (d) is incorrect as Jordan is situated
between Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea.
18. The correct sequence of South-East Asia countries from South to
North can be noted by considering individual latitudes of cities.
Bangkok is 13. 750 N, Hanoi is 210 N, Jakarta is 620 S while
Singapore is 130 N, so the sequence of above countries when
arranged from South to North will be Jakarta, Singapore, Bangkok
and Hanoi, so option (c) is correct.
19. Integrated Watershed Development Programme re-establishes
ecological balance related to harnessing, concerning and
developing ruined natural resources. The idea of IWDP is to save
soil run off, renewal of natural vegetation, implementing rain water
harvesting, which depict that statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
which makes option (c) correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as
recharging of ground water table excluding connection of
countries among perennial rivers with seasonal rivers.
20. From the question, mango crop production is mainly in areas of
Ambala, Panipat, Karnal, Yamunanagar and Maharashtra and not
in Mewat, so it is incorrect. The Areca Nut crop production is not
in Kinnaur region whereas it is present in coastal regions, so it is
also not correct. Soya Bean production in India is mainly in
Madhya Pradesh and not in Coromandel since it is famous for
peanut crop productions, so this is also incorrect. From the above
description we see that none of the above options are correct,
hence (d) is the correct option.
21. Kancheepuram is a place which serves as traditional home
industry for its well-known crafted sarees, so this is correct.
Chanderi, in Madhya Pradesh is famous for production of Pure
Silk, Chanderi Cotton and Silk Cotton fabrics which serve as
famous centre for traditional saree weavers, hence it is also
correct. Bhadrachalam is a religious place in Orissa which is not
related to production of traditional sarees or fabric, so it is
incorrect. Karnal in Haryana is also an invalid option as this is not
much known for traditional fabric. With this only 2 and 3 are
correct, hence correct option is (b).
22. National Highway 4 is a major highway in Western and Southern
India which connects mainly Mumbai-Chennai segment on which
Hyderabad is not located, so it is incorrect. National Highway 15 is
another highway which connects Samakhiali in Gujarat with
Pathankot in Punjab and does not pass through Jodhpur, so it is
also incorrect. National Highway 6 runs through Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal
and passes through cities such as Surat, Dhule, Jalgaon,
Bhusaval, Akola, Amravati, Nagpur, Bhandara, Durg, Raipur,
Mahasamund, Sambalpur and Kolkata. So this highway does not
pass through Mumbai, hence it is incorrect. Since all the
statements are incorrect, so the correct option is (d).
1. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical
latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the main reason?
(a) Sea Surface temperatures are low.
(b) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs.
(c) Coriolis force is too weak.
(d) Absence of land in those regions.
2. Which of the following pairs of States of India indicates the
easternmost and Westernmost State?
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
3. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of
nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
4. The Fair and Remunerative Price of Sugarcane is approved by the
(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of
Agriculture.
(d) Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee.
5. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near equator
Place of Pilgrimage: Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
7. In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products
Order, 1973
8. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the
news in the context of the events related to
(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South east asia
(d) Central Africa
9. Consider the following rivers:
1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
10. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context
of
(a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth.
(b) regions inside the Earth-like planets in outer space.
(c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space.
(d) search for meteorites containing precious metals.
11. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies
from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National park
1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched
during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
2. The Command Area Development Pro-gramme was launched
in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries,
which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
(a) 1 only
(b) 2,3,4
(c) 1,3
(d) 1,2,5
1. The winds which blow between 30°N and 60° S latitudes
throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western
region of India are part of westerlies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which of the following?
1. Gravitational Force of the Sun
2. Gravitational Force of the Moon
3. Gravitational Force of the Earth
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
16. Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the following states do “Tropical Wet Evergreen
Forests” occur?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
17. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not
open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel
18. In India, which one of the following types of forests is teak a
dominant tree species?
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands
19. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and
bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat
mounts up, dark clouds form, than rain comes with thunder and
lightning. But rain is soon over.”
Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
(a) Savanna
(b) Equitorial
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterrean
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b)
Explanations
1. In South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions located in
tropical latitudes, the cyclone will not take place as in these
regions the cold current flow which helps in lowering of sea
temperature. To have a cyclone, the temperature of the sea should
be a minimum of 27° Celsius. Option (b) is incorrect as the
formation of ITCZ is not needed to have cyclones. Option (c) is
incorrect as Coriolis force results as the weak force that is present
in the region having 0 to 5° either North or South latitudes. Option
(d) is invalid as land cuts moisture from the cyclone, so correct
option is (a).
2. In the map shown, Assam is not the easternmost state of India as
after this, Arunachal Pradesh exists while from the map, Rajasthan
is not the exact westernmost state, but from the map it is Gujarat,
so this eliminates options (a), (b) and (c).So option (d) is correct as
Arunachal Pradesh is easternmost point of Indian mainland while
Gujarat is westernmost point of Indian mainland.
3. To answer the question, let us analyse above statements.

Considering statement 1, which describes that having more
nitrogen in fertilizer, there result in proliferation of nitrogen, which
causes less amounts of micro-organisms in the field. With one
dose of fertilizer, there result in extra nitrogen in farms, so this
shows that it is incorrect which eliminates options (a) and (d).
Statement 2 explains that if use of nitrogen fertilizer is in excess,
then acidity in soil tends to increase, which is correct. Statement 3
describes that nitrogen fertilizer on breaking into nitrates will result
in emissions of nitrous oxides from soil that travels through soil. As
being water-soluble, it is available in groundwater causing certain
effects, hence it is correct. Since both statements 2 and 3 are
correct, so option (c) is correct.
4. Cabinet Committee on approval from Economic Affairs approves
Fair and Remunerative price of sugarcane that needs to be paid by
sugar mills during particular sugar season which is fixed for one
quintal. Once the approval is received their result in guaranteed
price for cane growers, hence option (a) is correct. In option (b),
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices will recommend fair
and remunerative prices as per inter-crop price parity, inflation and
return for farmers, so it is incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect as
Directorate of Marketing and Inspection will cater all agricultural
and allied produce marketing activities in the country which will
save the interest of producers, sellers and consumers. Agricultural
produce market committee save farmers from money lenders to
sell their produce at required rates and further monitors food
produce to be sold through market yard and not directly to money
lenders, so this option is not correct.
5. The Equatorial Counter Current occurs near the equator describes
eastward moving wind current which is 10-15m deep that is driven
by distinct surface wind pattern in tropics. It is found that strong
westward winds result in westward surface flow which occurs
several hundred kilometres north of equator. Option (b) is correct
as equatorial counter-current phenomenon near the equator shows
eastward flow of oceanic water that opposes and flanked by
westward currents. Option (a) is incorrect as eastward flow of the
equatorial counter-current is not concerning with Earth rotation on
its axis as it is an imaginary line which is passed through North
and South Poles. Option (c) is also not related as Salinity is
amount of salts in water and is nothing to concern with ocean
current. Occurrence of the belt of calm near equator is a region
where trade winds from north and south converges and creates a
zone with lack of wind. This option is also not related with
eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current.
6. In this question, compare Pilgrim places with their location.
Statement 1 shows that Srisailam is a town having shrine of Lord
Mallikarjuna that is located on top of Nallamala Hills, so this is
correct. Statement 2 describes Omkareshwar pilgrimage which is
located on Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh and not on Satmala
Hills, so this is incorrect. This statement eliminates options (b) and
(d). Statement 3 describes about pilgrimage place Pushkar that is
a shrine of Lord Brahma located in Ajmer district on Arravali hills
and not on Mahadeo Hills as this hill in in Madhya Pradesh, so this
is not correct. This statement eliminates options (b), (c) and (d),
hence only option (a) is correct.
7. In India, agriculture markets across the country are established
which are regulated under APMC Acts. In a state, market area is
confined and demarcated inside markets which are managed by
Market Committees that are constituted by respective State
Governments. So we see that option B is correct. We see that
option (a) is incorrect as Essential Commodities Act is related to
controlling and monitoring the production, supply and distribution
of certain commodities and not related to regulating of market.
Option (c) is incorrect as Agricultural Produce Act is related to
commodity grade designation, penalty of selling mis-graded
articles, etc. Option (d) is incorrect as Food Products Order, 1956
and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973 implement hygienic
standards and further will exercise on quality control on meat food
products.
8. Golan Heights is a Plateau which was situated between south
Lebanon, south Syria and northern Israel that was captured from
Syria and occupied by Israel in a Six-Day War taken over by Israel
in 1981. The map shows the demographic location of Golan
Heights is Middle east.
9. Vamsadhara River in Statement 1 originates from Odisha and
joins Bay of Bengal, so it can not be a tributary of Godavari, hence
this statement is incorrect. This will eliminate options (a) and (c).
Indravati River in statement 2 is a tributary of Godavari River as it
originates from Eastern Ghats in Kalahandi district and flows
towards Chhattisgarh state. This river will traverse in western and
southern direction before joining Godavari River, so this is correct.
Pranhita River in statement 3 flows in Maharashtra and in Andhra
Pradesh which joins Wainganga towards Sironcha and joins
Godavari River in Maharashtra, so it is correct. Pennar river
describe in statement 4 originates from Karnataka and flows
towards east by draining into Bay of Bengal which is again not a
tributary of Godavari, so this is incorrect and eliminates options (b)
and (c). Hence the required option is (d).
10. Planet Earth occupies some region around stars which is known
as Goldilocks Zone. It is a region around star which is neither too
hot nor too cold where planetary mass objects carries atmospheric
pressure which helps to support liquid water. This system confirms
option (c). Option (a) is incorrect as Goldilocks Zone is not in
relevance with habitable zone as it serves as range of orbits
around star where planetary surface support liquid water at
required atmospheric pressure.
11. In the Namdapha National Park, located in Arunachal Pradesh, the
climate varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic. It
is tropical and subtropical in the southern region while it is of arctic
type in the northern part of the park. The Khangchendzonga
National Park lies in Sikkim, in the state of West Bengal has many
ecosystems within itself from sub-tropical to arctic and subtropical
and East-Himalayan to Alpine. Nanda Devi National Park is a
national park situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816 m) in
the state of Uttarakhand.
12. Consider statement 1, which describes “Accelerated Irrigation
Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan
assistance to poor farmers” is incorrect, such programme gives
financial aid to speed up completion of uncompleted Major/Medium
Irrigation which will carry Extension, Renovation and Modernisation
of irrigation projects hence it will not provide loan assistance to
poor farmers. Statement 2 describes “Command Area
Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the
development of water-use efficiency” which is correct as this
programme improves utilisation of irrigation potential and
optimising agricultural productivity along with production from
irrigated areas.
13. Mekong Ganga Cooperation established on 10th November 2000
at First Ministerial Meeting in Vientiane with an idea to expand
cooperation in tourism, culture, education, and transportation
among India and countries of Mekong region such as Cambodia,
Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam and Thailand. This statement shows that
option (c) is correct as Bangladesh and China are not part of
Mekong Ganga Cooperation.
14. Westerlies wind flow between 30° N and 60° N latitude to 30° S
and 60° S latitude blowing from high pressure area in the horse
latitude towards the pole. Now on analysing both statements 1 and
2 it can be seen see that statement 1 is incorrect as Westerlies
wind flow does not blows between 30° N latitude and 60° S latitude
as mentioned in the statement. This eliminates options (a), (c) and
(d). Statement 2 is correct which says moist air masses cause
winter rams in North-Western region of India since western
cyclonic disturbances is a winter month phenomena which are
carried by westerly flow from Mediterranean region that influence
north and north-western weathering conditions in the regions of
India which are non-monsoonal precipitation driven by Westerlies.
15. Tides are basically alternate rising and falling of sea levels that are
caused mainly by gravitational pull of Moon and Sun and secondly
by rotation of Earth. In case of gravitational Earth-Moon system,
gravity behaves as rope which pulls two bodies together while
centrifugal force is applied to keep two bodies apart. As centrifugal
force is more than gravitational pull of the Moon, so the ocean
water on other side of Earth protuberance outward. Hence we see
that of the above options are correct, hence option (d) is correct.
16. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are rain forests that are found in
places where there will be heavy rainfall and annual temperature
varies from 25° to 27°C with average humidity above 78%.
Evergreen forests are commonly found along Western Ghats from
northeast to south-west across Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and parts of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands. So with this, hence, 1 and 3 are correct, hence,
correct option is (c). Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are not found
in Himachal Pradesh, so this eliminates options (b) and (d).
17. Countries having coastlines on Mediterranean Sea appears to be
Albania, Algeria, Bosnia, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece,
Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco Montenegro,
Palestine, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Turkey and Tunisia. From the
above list of countries, it is Jordan which has no opening at
Mediterranean sea as it is surrounded by Syria and Israel, with
this, option (b) is correct. Apart from Jordon, other South West
Asian countries which does not open out on Mediterranean Sea
are Iran, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Georgia, Qatar, Kuwait, Bahrain,
Iraq, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Oman and Yemen.
18. Teak is a large deciduous tree that is around 130 feet tall having
grayish brown branches that prefers moist and worm tropical
climate and can handle extreme temperatures. It serves as pioneer
species and are available in region having high rainfall of about
2000 mm. Teak tree is an important species of Tropical moist
deciduous forests as it can sustain in extreme temperature and
requires heavy rainfall of around 70-200 cm. The other species of
this forest are Sandal wood, Shisam, Mahua, Sal and Bamboo,
with this we see that option (a) is correct. Option (b) is incorrect as
Tropical rain forest are areas with hot and wet climate. The
examples of this are Banana Tree and Rubber Tree. Option (c) is
incorrect as Tropical thorn scrub forest receives very less rainfall of
about 80 cm. Option (d) is also incorrect as Temperate forest with
grasslands has extreme temperatures which does not allow Teak
plantation.
19. Equatorial climate relates to high temperatures which can be
above 28°C with heavy precipitation which can be around 900 cm
with heavy clouds having high relative humidity normally with very
less variation in temperature. This description clearly describes the
lines in the questions, so option (b) is correct.
In the affairs of times mentioned in
Community
the news
1. Kurd Bangladesh
2. Madhesi Nepal
3.
Myanmar
Rohingya
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) only 3
2. Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga
River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?
1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national
level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the
Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation
basis.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
3. Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-
coated Urea’ in agriculture?
(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by
the soil microorganisms.
(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in
the soil.
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all
released into atmosphere by crop fields.
(d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular
crops.
4. The FAQ accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural
Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems.
What is the overall goal of this initiative?
1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming
methods and financial support to local communities of
identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural
productivity.
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices
and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and
knowledge systems of the local communities.
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of
agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2, and3
5. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
6. With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through
Intensive Millets Promotion’’, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production
and postharvest technologies, and to demonstrate value
addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster
approach.
2. Poor, small marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in
this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers
of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering
them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation
equipment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 3
7. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest
areas of South India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral
Foundations’ in India?
1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts.
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining
operations.
3. Authorising State Governments to issue licences for mineral
exploration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
9. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation
Council’?
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi arabia
(c) Oman
(d) Kuwait
10. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources
found?
1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
11. Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of
practicing drip irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction in soil erosion
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above is an advantage of practicing drip irrigation
12. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Sone
(d) Narmada and Tapti
Famous Place Region
1. Bodhgaya Beghelkhand
2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
5. Tirupati Rayalaseema
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct matched?
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 2,3,4 and 5
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 1,3,4 and 5
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c)
Explanations
1. The Kurds are an ethnic group in the Middle East. They live
around Turkey, Iran, Iraq and Syria.
Madhesi people live in the Terai of Nepal.
The Rohingya people are a stateless people from Rakhine State,
Myanmar.
2. NGRBA has been established in 2009 with the objectives of (a)
ensuring effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the
river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach to promote inter-
sectoral co-ordination for comprehensive planning and
management; and (b) maintaining environmental flows in the river
Ganga with the aim of ensuring water quality and environmentally
sustainable development.
NGRBA has been mandated as a planning, financing, monitoring
and coordinating authority for strengthening the collective efforts
of the Central and State governments for effective abatement of
pollution and conservation of river Ganga so as to ensure that by
the year 2020 no untreated municipal sewage or industrial effluent
will flow into the river Ganga.
The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its
members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of
the States through which Ganga flows, vis., Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others.
3. Neem oil acts as a ‘nitrification inhibitor’ when coated on urea. By
slowing down urea hydrolysis and nitrification, it allows a more
gradual release of nitrogen, which can be used by the plant.
Neem-coating increases nitrogen use efficiency. Also, since the
urea action is prolonged, the plants stay greener for a longer time.
The other impacts of Neem Coated Urea are:
• Improvement in soil health;
• Reduction in costs with respect to plant protection chemicals;
• Reduction in pest and disease attack;
• An increase in yield of paddy, sugarcane, maize and soybean;
and
• Diversion of highly subsidised urea towards non-agricultural
purposes negligible among farmers after the introduction of the
mandatory policy of production and distribution of the only Neem
coated urea.
4.
• In order to safeguard and support the world’s agri-cultural
heritage systems, in 2002 FAO started an initiative for
identification and the dynamic conservation of Globally
Important Agricultural Heritage systems (GIAHS).
• This GIAHS Initiative promotes public understanding,
awareness, national and international recognition of Agricultural
Heritage systems. Looking to safeguard the social, cultural,
economic and environmental goods and services these provide
to family farmers, smallholders, indigenous peoples and local
communities, the programme fosters an integrated approach
combining sustainable agriculture and rural development.
The goals of GIAHS are:
• To understand and appreciate the nature friendly agricultural
practices of local and tribal populations around the world.
• To document indigenous knowledge.
• To conserve and promote these knowledge at global scale to
promote food security, sustainable development.
• Providing incentives for local population by measures like eco-
labeling, eco-tourism.
5. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
6.
• The Central government launched the Initiative for Nutritional
Security through Intensive Millet Promotion (INSIMP) in 2011-12
to promote millets as “nutri-cereals”. The scheme aims to
catalyse increased production of millets in the country.
• A key feature of INSIMP is giving input kits, comprising urea and
pesticides; costing ` 2000-3000 depending on the type of crop;
and seed kits, comprising hybrid seeds to the farmers. These
kits do not include micro irrigation equipment.
• Millets have low productivity in general and are cultivated by
poor tribal farmers in remote interior areas. Hence, any scheme
promoting millets would have more impact on poor, small
marginal and tribal farmers.
7.
• Red Sanders is found in southern Eastern Ghats mountain
range of South India.
• The tree is listed as an Endangered species by the IUCN,
because of over exploitation for its timber in South India.
• The tree is found in southern tropical dry deciduous forests.
8.
• The Mines and Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(MMDR Act, 1957) was amended through the MMDR
Amendment Act, 2015. One of the amendment provided for the
establishment of District Mineral Foundation (DMF) in any
district affected by mining related operations.
• The objective of the DMF is to work for the interest and benefit
of persons, and areas affected by mining related operations.
9. Gulf Cooperation Council is an intergovernmental political and
economic union consisting of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar,
Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
10.
• Shale gas is natural gas that is found trapped within
sedimentary rocks.
• India has an estimated 96 trillion cubic feet (tcf) of recoverable
shale gas reserves, found mainly in Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh and Rajasthan.
• In India, six basins have been identified as potentially shale gas
bearing basins– Cambay, Assam-Arakan, Gondwana, Krishna-
Godavari, Cauveri and the Indo-Gangetic plain.
11.
• Drip irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation that has the potential
to save water and nutrients by allowing water to drip slowly to
the roots of plants.
• Weeds, in order to grow, require water in fields. However, drip
irrigation provides water mostly to plants and water is not spread
on the field. This inhibits growth of weed.
• Flooding of fields lead to salinity. Drip irrigation may reduce soil
salinity since it does not spread water on fields.
• Drip irrigation may reduce soil erosion since water is sprayed
slowly to roots of plants.
• Hence all the three options are correct. However, there is no
option of 1,2 and 3. Hence, the next best answer is 1 and 3.
12. The river linking project is large scale project of GOI that aims to
connect the various rivers by network of reservoir and canal in
order to reduce the flooding of some rivers and to give water to
water deficient region.
13.
• Bagelkhand is in south of Uttar Pradesh and north of MP.
Bodhgaya is in Bihar.
• Bundelkhand is divided between the states of Uttar Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh. Khajuraho lies in Bundelkhand.
• Vidarbha is the eastern region of Maharashtra. It does not cover
Shirdi.
• Malwa region includes districts of central part of western
Madhya Pradesh and parts of south-eastern Rajasthan. It does
not include Nasik.
• Rayalaseema is a geographic region in the Andhra Pradesh. It
covers Tirupati.
1. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following
countries?
1. jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
3. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes
mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea
surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean
and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the
monsoon.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka
5. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra
but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river
Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India
and Bangladesh.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the
minimum number of States within India through which you can
travel, including the origin and the destination?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
7. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following
assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern
Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
8. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and
watch the sea, ‘you will find that the sea water recedes from the
shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a
day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water
recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
9. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the
likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this
industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and
not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels
production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the
construction is complete.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of
large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social
concerns.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2
10. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and
‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context
of:
(a) observation and understanding of the Universe.
(b) study of the solar and the lunar eclipses.
(c) placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth.
(d) origin and evolution of living organisms on the earth.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
Explanations
1. Map based - Refer atlas
2. The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) spreads on ten states
(administrative regions) namely, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and hill regions of two
states vis. Assam and West Bengal of Indian Republic.
Western Ghats are spread over six states. Kerala, tamilnadu,
karnataka, goa, Maharashtra, gujarat.
3. The Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface
temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes
alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the
ocean. An IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El
Nino on Indian monsoon. If there is a positive IOD, it can bring
good rains to India despite of an El Nino year.
5. The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse)
glacier above 7068 metres (23,189 ft), and flows southward
through gorges and rapids in the Sikkim Himalaya.
The river merges up with the Brahmaputra River after it bifurcates
the city of Jalpaiguri and flows just touching Cooch Behar district
at Mekhliganj and moves to Fulchori in Bangladesh.
7. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife sanctuary in
the erode district of tamilnadu state. With a forest area of 1,411.6
square kilometres, the reserve is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere
Reserve and lies between the Western Ghats and the rest of the
Eastern Ghats. Situated in a key position between the Western
and Eastern Ghats, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve boasts of
a wide variety of fauna. The reserve also adjoins four other
protected areas–Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary,
Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National
Park.
9. Algaculture (farming algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for
agriculture or saline water or wastewater.
Producing algae for bio-fuels (excluding simple seaweed
production) requires significant capital investments, which may be
a significant barrier in developing countries that have a weak
investment climate. Producing biofuels from algae is still in a pre-
commercial state of technology development. Most production
plants are therefore prototypes, and the development and
engineering of such plants requires a high level of expertise.
Using the land allotted to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the
amount of food available for humans, resulting in an increased
cost for both the food and the fuel produced. This is an ecological
as well as economic concern.
10. All these terms comes from the theoretical physics branch, which
investigates into state of matter and composition, origin, and
extent of universe. Singularity and event horizons are related to
black holes. Standard model of physics tries to explain universal
phenomena. String theory is used in the context of quantum
physics that is used to understand quantum phenomena.
1. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert
areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the
concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance.
Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
3. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the
following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of
silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy
Corporation of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy
sand mining in river beds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following
statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its
water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the
Salinisation of some agricultural lands.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction
non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
7. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest
to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
8. Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in
news–
Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk – Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred
thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years
ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early
atmosphere of the Earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the
Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991
and it has remained inactive since then.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the
territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those
hosted by tropical rainforests.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Consider the following pairs: Regions sometimes mentioned in
news
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
14. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the
recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a)
Explanations
1. Hard and waxy leaves, tiny leaves, thorns instead of leaves, long
roots, smaller stems or stem to be modified like leaf where the
leaf becomes thorn etc. all these are techniques of xerophytes to
protect themselves from the water loss through evaporation which
lives in hot desert areas.
2. Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that can
prevent losses of arable land while regenerating degraded lands.
It promotes maintenance of a permanent soil cover, minimum soil
disturbance, and diversification of plant species.
3. Only modules and cells are made in India, with imported material.
At present, the only incentives available for manufacturing these
is the Modified-Special Incentive Package Scheme, which is
available to all electronic goods manufacturers and implemented
by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations
of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity
Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.
4. Excessive sand mining can alter the river bed, force the river to
change course, erode banks and lead to flooding. It also destroys
the habitat of aquatic animals and micro-organisms besides
affecting groundwater recharge.
In-stream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to
bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along
coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and
the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also
lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
5. Organic matter affects both the chemical and physical properties
of the soil and its overall health.
Increased levels of organic matter and associated soil fauna lead
to greater pore space with the immediate result that water
infiltrates more readily and can be held in the soil.
Sulfur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil,
plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulfur cycle describes the
movement of sulfur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic
forms, and through living things.
6. As per the new mining law — Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015 — non-
coal mines have to be auctioned by the respective state
governments. There are three gold mines in operational
condition–Hutti and Uti in Karnataka and the Hirabuddini mines in
Jharkhand. East Singhbhum, Jharkhand has one operational gold
mine located in Kendrugocha, which is also of medium quality.
9. Scientists understand that Earth’s magnetic field has flipped its
polarity many times over the millennia. The Earth formed
approximately 4.5 billion years ago, along with the other seven
planets in the solar system. As the Earth cooled, a primitive
atmosphere was created by the out-gassing of early volcanoes.
The early atmosphere contained no oxygen and would have been
toxic to human beings, as well as most other life on Earth today.
There was no oxygen in the early atmosphere until simple
organisms evolved the capability to carry out photosynthesis.
Today, oxygen accounts for approximately 21% of the
atmospheric gases and is essential to life.
10. Kodaikanal Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal
city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir Vere Henry
Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in
creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was
developed by the British and early missionaries from USA. The
lake is saidto be Kodaikanal’s most popular geographic landmark
and tourist attraction.
11. Barren Island is an island located in the Andaman Sea. It is the
only confirmed active volcano in South Asia and the only active
volcano along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar. It
is a part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, and lies about 138 km (86 mi) northeast of the territory’s
capital, Port Blair.The first recorded eruption of the volcano dates
back to 1787. Since then, the volcano has erupted more than ten
times, with the most recent one being in 2017.
12. Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters less than
50 meters deep, in the western regions of the Indian ocean,
Pacific Ocean and Greater Caribbean. Global distribution of
corals: Australia 17%, Indonesia-16%, Philippines-9%. So,
Australia, Indonesia and Philippines together host more than one-
third of world’s corals. Thirty two out of thirty four recognised
animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to only nine
Phyla in tropical rainforests.
14. Over the last 50 years, Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its
original size mainly because of water diversion for agricultural
usages in surrounding areas. Also from a depth of 68 meters in
the 1960s, today it stands at less than 10 meters. In Lake Baikal,
water level has gone below the critical mark of 456m eleven times
since 1962. Thus, while Aral Sea has dried up immensely, Lake
Baikal shows more of a fluctuating regime and shrinkage is not
comparable to that of Aral Sea.
1. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the
country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of
minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules
related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central
Government.
3. State Government have the power to frame rules to prevent
illegal mining of minor minerals.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in which of the
last five years consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of
oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Famous Place River
1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle.
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator.
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn.
5. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and
Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs
6. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s
surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy
nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Sea Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
9. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about
the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia)
because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug.
(b) biodiesel.
(c) pulp for paper industry.
(d) textile fibre.
10. Why there is a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are
released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in
irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
11. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in
reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs.
(b) an early human species.
(c) a cave system found in North-East India.
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent.
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927,
forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on
forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a
minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of
minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b)
Explanations
1. Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(MMDR Act). Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state
governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral
concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes
connected there with.
Further, section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 empowers state
governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining,
transportation and storage of mineral sand for purposes
connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under
the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state
governments.
2. As a result of good monsoon rainfall in the country, area coverage
under Kharif crops has increased. The area under coarse grains
is smaller than that of oil seeds and the area under sugarcane
does not show a steadily increasing trend, rather fluctuates.
According to the annual reports of 2017-18 and 2016-17 of
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Government of India
the chart of food grains productions in India, clarifies all the
statements.
4. The Arctic and Antarctic Circles are located at ±66.5 degrees
latitude. Note that 66.5 + 23.5 equals 90 degrees. This means
that on 21 December when the Sun is directly over the Tropic of
Capricorn at noon, it will not be visible from the Arctic Circle. So
above the Arctic Circle, there is a period during the winter when
the sun remains below the horizon. The same is true of the
Antarctic Circle during Southern Hemisphere winter. On 21 June
when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer at noon, it is not
visible from below the Antarctic Circle.
5. Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are the water reservoirs.
Around 18 reservoirs in India have water level below 50% of
normal storage capacity. Of these, six reservoirs (Sholayar, Lower
Bhawani, Vaigai, Mettur Stanley, Aliyar, Parambikulam) are in
Tamil Nadu, three (Isapur, Yeldari, Pench (Totaladoh) in
Maharashtra.
6. When night falls, the ground radiates the day’s warmth into the
skies. The ground becomes much cooler, causing the water
vapour to condense. This condensed vapour is dew. On a cloudy
night, the clouds send the heat back to the ground so the ground
never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.
9. Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), is a fibre-yielding plant.
people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu
Kush Himalaya make fibre out of it. Particularly khar community
produces it.
The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as
national and international markets as high-end products.
10. Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that
are less than 5 mm and do not degrade or dissolve in water. They
may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off
cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products.
Microbeads are not captured by most wastewater treatment
systems. If they are washed down drains after use, they can end
up in rivers, lakes and oceans.
Once in the water, microbeads can have a damaging effect on
marine life, the environment and human health. This is due to
their composition, ability to adsorb toxins and potential to transfer
up the marine food chain. These tiny plastics persist in the
environment as they are almost impossible to remove. The best
way to reduce their impact is to prevent them from entering the
environment.
11. The Denisovans or Denisova hominins are an extinct species or
subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo without an
agreed taxonomic name. Pending consensus on its taxonomic
status, it has been referred to as Homo denisova, Homo
altaiensis, or Homo sapiens denisova.
12. The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017, exempts
bamboo grown in non-forest areas from definition of tree, thereby
dispensing with the requirement of felling/transit permit for its
economic use.
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined under the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, as all non-timber forest produce of plant
origin, and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, tusser,
cocoon, honey, waxes, lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants
and herbs, roots, tuber and the like
The Forest Rights Act, 2006, defines forest rights as inclusive of
‘Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor
forest produce which have traditionally been collected within or
outside village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and gram
sabhas having rights under this particular section of the Act will
not only have the rights to use but also rights of ownership over
MFPs.

Objective Indian and World Geography General Studies Paper - 1 For Civil Services State Services Examinations (Majid Husain)

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Published by McGraw Hill Education (India) Private Limited

Objective Indian and World Geography, 4e

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This edition can be exported from India only by the publishers.

Printed and bound in India

ISBN (13) : 978-93-89949-21-6

Cover Designer: Neeraj Dayal

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Toll Free Number: 1800 103 5875

Mohd. Rizwan Ahmed, Director of IAS mentors Academy,

This book is the culmination of my experience of teaching

Covers questions on Astronomy, Geomorphology,

Each set of questions is based on one topic and has 60

Part-I: World Geography

Chapter–1 World Physical Geography: Geomorphology (landforms)

Part-II: Indian Geography

Chapter–11 Indian Geography – Physical Setting of India

Part-III: Practice Test Papers

Set–1 Practice Test Paper

Previous year Paper 2010

World Physical Geography:

1. Consider the following statements:

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: MEDIUM

33. Consider the following statements:

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: TOUGH

62. Which of the following acts as direct sources of information about

15. The extended depression on ground through which a stream flows

26. Vesuvius is a Stratovolcano (composite volcano) at Bay of Naples

Difficulty Level: Medium

S.No. Elments By Weight(%)

39. Earth is undergoing deformations imperceptibly [so slight, gradual,

59. Though basaltic rocks can be found in all the abovementioned

Difficulty Level: Tough

97. Estuaries (delta at submerged mouth of river) and Cuspate

1. Which of the following are correct regarding Latitudes ?

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: MEDIUM

30. Which of the following is/are correct regarding British type of

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: TOUGH

71. The pattern of planetary winds depend on:

8. Walker Cell: Warming and cooling of the Pacific Ocean is most

Cold wind Warm winds

Difficulty Level: Medium

(a) Conditions for the formation of air masses:

Difficulty Level: Tough

1. Which of the following is a source of fossil fuels?

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: MEDIUM

16. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Continental slope?

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: TOUGH

31. Which of the following is/are correct?

Difficulty Level: Medium

Difficulty Level: Tough

Ecology, Environment, Climate

1. Which of the following best describes the term “habitat”?

(a) Tropical Rainforest Biome

DIFFICULTY LEVEL: MEDIUM

61. Consider the following statements regarding plant growth:

5. Difference between Habitat and Environment

14. Tropical Deciduous Biome is also called as Monsoon Climate

Difficulty Level: Medium

Difficulty Level: Tough

75. Artificial Sources of Radioactive pollution